Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHGY209 > Blood > Flashcards

Blood Flashcards

1
Q

blood has an essential role in maintaining what?

A

homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are some primary functions of blood?

A
  • transport
  • acid-base balance
  • protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how is blood important for the transport?

give examples?

A

blood serves as a medium in which nutrients, waste products and hormones may be transported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the normal pH range for blood?

A

7.3-7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Blood is comprised of what types of body fluids?

A

both ECF (plasma) & ICF (what is found inside the blood cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

in terms of % how much of the body is composed of blood?

A

around 7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does it mean to have normovolemia?

A

normal blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does it mean to have hypovolemia?

A

lower blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does it mean to have hypervolemia?

A

higher blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is hematocrit?

A

the % of blood volume that is occupied by RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if your hematocrit is of 45% and your total blood volume occupied by RBC is of 2.25L, then how much volume is occupied by plasma?

A
  1. 45=2.25
  2. 55=?

?= 2.75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the composition of plasma?

A
  • > 90% H20
  • Na+ Cl- (K+, HCO3-) (Ca2+, Mg 2+, PO4 2-)
  • Glucose, AA, lipids (cholesterol, phospholipids & tryglycerides) O2, CO2
  • proteins (7%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what proteins can be found in the plasma?

A
  • albumins
  • globulins
  • fibrinogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does the ISF differ from the plasma?

A

due to the higher concentration of protein in the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are some methods used to separate the proteins found in plasma?

A

Differential precipitation by salts
Sedimentation in ultracentrifuge
Electrophoretic mobility
Immunological characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

identify the following separation method

fractionation method based on movement of charged particles along a voltage gradient

A

electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what factors influence the rate of migration when using electrophoresis?

A
  • number and distribution of charges

- molecular weight of the proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how can we identify the molecule/protein with the smaller molecular weight in electrophoresis?

A

the smaller weight enables to travel at a greater distance and hence will be observed to be the furthest away from initial content being tested (near positive side) however it is to be noted that one molecule may have a small molecular weight bu have a positive charge causing it to travel less far down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which plasma protein travels at the fastest rate and is found in the greatest amount?

A

-albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how many different globulins can be found

A

-4 types

a1, a2, B, Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where is fibrinogen generally found?

A

between the B and Y globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is fibrinogen important in?

A

blood clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is serum?

why is it used?

A

plasma without the clothing proteins

much easier to study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is different when observing a serum electophoretic pattern?

A

it will lack a fibrinogen peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

why is it important to be able to read electrophoretic patterns

A

useful in clinical setting to depict diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how can we identify renal diseases from electrophoretic patterns

A

albumin peak is blunted (lost in urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where are antibodies carried in?

A

in Y globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what would be observed in the case of someone with a bacterial infection’s electrophoretic pattern?

A

the Y globulin would peak higher due to the higher demand for antibodies due to the presence of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

where do the plasma proteins come from?

A

-most produced by the liver (albumin, fibrinogen, A1, A2, B)

Y globulins are produced by lymphoid tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how does the shape of the proteins differ

A

albumin: small, oval
globulins: heterogeneous group
fibrinogen: elongated fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how does the molecular weight of proteins differ?

A

albumin: 69
globulins: 90-800
fibrinogen: 35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which is the most prominent protein in the plasma?

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the primary function of plasma proteins?

A

-determines the distribution of fluids between the plasma and ISF compartments by controlling transcapillary dynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the cell membrane relatively impermeable to?

A

ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what can freely pass through the capillary wall?

A

H20 and Ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is needed for their to be a net flow of water between compartments

A

a difference in osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what type of solutes contribute to the effective osmotic pressure of a solution

A

non diffusible solutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

are plasma proteins considered to be diffusible of non-diffusible?

A

non diffusible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the term used to describe plasma protein osmotic pressure

A

COP

colloidal osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what happens if COP increases in the plasma

A

more water will flow into the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what happens if cop decreases

A

water will flow into ISF hence ISF volume will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the major forms of fluid transport across the capillary walls?

A
  • COP of plasma which determines the net flow (in/out) of the capillaries (osmotic flow caused by the plasma proteins)
  • bulk flow: the poreous membrane where the pressure difference will cause for plasma to move across, except for its proteins which are too large to cross.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the starling forces?

A

the opposing forces between filtration and Osmotic flow which will determine the net flow (force) between the plasma and ISF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

generally how does the circulatory system function?

A

blood leaves the heart through the artery and enters arterioles which then pass through the capillaries which branch off into the veins and back into the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the capillary bed?

A

site where exchanges between the plasma and ISF occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how does starling transcapillary dynamiscs function?

A

opposing forces between the pressing from the artery and COP and Vein Pressur vs COP cause for a net filtration and net absorption pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how are nutrients, waste O2 and CO2 exchanged through the capillaries?

A

they are exchanged through simple diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what do the startling’s transcapillary dymanics determine?

A

the distribution of the ECF volume between the plasma and ISF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

through the process of filtration in transcapillary dynamics, what tends to occur?

A

the process of filtration tends to push the fluid out from the inside of the capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

through the process of osmotic flow in transcapillary dynamics, what tends to occur?

A

the osmotic flow tends to pull in or retain the fluid inside the capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

in starling’s transcapillary dynamics, where do the exchanges (absorption/filtration) tends to occur?

A

along the whole length of the capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what % of fluid being filtered out gets reabsorbed back into the capillary?
what happens to the rest?

A

90% is taken back into capillaries

the other 10% is drained by the lynmphatic vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the lymphatic system? (quick summary)

A

network of blind ended terminal tubules which coalesce to form larges lymphatic vessels and then converge into lymphatic ducts which then drain into veins in the chest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the total blood flow in our body during a day?

A

6000L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How much of the blood volume is filtered into the ISF per day?

A

20L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Of the amount of blood filtered through the ISF daily gets returned by absorption?

A

around 17L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What volume of the blood filtered through the ISF passes through lymphatic drainage daily?

A

around 3L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

in starling’s transcapillary dynamics what does the COP of plasma determine?

A

how much water flows into or out of the Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the osmotic pressure dependent of?

A

the number of osmotically active particles/unit volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

proteins fractions will exert an osmotic pressure which is directly related to?

A

their concentration in the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

proteins fractions will exert an osmotic pressure which is inversely related to?

A

the molecular weight of that protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

which protein will therefore contribute most to the COP

A

Albumin as it has the highest concentration and the lowest molecular weight, hence the Greatest COP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are some factors that affect transcapillary dynamics?

A
  • hydrostatic pressure
  • cop
  • capillary permeability
  • lymphatic drainage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is edema?

A

its is the accumulation of excess fluid in interstitial spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

gives examples of how edema can develop

A
  • increase in hydrostatic pressure
  • decrease in the levels of plasma proteins, hence a decrease in COP
  • increase of capillary permeability
  • obstruction of the lymphatic drainage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how can an increase in hydrostatic pressure cause for edema?

A

say that the hydrostatic pressure in both the veins and arteries increases while keeping the COP constant, the net Filtration and Net absorption will change causing an imbalance. (pressure of filtration > pressure of Absorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

how can decreasing the COP cause edema?

A

by decreasing the COP the net filtration and absorption pressures are once again altered (causing for net filtration > net absorption causing for fluid to accumulate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what may cause for a decrease of COP?

A
  • the failure to synthesize plasma proteins in cases of liver diseases
  • severe protein malnutrition such as in kwashiorkor (big bellies in undernourished children)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what happens if permeability of the capillary wall increases?

A

generally, there is very little protein in the ISF (what distinguishes it from the plasma) however, if the permeability increases, some of the plasma proteins will escape and move into the ISF where they can exert and oncotic effect. causing for a decrease of COP overall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what may be cause when lymphatic drainage is obstructed?

A

elephantis cause by a parasite infection (filaria nematode) which causes for lymphatic drainage to be blocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what do the plasma proteins contribute to?

A

1- distribution between ISF and plasma by controlling transcapillary dynamics
2- contribute to the viscosity of plasma
3- contribute to the buffering power of plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

viscosity is a contributing factor to the maintenance of what?

A

blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the normal pH range of the blood(plasma)?

A

it is genrally kept constant at around 7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what proteins are essential in blood clotting?

A

fibrinogen and some globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what proteins provide specific resistance to infection?

A

Y-globulins (immunoglobulins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

which protein(s) act as a carrier for lipids, minerals and hormones?

A

Albumin and some globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is the life span of RBC (erythrocytes?)

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is the life span of platelets?

A

7-8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the life span of WBC (leucocytes)

A

varies can range from hours to years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

in termes of concentration, which is the most abundant blood cell?

A
  • RBC 5x10^6/ uL
  • platelets 2.5-4 x 10^4/ uL
  • WBC: 0.8-1 x 10^4/ uL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is erythropoiesis?

A

its the production of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is thrombopoiesis?

A

its the production of platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what term is used to describe the production of WBCs?

A

Leukopoiesis

84
Q

how does hematopoiesis general patteren function ?

A

cytokines (an inducer) stimulates the production of pleuripotent stem cells which undergo a process of self replication. a stimulus allows for the committed stem cells to be converted to their respective parties; leukocytes, platelates and erythrocytes to division and cell differentiation

85
Q

what are cytokines?

A

substances (proteins or peptides) whcih are released by one cell and affect the growth, development and activity of another cell.

86
Q

what is the name of the cytokines responsible for differentiation and proliferation of blood cell precursors?

A

Hemtopoietic GFs

87
Q

what are the 2 big cell branches in which pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells can be made into?

A
  • lymphoid stem cell

- myeloid stem cell

88
Q

if we inject bone marrow stem cells can all hematopoietic cells be reconstituated

A

yes

89
Q

what are the sites of hemotopoiesis during prenatal stages?

A

yolk sac

  • liver and spleen
  • distal bones
90
Q

as we age, what happens to the sites of hematopoiesis?

A

not all bones continue to produce cells.

91
Q

what bones continue to produce blood cells?

A

proximal epiphysis of long bones, flat bones of the fkull, shoulder blades, pelvis, vertebrae, sternum and ribs

92
Q

what is the main fct of RBC?

A

facilitate the transport of respiratory gases between lungs and cells

93
Q

how are RBC shaped?

A

as biconcave disks

94
Q

what are the advantages of the shape of RBC?

A
  1. maximum surface area and minimum diffusion distance for volume allows to increase the efficiency of O2 and CO2 diffusion
  2. high degree of flexibility allows it to squeeze through the narrow capillaries
95
Q

do RBC contain any nucleus or relative organelles?

A

no, they have no subcellular organelles

96
Q

which gender has more RBC and why?

A
  • males

- testosterone favours the production of RBC as opposed to estrogen which does the opposite

97
Q

what is the composition of RBC?

A

mostly water
33% hemoglobin
a slight faction of lipids, proteins and ions

98
Q

why are the glycolytic enzymes important for RBC’s?

A

they generate energy

99
Q

why are the carbonic are the carbonic anhydrase

A

will help transport co2

100
Q

What is the general structure of hemoglobin

A

contains 4 AA chains (2 Alpha and 2 beta chains)

has MW of 64K

101
Q

how much Hb is present per RBC?

A

200-300 x10^6 Molecules/ RBC

102
Q

what happens when blood appears bright red?

A

in the lungs, Hb molecules are saturated with O2

103
Q

what happens when blood appears dark red?

A

in tissues, O2 is dissociating from Hb.

104
Q

what is a primary function of hemoglobin?

A

it increases the solubility of O2 in plasma.

from 0.3ml O2/100 ml plasma to 20 ml O2/100 ml

105
Q

what are the general functions of hemoglobin?

A
  • transport of 02
  • transport of CO2
  • acts as a buffer
106
Q

why is Hb found inside the cell rather than dissolved within the plasma?

A
  • plasma viscosity would change due to the increase in proteins
  • the plasma COP would also differ (increase)
  • hemoglobin would potentially be lost through the kidneys, due to its similar size to albumin which also is the first protein to get lost through the kidney’s
107
Q

when Hb is fully saturated with O2, how much o2 does each gram of Hb hold?

A

1.34 ml O2

108
Q

what are some factors affecting Hb to bind and release O2

A 
temperature
ionic composition
pH
pCO2
Intracellular enzyme concentration
109
Q

how long does the bone marrow stem cell division and differentiation last?

A

3-5 days

110
Q

what happens to the reticulocyte during the first 24h when its in circulation?

A

it is recognizable, due to its ribosomal matter which makes it appear bumpy. however, after that 24H window, it becomes a RBC like any other and cannot be distinguished.

111
Q

what is the normal reticulocyte count?

A

<1%

112
Q

what does the reticulocyte count reflect?

A

it reflects the amount of erythropoiesis bone marrow

113
Q

what determines the number of RBCs

A
  • the requirement for O2

- the availability of O2

114
Q

what happens to RBC count as we increase in altitude?

A

the number of RBC increases as altitude increases. this is caused by the fact that the pressure of O2 decreases with altitude

115
Q

what is erythropoietin?

A

a glycoprotein hormone/cytokine produced largely by the kidney

116
Q

what is the function of erythropoietin?

A

it gets released in hypoxic conditions which may result from

  • decreased RBC count
  • decreased O2 availability
  • increased tissue demand for O2
117
Q

how is erythropoiesis regulated through negative feedback?

A

a decrease in 02 supply will increase the release of erythropoetin which then increases the concentration of plasma, it reaches the bones and acts as a precursor of the rbc causing them to divide and differentiate further and produce more RBC and carry more O2

118
Q

what happens to erythropoietin if O2 supply is already high?

A

its release is decreased

119
Q

what is the overall function of erythropoietin?

A

it gets released by kidneys in the presence of hypoxia and stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs thereby maintaining Homeostasis

120
Q

in the case that someone undergoes severe accidental hemorrage what would happen?

A

-less Hb availible for O2 transport
-reduce supply of O2 for kidney and liver
-increase production and release of erythropoietin
-increase production of erythrocyte precursors in bone marrow
-increase discharge of young erythrocytes in blood
= more Hb for O2 transport

121
Q

how does testosterone act upon erythropoietin?

A
  • increases the release of erythropoietin

- increases sensitivity of RBC precurosrs to erythropoietin

122
Q

can the lifespan of RBC be prolonged?

A

no

123
Q

what are the cells that remove RBCs from circulation?

A

Macrophages

124
Q

what does the macrophage do to the RBC?

A

the macrophage allows the old RBC to be digested through phagocytosis, its contents get released

125
Q

what part of the RBC is recycled what component is lost?

A

from hemoglobin the globin component is returned to the AA pool
Ferrous iron is picked up by transferrin and stored with ferritin and brought back to bone marrow to produce new RBC where as Heme is not recycled and instead is converted to biliverdin and then bilirubin which then gets picked up by liver and is lost in the intestinal tract

126
Q

how can jaudice be caused?

A
  1. excessive hemolysis (too much RBC as digested by the macrophage causing for too much bilirubin in the liver)
  2. hepatic damage where the liver can not adequately filter all the bilirubin it is receiving.
  3. bile duct obstruction causing it impossible for the liver to get rid of the bile (containing the bilirubin)
127
Q

what does the normal dynamic for RBC look like?

A

production = destruction

128
Q

what happens if RBC production > destruction?

A

polycythemia

129
Q

what happens if RBC production < destruction?

A

anemia

130
Q

in a clinical setting how can we evaluate RBC dynamics?

A
  • number of RBCs
  • amount of Hb
  • Hematocrit
131
Q

what must we be careful to if using the hematocrit to determine RBC dynamics?

A

the Hematocrit may be extremely high, however it may not be cause by the over production of RBC but rather someone who is in a state of dehydration

132
Q

what is relative polycythemia?

A

it is due to the decrease in plasma volume

133
Q

what is the normal g% of RBC and what is the usual concentration of RBC?

A
  • 16g%

- 5-5.5 x 10^6 RBC/uL

134
Q

what values represent a state of polycythemia?

A
  • > 18g%

- >6x 10^6 RBC/uL

135
Q

what is physiological Polycythemia?

A

it is a secondary effect caused by an increased need for O2 or a decreased availability of O2

136
Q

give examples of when physiological polycythemia may occur?

A
  • at high elevations
  • during increased physical activity
  • in cases of chronic lung diseases
  • in heavy smokers
137
Q

what is pathological polycythemia?

A

excess creating of RBC without a known or specific cause

138
Q

how may pathological polycythemia occur?

A
  • tumours present on cells producing EPO causing for accelerated production of RBC
  • unregulated production of bone marrow which will over produce RBC
139
Q

under polycythemis vera (pathological) what is the Ht value and what is the concentration of RBC?

A

Ht is around 70%

concentration is between 7-8 x 10^6 RBC/uL

140
Q

what are some issues caused by polycythemia?

A

increased blood viscosity causes for sluggish blood flow which may lead to blood clotting

141
Q

what does anemia lead to?

A

decrease in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.

142
Q

what factors may be affected in people who suffer with anemia?

A 
1. RBC count may decrease 
males < 4x 10^6/uL
females < 3.2 x10^6/uL
2. Hemoglobine content decreases
males: <11g%
females <9g%
143
Q

what is the term used to describe someone who is anemic and has large RBCs? what is the volume of the cell?

A

macrocytic

> 94u^3

144
Q

what is the term used to describe someone who is anemic and has normal RBCs? what is the volume of the cell?

A

normocytic

80-94 u^3

145
Q

what is the term used to describe someone who is anemic and has normal Hb count?

A

normochromic

around 33% Hb

146
Q

what is the term used to describe someone who is anemic and has small RBCs? what is the volume of the cell?

A

Microcytic

<80u^3

147
Q

what is the term used to describe someone who is anemic and has less Hb count?

A

hypochromic
<33%
the blood cells will appear a lighter red color

148
Q

what are the main causes to anemia?

A
  1. diminished production
  2. ineffective malnutrition
  3. increased destruction
149
Q

give an example of a type of anemia where production is decreased due to abnormal site production?

A

aplastic (hypoplastic) anemia

maybe caused by various factors such as an exposure to radiation, drugs or chemicals

150
Q

how can we classify Aplastic Anemia?

A

normocytic, normochromic

151
Q

give an example as to why anemia may be produced by stimulation failure? how can such be classified?

A

renal diseases may yield for normocytic, normochromic

152
Q

iron deficency anemia is a result of what? how can it be caused?

A

inadequate obtention of raw materials
it can be caused due to an increase of requirements such as during pregnancy, as infants or adolescents
or inadequate supplies due to
-loss of Fe in hemorage
-dietary deficencies (vegan diets especially)
-failure to absorb iron

153
Q

how can we decribe the anemia in iron deficency anemia

A

microcytic, hypochromic

154
Q

what is special about iron in the body?

A

we need about 25 mg daily
we have about 4g in our bodies
our daily intake is of about 15-20mg and from that only 1-2mg are absorbed from the guy (more in females)

155
Q

why do we only need so little of iron absorbed daily?

A

because the amount we need is simply to cover for the amount that was lost, that is to say that the rest was recycled.

156
Q

how is the 2mg of iron lost per day in women calculated?

A

it is assumed that 1gHb contains 3.5mg Fe
and that for 100mL of blood we have 15g Hb and hence around 50mg Fe. thus in a month we lose approximately 50mL of blood (25 mg Fe) and our 1g/day summing up to 2mg/day

157
Q

what may be a cause of ineffective maturation leading to maturation failure anemia?

A

deficencies in Vit B12 and folic acid which are both needed for normal DNA synthesis

158
Q

what are vitamin B12 deficencies generaly caused by?

A

failure to absorb it or in a strictly vegan diet

159
Q

what are folic acid deficiencies generally caused by?

A

usually caused by dietary absences, overcooking vegetables.

160
Q

what is pernicious anemia?

A

it is an iron deficency anemia that is caused by intrinsic factor deficency causing for Vit B12 to not be taken up into the intestines.

161
Q

Generally what is the pressure exerted bu COP?

A

25 mm Hg

162
Q

Generally what is the normal BP in the arteries?

A

35 mmHg

163
Q

Generally what is the normal BP in the veins?

A

15 mm Hg

164
Q

What is the approximate COP exerted by the different protein fractions?

A

Albumin: ~20 mm Hg
Globulines: 5
Fibrinogen: <1

165
Q

what is hemostasis?

A

the arrest of bleeding following a vascular injury

166
Q

what are the stages of hemostasis?

A

primary hemostasis involves the vascular response and the platelet response
where as secondary hemostasis involves the clot formation

167
Q

what happens during the vascular response

A

nervous reflex causes the cells to stick together
myogenic response will cause the smooth muscle cells in larger vessels to contract together
or chemical vasoconstrictors such as cytokines will cause for sticking of the cells

168
Q

what is white thrombus?

A

it is another name given to the temporary clot (platelet plug) formed during the platelet response

169
Q

do platelets have a nucleus?

A

no

170
Q

what are some important features of platelets

A

diameter: 2-4 um
lacks nucleus
contains many granules
between 250, 000-400, 000/uL

171
Q

what are some of the contents of the granules

A 
factors for vasoconstriction
platelet aggregation
clotting
filaments
microtubules
mitochondria
sER
172
Q

what is the life span of a platelet

A

7-10 days

173
Q

how is the platelet produced?

A

thrombopoietin produced mainly in the liver will stimulate the committed stem cell and stimulate multiple rounds of mitosis causing for the production of a megakaryocte which will extend its pseudopods into the blood stream and release its contents ( between 2-3 thousand platelets)

174
Q

how is the platelet plug formed (general steps)

A
  1. adhesion
  2. activation and release of cytokines
  3. aggregation
  4. consolidation
175
Q

what roles do prostacyclin and nitric oxide have on the platelet plug formation?

A

prostacyclin pushes the platelets away with NO which leads to vasodilatation

176
Q

what is the role of collagen in platelet plug formation?

A

collagen will bind and activate the platelets causing them to stick together

177
Q

what is PF3 secreted by?

what is its role in the platelet plug formation?

A

it is secreted by damaged endothelial cells

they get release and will attract more platelets to coagulate together promoting the coagulation scheme

178
Q

how is aggregation and consolidation of the platelet plug achieved?

A

TA2 acts as a vasoconstrictor and will enable for the white thrombus to aggregate and consolidate into the platelet plug

179
Q

what is the role of serotonin in the platelet plug formation?

A

it acts as a vasoconstrictor

180
Q

adhesion of the platelets is facilitated by what?

A

by the von willebrand factor

181
Q

what are the main functions of platelets?

A
  • release of vasoconstriction agents
  • formation of the platelet plug
  • release of clotting factors
  • participate in clot retraction once healed
  • promotes maintenance of the endothelial integrity
182
Q

what condition occurs if there is insufficent platelets?

A

petechiae

183
Q

what happens if the primary hemostatic response is abnormal?

A

it will lead to prolonged bleeding

184
Q

what factors may cause for the primary hemostatic response to be abnormal?

A
  1. failure of blood vessel to constrict
  2. platelet deficency
    < 75 000 platelets/uL (thrombocytopenia
    may occur due to congenital conditions or due to drugs toxins and antibodies
185
Q

how does Asprin interfere with blood clotting?

A

in small doses asprin will inhibit the synthesis and the release of TXA2 hence leading to functional platelet deficiency

186
Q

what is a thrombus?

A

blood clot

187
Q

what is responsible for clot formation, plasma or RBC?

A

plasma, hence RBC are nor required for the process

188
Q

what may initiate blood clotting?

A

injury to a blood vessel

189
Q

what does clotting result in?

A

activation of numerous groups of plasma proteins or clotting factors, in the presence of Ca2+ and phospholipid agents

190
Q

what pathways can be taken in order to achieve blood clotting

A
  • intrinsic pathway

- extrinsic pathway

191
Q

what are the important features of the intrinsic pathway

A
  • 3-6 minutes
  • acts upon damage to blood vessels
  • can be increase by the activation of the extrinsic pathway
192
Q

how does the intrinsic pathway function?

A

requires multiple plasma factors that can act with Ca2+ and PF3 to produce prothrombinase which can then convert prothrombin to thrombin which will act to convert fibrinogen to fibrin which leads to blood clotting

193
Q

what are some important features of the extrinsic pathway?

A
  • 15-20 seconds
  • produces in small amounts
  • activated by damage to tissue outside of vessel
  • requires interacting plasma factors, ca2+ and tissue phospholipids
194
Q

how does the extrinsic pathway function?

A

tissue factors released from dammaged cells along with plasma factors and Ca2+ rapidly form prothombinase which can then help convert prothombin into thrombin which works with fibrinogen to produce fibrin needed for blood clot formation

195
Q

how does the extrinsic scheme work with the instrinsic scheme?

A

through the process of positive feedback, the small amounts of thrombin produced by the extrinsic scheme trigger the intrinsic scheme to produce greater quantities of thrombin

196
Q

what are some factors involved in coagulation?

A

Ca 2+
Phospholipid
Protein plasma factors

197
Q

give an example of a congenital factor deficency?

normall is it a single or multiple factors that will be affected by congenital deficency?

A

hemophilia

single factor, in this case VIII

198
Q

in acquired clotting factor deficiency is it a single or multiple factors that are affected?

A

multifactor

199
Q

what may cause for acquired clotting factor deficency?

A
  • liver diseases

- vit K. deficency which is an essential factor for the synthesis of prothrombin, VII, IX, X

200
Q

what does clot retraction depend on?

A

it depends on the presence of contractile protein (thrombosthenin) which gets released by platelets

201
Q

what is fribrinolysis?

A

the lysis of a cloth

202
Q

how does fibrinolysis occur?

A

plasminogen along with some activators (intrinsic and extrinsic) will produce plasmin which will act upon fibrin and reduce it to fragments

203
Q

what common drug acts as an inhibitor for platelet adhesion?

A

asprin

204
Q

what are some common anticoagulant drugs?

A
  • coumadin

- heparin

205
Q

identify the following anticoagulant drug

promotes inhibition of thrombin activation and action

A

heparin

206
Q

identify the following anticoagulant drug

blocks synthesis of functional prothrombin, VII, IX, X

A

coumadin

207
Q

what type of drugs will promote clot lysis

give exampled

A 
thrombolytic drugs
such as
tissue plasminogen activator
and 
streptokinase

PHGY209 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions