Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MH-60R HAC > CNAF > Flashcards

CNAF Flashcards

1
Q

(V) Define Actual Instrument Approach

A

When actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1,000’ above the airport / flight deck elevation during an instrument approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(V) Define Actual Instrument Conditions

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight that do not permit visual reference to the horizon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain the difference between aircraft type, class, model, and series.

A

Type — the broadest classification of aircraft as to physical characteristics (ex. Fixed wing, rotary, tilt)

Class — general mission purpose of an aircraft design (ex. Attack, fighter, patrol, transport)

Model — basic mission symbol and design number (ex. P-8, F/A-18, H-60)

Series — specific version of aircraft within the same model (ex. MH-60R or S, F/A-18D or E/F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(V) Define Controlling Custodian

A

The command exercising administrative control of assignment, employment, and logistic support of aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

(V) Define cross-country flight

A

A flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

(V) When does helicopter flight time start and end?

A

For helicopters, a flight begins when the aircraft lifts from a rest point or commences ground taxi and ends after airborne flight when rotors are disengaged or the aircraft has been stationary for 5 minutes with rotors engaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

(V) Define a hazard

A

A condition with the potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage, or mission degradation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

(V) When can you log actual instrument time? By whom? Simulated instrument time?

A

Actual instrument time will be logged by both pilots in a dual/multi piloted aircraft during flight in actual instrument conditions.

Simulated instrument time shall be logged only by the pilot actually manipulating the controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define a landing

A

A return to the surface; landings include touch and go (providing the landing gear touches the surface), bolter, forced, or crash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is considered the local flying area?

A

Area in vicinity of an air installation in which locally-based aircraft operate during a typical sorties flight time.

The local flying area shall not exceed 350 miles from an air installation and be designated as such in the Air Operations Manual by the CO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Requirements to meet the multi-piloted aircraft criteria.

A
  1. Two sets of flight controls and instruments
  2. Operated by two pilots who meet NATOPS requirements for that model aircraft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(V) Define night time

A

The portion of pilot time during darkness between official time of sunset and sunrise regardless of whether IMC or VMC conditions exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(V) Define Operational Necessity

A

A mission associated with war or peacetime operations in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft and crew.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Orientation Flight

A

A continuous-flight in DOD aircraft performed within the local flying area and terminating at the point of origin intended to further the understanding of particular programs concerning the roles and missions of the DOD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(V) Define Officer in Tactical Command

A

The senior officer present eligible to assume command, or the officer to whom he has delegated tactical command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(V) Define Reporting Custodian

A

An organizational unit of the lowest echelon of command accepting responsibility for aircraft as designated either by the CNO or by the controlling custodian of the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(V) Define a risk

A

An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(V) Define a Simulated Instrument Approach and Simulated Instrument Conditions

A

Simulated instrument approach — an instrument approach flown under simulated instrument conditions.

Simulated instrument conditions — conditions external to the aircraft in flight are VMC, but pilot vision is limited primarily to the interior of the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(V) Define NATOPS and state it’s purpose per CNAF.

A

The Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures and Standardization program is a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(V) Military Exigency clause in CNAF

A

In the tactical environment, military exigency may require on-site deviations from instructions/procedures contained in CNAF. The existing risk of deviation must continually be weighed against the benefits of deviating from this manual. Deviation from specified flight and operating instructions is authorized in emergency situations when, in the judgement of the pilot in command, safety justifies such a deviation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(V) Emergency and Humanitarian Operations

A

Naval aircraft operations are authorized in emergencies such as forest fire, search, rescue, major calamities, and for humanitarian reasons involving life-threatening circumstances. Notification of the operation shall be made to the CNO or CMC, as appropriate, and the responsible local commander, but without delaying action when time is an essential factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who can embark civilian law enforcement officials (LEO)? Who approves it?

A

Embarkation of civilian LEOs is authorized for helicopters, tiltrotor, and non-ejection seat aircraft.

Authority to approve flights for LEO personnel and responsibility for establishing operational procedures is delegated to COMNAVAIRLANT (PAC, CNATRA, CMC etc.). Authority to approve may be delegated to numbered fleet commanders and type commanders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(V) Non-essential flights. Statement and 4 examples.

(ROHM)

A

The use of aircraft for nonessential flights shall not be authorized. Any flight open to misinterpretation by the public shall be avoided. Examples of flights that are considered nonessential are as follows:

  1. Flights of a routine business nature for which commercial or other military transportation could be more economically substituted.
  2. Flights for any officer or group of officers, the sole purpose of which is the convenience and/or prestige of the officers concerned and not the performance of official duties or accomplishment of bona fide training.
  3. Repeated flights to the hometown area of flight personnel concerned.
  4. Flights coinciding with major sports events or civic celebrations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(V) Who is authorized to taxi a Naval helicopter?

A

No one shall be permitted to taxi a helicopter except those persons who are authorized to fly helicopters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(V) Individuals are selected to participate in orientation flights for one of the following purposes:

(ABFM)

A
  1. To familiarize them with an aircraft, its operation, capabilities, requirements, concept of employment, or limitations.
  2. To familiarize them with a base complex from the air for official purposes other than merely sightseeing or goodwill.
  3. To allow FAA personnel to perform official functions that require their infrequent embarkation on naval aircraft.
  4. To perform other military duties not assigned to the flight crew.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

____________ for helicopter units may authorize personnel to be embarked as passengers onboard their aircraft.

A

Reporting custodians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(V) Embarkation of Passengers

A

No person shall be enplaned as a passenger not shall any cargo be embarked on a naval aircraft unless authorization has been granted by competent authority in accordance with applicable directives.

The PIC of naval aircraft (while absent from home unit) may authorize air transportation for personnel and/or equipment not otherwise qualified for Government air transportation when required for the successful prosecution of a SAR, MEDEVAC, or disaster relief mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(V) Helicopter Pax Overwater Flights

A

Helicopter and Tiltrotor passenger overwater flights at night are authorized subject to the following restrictions:

  1. Ship launches and recoveries shall be made during daylight hours. This constraint may be waived in cases of operational necessity.
  2. In cases of MEDEVAC, a qualified medical attendant who is current in approved water survival training and has been properly briefed on egress procedures may be transferred at night with approval from the ship’s CO.
  3. This does not preclude troop movement in support of amphibious exercises, VBSS, or SPECOPS training and operational missions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(V) What are considered critical phases of flight?

A
  • Takeoff
  • Landing
  • Formation flight
  • FCF
  • Degraded aircraft performance regimes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name the 7 CRM critical behavioral skills.

A
  • Decision Making
  • Assertiveness
  • Mission Analysis
  • Communication
  • Leadership
  • Adaptability/Flexibility
  • Situational Awareness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(V) Flag or General Officer Embarked

A

The pilot in command of an aircraft with a flag or general officer eligible for command at sea or in the field embarked as a passenger shall be subject to the orders of such flag or general officer in accordance with USN regulations.

When such an embarked passenger exercises authority to command the aircraft, that passenger thereby assumes full responsibility for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

The embarked passenger shall give due consideration to the judgement of the PIC regarding items of flight safety such as hazardous weather and aircraft / crew limitations.

Flying rule violations, accident reports, and any other actions arising out of the flight will be referred to the embarked passenger as the responsible commander of the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(V) Name the 5-step process of ORM.

(I AM IS)

A
  1. Identify hazards
  2. Assess hazards
  3. Make risk decisions
  4. Implement controls
  5. Supervise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(V) Name the 3 levels of ORM.

A
  1. Time-critical: a quick mental review of the five-step process when time does not allow for any more (i.e. in-flight mission change)
  2. Deliberate: experience and brain storming are used to identify hazards and is best done in groups (i.e. aircraft moves, fly on/off)
  3. In-depth: more substantial tools are used to thoroughly study the hazards and their associated risk in complex operations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(V) Name the 4 principles of ORM.

(BUMR)

A
  1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
  2. Accept no unnecessary risk.
  3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning.
  4. Make risk decisions are the right level.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Weather and Pax Requirements for FCF

A
  • Passengers shall not be carried during FCF.
  • FCF should be conducted during daylight hours within the local flying area in VMC.
  • Unit commanders may authorize FCF under conditions other than the above if in their opinion the flight can be conducted with an acceptable margin of safety.
  • Those portions of the flights that are considered critical shall be conducted in the vicinity of a suitable landing area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define Aerobatic Flight Maneuvers

A

intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in aircraft attitude, maneuvers requiring:

  • pitch/dive angles > 45deg
  • bank angles > 60deg
  • accelerations > 2gs

a maneuver that conforms to NATOPS is not considered aerobatic flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define CRM

A

Crew resource management is an integral part of every flight to improve mission effectiveness by:

  1. minimizing crew preventable errors
  2. maximizing crew coordination
  3. optimizing risk management
38
Q

Naval Aircraft shall be operated in accordance with applicable provisions of FAR, Part 91, except:

A
  1. Where CNAF prescribes more stringent requirements.
  2. Where exemptions or authorizations issued to DON/DOD permit deviation from FAR.

Applicable exceptions = Lighting and Alternate Airfield requirements

39
Q

List some limitations associated with orientation flights

A
  • only highly qualified personnel shall be selected
  • wx equal to or better than VFR
  • no formation flying unless req./authorized
  • permitted to fly during non-critical phases of flight
  • shall be conducted in local area, returning to point of origin
40
Q

(V) Officer in Tactical Command Embarked

A

Wing, group, or squadron commander, if embarked on a mission involving aircraft of their command, retains full authority and responsibility regarding command, including the mission in which participating.

41
Q

(V) Pilot in Command

A

Pilot in command refers to the pilot of an individual aircraft. The PIC is responsible for the safe, orderly flight of the aircraft and well-being of the crew.

The authority and responsibility of the PIC shall not be transferred during flight. It shall not be transferred to another individual except as required by emergency, operational necessity, or as directed by the commanding officer of the unit to which the aircraft is attached. The authority and responsibility of a PIC is independent of rank or seniority in relation to other persons participating in the mission or flight except for the following…

  • OTC embarked
  • Flag or General Officer embarked
42
Q

(V) Define intent

A

Lack of intent does not in itself constitute absence of culpability. One can be so grossly negligent as to equate omission with commission. The question is whether the PIC or formation leader could reasonably have been expected to avoid the violation.

43
Q

Cross Country Flight Requirements

(MSA)

A
  • Contributes to the mission of the command and naval service
  • Can be completed safely
  • Achieves training requirements
44
Q

Flights that require a HAC

(OATT)

A
  1. Operational / tactical missions
  2. Administrative missions in helicopters / tiltrotors
  3. Training flights, except those that are within the capabilities of pilots of lower classification and which, in the opinion of the CO, are best suited to teach such pilots self-reliance and command responsibility.
  4. Flights in which the transport of passengers is involved
45
Q

Any naval helicopter that is assigned the primary mission to operate as a rescue vehicle over water shall…

A

have as a member of its crew one aircrewman who is completely outfitted for water entry and has completed an approved rescue swimmers school

46
Q

What is to be included in pre-flight planning? (DRAFT NW)

A
  • anticipated traffic delays
  • risk assessment
  • alternates available
  • fuel requirements
  • terminal flight procedures
  • NOTAMs and TFRs
  • weather
47
Q

(V) When are Naval aircraft permitted to operate at civilian airfields?

(VMI)

A
  • Adds value to training
  • Contributes to mission accomplishment
  • Is otherwise in the interests of the government and taxpayers
48
Q

When is RON authorized for civilian airfields?

A

If required for aircraft maintenance or following an emergency divert.

Shall not be used for RON unless required for mission accomplishment.

49
Q

Helicopters are authorized to land at other than airfield locations (such as fields, highways, and parks) provided:

(MSL CO)

A
  1. A military requirement exists for such landing.
  2. Adequate safeguards are taken to permit safe landing and takeoff operations without hazard to people or property.
  3. There are no legal objections to landing at such nonairfield sites.

COs are authorized to waive the other than airfield landing requirements when the dispatched aircraft is engaged in SAR operations.

50
Q

Naval aircraft are permitted to operate from a closed control tower airfield when…

A

Both the aircraft reporting custodian and the commanding officer of the airfield have specifically authorized such operations.

51
Q

When are naval aircraft permitted to operate at closed airfields?

A

All naval aircraft are prohibited from taking off or landing at closed airfields except in the case of an emergency.

52
Q

When is it NOT required to submit a flight plan?

A
  1. Flights of operational necessity
  2. Student training flights under CNATRA within authorized training areas.
53
Q

What is the PIC signing for when submitting a flight plan? (RAW FW PIG)

A
  • Acknowledges responsibility for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight
  • The flight has been authorized
  • Every pilot in formation has received the weather brief
  • Flight planning data complete (DRAFT NW)
  • Weight and balance forms filed
  • Passengers properly briefed and manifested
  • Each pilot has instrument rating if going IMC or under positive control
  • Adhere to governing directives to include criteria for fuel and weather mins
54
Q

Methods of obtaining a weather brief

A
  1. FWB – expires 3 hours after briefing or ETD + 30 min.
  2. 1-888-PILOTWX or FSS brief
  3. Commercial weather forecasting if above are unavailable
55
Q

(Weather criteria for filing) Flight plans shall be filed based on all of the following:

A
  1. The actual weather at the point of departure at the time of clearance.
  2. The existing and forecast weather for the entire route of flight.
  3. Destination and alternate forecasts for a period 1 hour before ETA until 1 hour after ETA.
56
Q

When is an alternate airfield required?

A

An alternate airfield is required when the weather at the destination is forecast to be less than 3000/3 during 1 hr before ETA to 1 hr after ETA.

57
Q

Alternate airfield requirements

A

If an alternate airfield is required, it shall have a published approach compatible with installed operable aircraft navigation equipment that can be flown without the use of two-way radio communication whenever either one of the following conditions is met:

  1. The destination lacks the above described approach.
  2. The forecasted weather at the alternate is < 3000/3 during 1hr before ETA until 1hr after ETA.
58
Q

IFR filing criteria (destination vs. alternate wx)

A
59
Q

Severe Weather Watch bulletin exceptions

A

Except for operational necessity, emergencies, and flights involving all-weather research projects or weather reconnaissance, pilots shall not file into or through areas for which the Storm Prediction Center has issued a WW unless one of the following exceptions apply:

  1. Storm development has not progressed as forecast. Local installation CO or Wing commanders can continue operations but should be verified by DOD forecaster or FSS. If not at DOD facility, verification is required. If not progressing you may:
    - File VFR
    - File IFR and maintain VMC
    - File IFR only if weather radar on board
  2. Performance characteristics permit altitude above the storm.
60
Q

Fuel planning requirements

A
  • If alternate not required, fuel from takeoff to destination plus 10% reserve
  • If alternate required, fuel from takeoff to approach fix and thence to an alternate plus 10% reserve
  • At no point shall the planned fuel reserve after landing be than than 20 mins of fuel at planned altitude
61
Q

Position Light requirements

A

Shall be ON 30 min before official sunset until 30 min after official sunrise or anytime visibility from cockpit is < 3 statute miles

During these conditions, they shall be displayed:
- Immediately before engine start and anytime the engines are running
- When the aircraft is being towed unless otherwise illuminated
- When parked and likely to cause a hazard unless otherwise illuminated

62
Q

Anti-Collision Lights requirements

A

Anti-collision lights shall be used immediately before engine start and at all times when the aircraft engines are in operation, except when the use of such lights adversely affects ground operations (i.e., arming and dearming, refueling operations, etc.).

They may be turned off during flight through clouds when the rotating light reflects into the cockpit.

63
Q

Landing/taxi lights should be utilized for…

A

all taxi movements ashore during the hours of darkness unless a taxi signalman is directing the aircraft

use of these lights during landing approaches (day and night) within class B, C, D airspace is recommended when wx conditions permit

also recommended in areas of high bird concentration

64
Q

When aircraft lighting is required, what is the requirement for a formation flight?

A

at least one aircraft in the flight shall have lights on bright and the anti-collision light on when aircraft lighting is required

65
Q

Special VFR Weather Minimums

A

For special VFR within controlled airspace:

  • Pilot must obtain authorization from tower
  • Ceiling min. 500’
  • Visibility min. 1 statute mile
  • Aircraft must remain clear of clouds
  • Pilot and aircraft must be certified for instrument flight

COs may authorize helicopter special VFR flights in conditions below 500/1 for missions of operational necessity

66
Q

Weather minimums for helicopters outside of controlled airspace

A

outside of controlled airspace, helicopters may be operated below 1,200’ AGL, clear of clouds, when visibility < 1 statute mile if operated at a speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see and avoid other air traffic and maintain obstacle clearance

67
Q

To decrease the probability of midair collisions, all flights in naval aircraft shall…

A

be conducted in accordance with IFR to the max extent practicable

68
Q

Takeoff minimums for a standard instrument rating

A

published mins for available non-precision approach not less than 300/1

takeoff authorized with precision approach mins provided weather is at least equal to the precision approach mins for landing runway in use

in no case can wx be less than 200’ / 1/2 statute mile vis and 2,400 RVR

69
Q

Helicopters and tiltrotor required visibility minimum for approaches and landing may be reduced to…

A

1/2 the published visibility minimum for Category A aircraft, but in no case may it be reduced to less than 1/4 mile or 1,200’ RVR

70
Q

Approach criteria for multipiloted aircraft

A

When reported weather is at or below published minimums for the approach to be conducted, an approach shall not be commenced in a multi piloted aircraft unless the aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach.

71
Q

Pilots shall not descend below MDA or continue below DH unless…

A

they have the runway environment in sight and in their judgement a safe landing can be made

72
Q

When can you execute practice approaches below published minimums?

A
  • When the airport is not your filed destination or alternate
  • The weather at your destination and alternate meet the IFR filing criteria
  • The aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach
73
Q

Practice autorotation restrictions

(SAFE)

A

Practice autos shall be conducted:

  • Over a surface where a full auto can be safely completed
  • Requires approval of tower
  • Is within the limits of the field boundary
  • Accessible to crash, rescue, and firefighting equipment
74
Q

Where no other guidance is provided, pilots of helicopters and tiltrotors shall not exceed __________ within Class B, C, or D airspace unless specifically cleared by the tower or other control agency.

A

500’ AGL

75
Q

Examples of Noise Sensitive Areas
(BRB RMP)

A
  • breeding farms
  • resorts
  • beaches
  • national recreational areas
  • national monuments
  • national parks
76
Q

Noise sensitive areas shall be avoided at altitudes of less than ____________ except when in compliance with an approved:

A

3000’ AGL

(RAP)
- VR or IR route
- special use airspace
- traffic or approach pattern

77
Q

Define Flat Hatting

A

Flat hatting or any maneuvers conducted at low altitude and/or a high rate of speed for thrill purposes over land or water are prohibited.

Any acts conducted for thrill purposes are strictly prohibited.

78
Q

Jettisoning fuel restrictions

A

Whenever practicable, fuel shall not be jettisoned below an altitude of 6,000’ above the terrain.

Should weather or emergency conditions dictate jettisoning at a lower altitude, every effort shall be made to avoid populated areas.

79
Q

Define Minimum Fuel

A

Minimum fuel is an advisory term indicating that in the judgement of the pilot the fuel state is such that no undue delay can be accepted en route to the destination.

80
Q

Liferaft requirements

A

On overwater flights the number of persons in an aircraft shall not exceed capacity of the liferafts carried except as dictated by operational necessity.

Liferafts of sufficient capacity to accommodate pax and crew shall be provided in all aircraft when there would be significant risk of water entry in the event of a mishap.

Officers in tactical command may waive this provision during troop movements between sea and shore when they deem appropriate and adequate SAR resources are available.

81
Q

Flight personnel and pax briefing requirements / exceptions

A

PIC shall ensure prior to takeoff that flight personnel and pax are adequately instructed on personal safety and survival equipment and procedures

pilots of helos/tiltrotor that embark pax are exempt from briefing responsibilities while engaged in:

  • SAR
  • Transporting patrols, outposts, recon, troops
  • Ship ops when landings are precluded
82
Q

Safety belts and shoulder harnesses requirements / exceptions

(LRASM)

A

the number of persons over 2yo embarked in a naval aircraft for flight shall be restricted to the number for which there are adequate seats and safety belts

during takeoffs, landings, and at other times specified by PIC, each person over 2yo on board shall occupy a seat or berth and be secured with the safety belt provided

req. may be eliminated when operational environment or aircraft configuration/load req dictate for the accomplishment of essential training and operations with the following guidelines: “LRASM”

  • dedicated lifesaving efforts (SAR/humanitarian)
  • not to be used for routine operations, only applies when tactical or procedural requirement exists
  • pax will be restrained by appropriate alternate means when seats removed
  • applies to SPECOPS training and missions
  • if mission profile requires removal of seats/restraints for one part of the mission, pax will if possible use seats/restraints for all other phases of flight
83
Q

Unpressurized aircraft requirements (oxygen use)

A

In aircraft where oxygen systems are not available, it shall be determined that it is mission essential by CO/OIC or mission commander for flight altitude to exceed 10K’.

Time above 10K’ without supplemental oxygen shall not exceed 1 hour and altitude shall not exceed 13K’.

84
Q

Crew Rest / Crew Day for flight crew

A

Sailor and crew rest includes free time for meals, transportation, rest and shall include an opportunity for 8 hrs of uninterrupted sleep for every 24-hr period.

Crew rest does not begin until after termination of official duties and is required prior to reporting for duty to assume the watch, and preflight preparations.

Sailors and flight crew shall not be scheduled continuously (req. awake) in excess of 18 hours. If operationally necessary to exceed 18-hr rule, 15 hrs of continuous off-duty time shall be provided prior to scheduling.

85
Q

Max caffeine intake daily

A

450 mg per day

86
Q

Alcohol restrictions

A

Consumption of any type of alcohol is prohibited within 12 hours of any mission brief or flight planning.

Flightcrews shall ensure that they are free of hangover effects prior to flight.

87
Q

(V) When are we authorized to purchase non-contract fuel?
(MEA)

A
  1. Mission requirements dictated stopping at a facility without military or contract fuel sources.
  2. The flight terminated as a result of an emergency.
  3. The flight terminated at an alternate airport in lieu of filed destination.
88
Q

Semiannual and annual minimum flying hours (pilot, night, and instrument)

A

semi annual:

  • pilot - 40 hrs
  • night - 6 hrs
  • inst. - 6 hrs

annual:

  • pilot - 100 hrs
  • night - 12 hrs
  • inst. - 12 hrs

first pilot time mins are not required for training command or FRS instructor pilots

at least 50% of annual pilot req must be in the aircraft, 50% of that must be first pilot time

89
Q

(V) Requirements to become a HAC

A
  1. Have completed the requirements for and possess to an advanced degree the knowledge, proficiency, and capabilities of a second pilot.
  2. Have a minimum of 500 total flight hours.
  3. Have 150 flight hours in rotary-wing aircraft.
  4. Have pilot hours in class and model required by the commanding officer or higher authority and demonstrate the proficiency and judgement required to ensure the successful accomplishment of all tasks of the unit mission.
  5. Demonstrate ability to command and train the officers and enlisted members of the crew.
  6. Demonstrate the qualities of leadership required to conduct advanced base or detached unit operations as officer in charge when such duty is required as part of the units mission or method of operation.
90
Q

Standard instrument rating requirements

A

within 6 months of check ride:

  • 6 hours actual or sim instrument time
  • 6 precision and 6 non-precision approaches

within 12 months of check ride:

  • 12 hours actual or sim instrument time
  • 12 precision and 6 non-precision approaches

instrument hours and approaches from last check ride may be applied

approved simulators may be used to meet 1/2 of instrument rating requirements

91
Q

What is the name of the CNAF pub?

A

NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions Manual

92
Q

Anti-Exposure Suit Requirements

A

Shall be provided when in the event of a mishap there would be significant risk of water entry and when either of the following two conditions exist:

  • Water temp is 50F or below
  • OAT is wind chill factor corrected to 32F or below

Rescue swimmers shall not be deployed without a drysuit when water temp is 60F or below and/or OAT is wind chill factor corrected to 32F or below.

MH-60R HAC (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions