Clinical Pharmacology V (16-21) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the clinical significance of Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton spp.?

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2
Q

What is the clinical significance of Malassezia spp.?

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3
Q

What is the clinical significance of Sporothrix schenckii?

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4
Q

What is the clinical significance of Blastomyces dermatitidis, Histoplasma capsulatum, and Coccidiodes immitis?

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5
Q

What is the clinical significance of cryptococcus neoformans?

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6
Q

What is the clinical significance of Candida spp?

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7
Q

What is the clinical significance of Aspergillus fumigatus?

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8
Q

An antifungal agent is a drug that ____ fungal pathogens from a host with minimal toxicity to the host.

A

selectively eliminates

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9
Q

There are far less antifungal agents than antibacterial agents, why?

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10
Q

List the major antifungal agents.

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11
Q

The polyene compounds are named because of the _____.

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12
Q

A number of polyene antifungals have been isolated from various strains of ____.

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13
Q

List the different polyene macrolides that are used in veterinary medicine.

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14
Q

What is the mode of action of polyene macrolides?

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15
Q

Describe how the mechanism of action of Amphotericin B is different than other polyene macrolides.

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16
Q

Describe the fungal resistance of polyene macrolides.

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17
Q

Describe the general antifungal spectra of polyene macrolides.

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18
Q

Amphotericin B is effective against ____, ____, ____, and ____.

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19
Q

____ is mainly used for the treatment of mucocutaneous candidiases, but it is effective against other yeasts and fungi.

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20
Q

The antimicrobial activity of ____ is similar to that of nystatin, although it is mainly used for the local treatment of ____, ____, and ____.

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21
Q

What is the therapeutic indication for Amphotericin B?

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22
Q

What is the therapeutic indication for nystatin?

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23
Q

What is the therapeutic indication for pimaricin?

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24
Q

What are the adverse effects of Amphotericin B?

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25
Q

____ have antibacterial, antifungal, anti protozoan and anthelmintic activity.

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26
Q

Imidazoles in general are considered ____ and ____.

A

Broad spectrum and safe

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27
Q

The anthelmintic ____ is also an imidazole with antifungal properties.

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28
Q

List the most clinically important imidazoles that we use in veterinary medicine.

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29
Q

Describe the mode of action imidazoles.

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30
Q

Describe the fungal resistance related to imidazoles.

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31
Q

Describe the antifungal spectra of miconazole.

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32
Q

Describe the antifungal spectra of ketoconazole.

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33
Q

_____ and ____ are the most active antifungal imidazoles.

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34
Q

What is the therapeutic indication for clotrimazole and econazole?

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35
Q

Describe the general therapeutic indications for imidazoles.

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36
Q

What is the mode of action of flucytosine?

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37
Q

How do we store and administer flucytosine?

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38
Q

Describe the fungal resistance to flucytosine.

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39
Q

Which fungi are sensitive to flucytosine? Which are not?

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40
Q

What are the therapeutic indications for flucytosine?

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41
Q

Griseofulvin is a ____ that is effective against the common ____.

A
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42
Q

What is the mode of action of griseofulvin?

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43
Q

_____ can be made resistant to griseofulvin in vitro.

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44
Q

Griseofulvin is active against _____.

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45
Q

What are the therapeutic indications for griseofulvin?

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46
Q

What are the therapeutic indications for iodine?

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47
Q

A number of agents that have antifungal activity are applied topically either on the skin, in the ear or eye, or on mucus membranes (buccal, nasal, vaginal) to control _____.

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48
Q

Describe amorolfine as a topical antifungal agent.

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49
Q

Describe terbinafine as a topical antifungal agent.

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50
Q

What are the different kinds of antiviral drugs we use against herpes virus?

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51
Q

What are the different kinds of antiviral drugs we use against retroviruses?

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52
Q

What are the different kinds of antiviral drugs we use against influenza virus?

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53
Q

The antiviral drugs that we use in veterinary medicine are ____ NOT ____. Most of them work when _____.

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54
Q

What kind of virus is a herpes virus? Provide examples.

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55
Q

What are the two main drug classes that we use against herpes viruses? List the main drugs that belong to each.

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56
Q

What is the MOA of nucleoside analogs?

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57
Q

What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for acyclovir?

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58
Q

What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for valacyclovir?

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59
Q

What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for penciclovir?

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60
Q

What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for famciclovir?

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61
Q

What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for idoxuridine?

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62
Q

What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for trifluridine?

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63
Q

What are the uses and indications for purine (nucleoside) analogs?

64
Q

What is the MOA for purine (nucleoside) analogs?

65
Q

Describe the PK/PD for purine (nucleoside) analogs.

66
Q

What are the precautions for purine (nucleoside) analogs?

67
Q

____ improved clinical signs in cats with presumed FHV-1 infections with few adverse effects.

68
Q

_____ treatment significantly decreased viral replication and signs of disease inEHV-1 infected horses. The effects were greatest when treatment was initiated before viral inoculation.

69
Q

What are the uses and indications for pyrimidine (nucleoside) analogs?

70
Q

What is the MOA for pyrimidine (nucleoside) analogs?

71
Q

What are the precautions when using pyrimidine (nucleoside) analogs?

72
Q

____ is contraindicated in cats due to risk of myelosuppression and nephrotoxicity. It is primarily indicated for EHV.

73
Q

____ is contraindicated in cats due to hepatic, renal and bone marrow toxicity. It is primarily indicated for EHM.

74
Q

____ is the drug of choice for FHV-1.

75
Q

What are the different antiviral drugs indicated for ocular herpevirus manifestations?

76
Q

What are retroviruses? Provide examples.

77
Q

List the three main drugs we use to treat retroviruses.

78
Q

Describe the MOA and precautions associated with plerixafor.

79
Q

Describe the MOA and precautions associated with zidovudine.

80
Q

Why do we not use nucleotide synthesis inhibitors to treat retroviruses?

81
Q

Describe the MOA, uses and precautions associated with raltegravir.

82
Q

What are the uses and indications of oseltamivir?

83
Q

What is the MOA of oseltamivir?

84
Q

Describe the PK/PD of oseltamivir.

85
Q

Describe the uses, indications and MOA of interferons.

86
Q

Describe the uses, indications and MOA of amantadine/rimantadine.

87
Q

Describe the uses, indications and MOA of L-lysine.

88
Q

Describe the uses, indications and MOA of remdesivir/GS-4441524.

89
Q

List some of the different ways we try to intervene with the respiratory system from a pharmacology perspective.

90
Q

Describe the importance and guidelines of rest and recovery when it comes to respiratory disease.

91
Q

How can we decrease exposure to allergens and irritants in our small animal patients?

92
Q

How can we decrease exposure to allergens and irritants in our large animal patients?

93
Q

Why are some of the different ways we rehydrate the airways?

94
Q

List some examples of physiotherapy that we perform on the respiratory patient.

95
Q

What are some ways we can prevent respiratory disease?

96
Q

Describe the effect, frequency of administration, cost, and likelihood for complication associated with systemic respiratory treatments.

97
Q

Describe the effect, frequency of administration, cost, and likelihood for complication associated with local inhalant respiratory treatments.

98
Q

What is an inhaler?

99
Q

What is a nebulizer? List the different types.

100
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of bronchoconstriction.

101
Q

What is the indication for a bronchodilator? List the main drug classes of bronchodilators that are used.

102
Q

Regardless of the drug class, all bronchodilators ____.

103
Q

Which of the drug classes of bronchodilators is the most effective? Provide examples that belong to each of the 3 classes.

104
Q

List the different b2-selective agonist bronchodilators. What are the different indications and uses?

105
Q

Describe the MOA and other effects of adrenergic agonist bronchodilators.

106
Q

List the different short acting and long acting beta 2 agonists. Describe them briefly.

107
Q

Describe the pk/pd of beta 2 selective agonist bronchodilators.

108
Q

What are some precautions to using beta 2 selective agonists?

109
Q

Differentiate between the clinical use of terbutaline and albuterol.

110
Q

____ are the gold standard treatment for respiratory crisis as they are rapidly acting and potent.

111
Q

List the different methylxanthines that we use in veterinary medicine.

112
Q

Describe the MOA and other effects of methylxanthines.

113
Q

What are the indications and uses of methylxanthines?

114
Q

Describe the PK/PD of methylxanthines.

115
Q

What precautions are associated with methylxanthines?

116
Q

List some of the different anticholinergic drugs that we use to treat equine asthma.

117
Q

Describe the MOA and possible uses of chromolyn.

118
Q

List the different systemic glucocorticoids we use in our respiratory patients.

119
Q

List the different inhaled glucocorticoids we use in our respiratory patients.

120
Q

What are the uses and indications of glucocorticoids in our respiratory patients?

121
Q

Describe the MOA of glucocorticoids in relation to respiratory disease.

122
Q

Describe the PK/PD of glucocorticoids.

123
Q

What are some precautions to uses glucocorticoids in the respiratory patient?

124
Q

What drugs should be included in your acute management of a dyspnea patient with feline lower airway disease?

125
Q

What drugs should be included in your chronic management of a patient with feline lower airway disease?

126
Q

Describe the indications and uses of phenylephrine.

127
Q

Describe the pharmacology and MOA of phenylephrine.

128
Q

Describe the precautions to using phenylephrine.

129
Q

Before using antitussive drugs, you should ____.

130
Q

In general, antitussive drugs decrease _____.

131
Q

List the different kinds of antitussive drugs we use in veterinary medicine.

132
Q

Describe the efficacy, indications, and uses of hydrocodone in the respiratory patient.

133
Q

Describe the MOA and precautions to using hydrocodone in the respiratory patient.

134
Q

Describe the indications, MOA, and precautions associated with the use of diphenoxylate in the respiratory patient.

135
Q

Describe the efficacy, indications and MOA to using butorphanol in the respiratory patient.

136
Q

Describe the PK/PD and precautions to using butorphanol in the respiratory patient.

137
Q

Describe the indications and MOA of dextromethorphan in the respiratory patient.

138
Q

Describe the indications, MOA, and PK/PD of maropitant.

139
Q

Describe the indications, MOA and precautions to using benzonatate in the respiratory patient.

140
Q

In general, describe the use of antitussives in dogs, cats, horses and food animals.

141
Q

What is the SODAPOP approach to controlling infection and inflammation?

142
Q

What is the SPACED approach to controlling infection and inflammation?

143
Q

Analyze the use of doxycycline for feline URI or CIRDC using the SPACED approach.

144
Q

Analyze the use of amoxicillin for feline URI or CIRDC using the SPACED approach.

145
Q

What is the etiology and clinical prevention of bacterial bronchitis in the dog and cat?

146
Q

How do we diagnose and treat bacterial bronchitis in the dog and cat?

147
Q

Describe the etiology and clinical presentation of bacterial pneumonia in the dog and cat.

148
Q

How do we diagnose and treat bacterial pneumonia in the dog and cat?

149
Q

Analyze the use of fluoroquinolones for SA pneumonia using the SPACED approach.

150
Q

What should be your first line treatment for sinusitis in the horse?

151
Q

What should be your first line treatment for strangles in the horse?

152
Q

What should be your first line treatment for foal pneumonia?

153
Q

What should be your first line treatment for pneumonia in the adult horse?

154
Q

What is the MOA, efficacy and withdrawal times for macrolides?

155
Q

What is the MOA, efficacy and withdrawal times for beta-lactams?

156
Q

What is the MOA, efficacy and withdrawal times for quinolones?