clinical neurology soal 71-100 Flashcards

70
Q

What characteristics of motor unit potentials are typical soon after reinnervation?
A. prolonged, high amplitude, and polyphasic .
B.prolonged, low amplitude, and polyphasic
C shortened, high amplitude, and polyphasic
D. shortened, low amplitude, and polyphasic
E. none of the above

A

B. prolonged, low amplitude, and polyphasic

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71
Q

Which of the following ocular findings is not seen in myasthenia gravis?
A. abnormal pupillary response to accommodation
B. normal pupillary response to light
C. weakness of extraocular muscles
D. weakness of eye closure
E. weakness of eye opening

A

A. abnormal pupillary response to accommodation
V&A p. 1537. Normal pupillary response to light and accommodation, together with extraocular and orbicularis oculi muscle weakness, is highly suggestive of myasthenia gravis.

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72
Q
Risk  factors for carpal tunnel syndrome include 
I.  acromegaly 
11.  amyloidosis 
Ill.  hypothyroidism
 IV.  pregnancy 
A.  I,  11, 111 
B.  I,  111 
C.  11, IV 
D.  IV 
E.  all of  the  above
A

E. all of the above

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73
Q

Which of the following is true of neurologic findings in sarcoidosis?
A Cranial nerve VI is most frequently involved.
B. Sarcoidosis occurs in 25% of cases of sarcoid.
C. Polydipsia, polyuria, somnolence, and obesity are common features.
D. The granulomatous infiltration is most prominent over the hemispheres.
E. Visual disturbances are usually secondary to lesions in the occipital cortex.

A

C. Polydipsia, polyuria, somnolence, and obesity are common features. V&A pp. 760-762. Neurologic involvement in sarcoidosis occurs in 5% of cases. A granulomatous inflammatory response most prevalent at the base of the brain is seen. Visual disturbances (due to lesions in and around the optic nerves and chiasm) and polydipsia, polyuria, somnolence, or obesity (due to involvement of the pituitary and hypothalamus) are the usual features. The facial nerve is the most common cranial nerve involved.

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74
Q

All of the following are associated with narcolepsy except
A. increased total number of hours per day spent sleeping
B. cataplexp
C. hypnagogic hallucinations
D. sleep paralysis
E. sleep patterns beginning with the rapid eye movements (REM) stage

A

A. increased total number of hours per day spent sleeping V&A pp. 421-423. The nocturnal sleep of a narcoleptic is often reduced, but frequent naps are taken during the day; hence the total number of hours spent sleeping is similar to a normal individual. The other responses are asso- ciated with narcolepsy.

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75
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms occurring in a young person is the most suggestive of multiple sclerosis?
A bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
B gait ataxia
C Lhermitte’s sign
D optic neuritis
E vertigo

A

A. bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
V&A pp. 961 -964. The initial manifestation of MS in 25% of all patients is opticneuritis, and about 50% of patients who present with optic neuritis will even-tually develop MS. Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia occurring in ayoung person, however, is virtually diagnostic of MS.

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76
Q

The muscles most often involved in thyroid ophthalmopathy are the
A. inferior, superior, and medial recti
B. inferior rectus and superior oblique
C. lateral and superior recti
D. lateral rectus and superior oblique
E. medial rectus and inferior oblique

A

A. inferior, superior, and medial recti
V&A p. 288. Upgaze or downgaze is usually more limited than lateral gaze. These deficits are caused by an inflammatory infiltration of the inferior and medial recti, leading to contractures of these muscles.

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77
Q

Most cases of “idiopathic” hemifacial spasm are thought to result from
A. ephaptic transmission
B. hypersensitivity of facial muscles
C. hypocalcemia
D. psychiatric disorders
E. recurrence of latent viral infection

A

A. ephaptic transmission
V&A p. 1455. The spasm is thought to be caused by nerve root compression and segmental demyelination, which leads to impulses conducted in one motor fiber being transmitted to neighboring fibers (ephaptic transmission).

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78
Q

The diagnosis of neurosarcoidosis is based on
A. biopsy evidence of sarcoid granulomas in non-central nervous system (CNS) tissue and neurologic findings
B. computed tomography ((3) scan showing meningeal involvement
C. increased sedimentation rate and hyperglobulinemia
D. increased serum levels of angiotensin-converting enzyme
E. MRI findings of periventricular and white matter changes

A

A. biopsy evidence of sarcoid granulomas in non-central nervous system (CNS) tissue and neurologic findings
V&A p. 762. Although all of the options are seen in active neurocarcoidosis, the diagnosis is made on the basis of answer A.

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79
Q

seen most often in children with neuroblastoma
A limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff-man) syndrome D. opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. sensory neuropathy

A

D. opsoclonus-myoclonus

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80
Q
anti-Hu antibodies 
A limbic  encephalitis 
B.  Eaton-Lambert  syndrome 
C.  Moersch-Woltman (stiff-man) syndrome D.  opsoclonus-myoclonus 
E.  sensory neuropathy
A

E. sensory neuropathy

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81
Q
anti-Ri  antibodies
A limbic  encephalitis 
B.  Eaton-Lambert  syndrome 
C.  Moersch-Woltman (stiff-man) syndrome D.  opsoclonus-myoclonus 
E.  sensory neuropathy
A

D. opsoclonus-myoclonus

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82
Q

autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels
A limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff-man) syndrome D. opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. sensory neuropathy

A

B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome

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83
Q

autoantibodies to glutamic acid decaboxylase
A limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff-man) syndrome D. opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. sensory neuropathy

A

C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff-man) syndrome
For questions 80-84 see Mer pp. 727.893. The IgG antibody in patients with Eaton-Lambert syndrome (associated with small-cell carcinoma of the lung) reacts with presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels. The Moersch-Woltman syndrome is characterized by involuntary muscle rigidity and spasms, and 60% of patients have autoantibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase. Underlying tumors are often found. Most cases of paraneoplastic sensory neuropathy are associated with small-cell carcinoma of the lung or lym- phoma, and an antinuclear antibody (anti-Hu) is found in 70% of these patients. Paraneoplastic opsoclonus in adults is associated with breast cancer and an antineuronal antibody (anti-Ri).

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84
Q

contralateral hemiparesis sparing the face, contralateral loss of position and vibration sense, ipsilateral paralysis, and atrophy of the tongue
A. basilar syndrome
B. lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral or posteroinferior cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery occlusion)
D. medial medullary occlusion
E. none of the above

A

D. medial medullary occlusion

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85
Q

contralateral pain and temperature loss in the body, ipsilateral Homer’s syndrome, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral paralysis of the palate and vocal cords, and ipsilateral pain and numbness in the face
A. basilar syndrome
B. lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral or posteroinferior cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery occlusion)
D. medial medullary occlusion
E. none of the above

A

B. lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral or posteroinferior cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)

86
Q

ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the body, partial deafness, and nausea and vomiting
A. basilar syndrome
B. lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral or posteroinferior cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery occlusion)
D. medial medullary occlusion
E. none of the above

A

C. lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery occlusion)

87
Q

bilateral motor weakness in all extremities, bilateral cerebellar ataxia, and diplopia
A. basilar syndrome
B. lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral or posteroinferior cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery occlusion)
D. medial medullary occlusion
E. none of the above

A

A. basilar syndrome

88
Q

The lesion in hemiballismus is localized to the contralateral
A. brachium conjunctivum
B. caudate nucleus
C. dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus D. substantia nigra
E. subthalamic nucleus

A

E. subthalamic nucleus

89
Q
The  long  thoracic  nerve innervates the 
A.  latissimus dorsi 
B.  levator  scapulae 
C.  rhomboids 
D.  serratus anterior 
E.  teres mitor
A

D. serratus anterior

90
Q

Which of the following is most consistent with the Eaton-Lambert syndrome?
A. abnormal presynaptic vesicles
B. antibodies to the acetylcholine receptor C. decreased numbers of acetylcholine receptors
D. defect in release of acetylcholine quanta
E. none of the above

A

D. defect in release of acetylcholine quanta
V&A p. 1548. In this syndrome, the presynaptic vesicles are normal, antibod- ies to the acetylcholine receptor are not present, and the extent of receptor surface is actually increased. There is, however, a defect in the release of acetylcholine quanta from the nerve terminals.

91
Q
The von Hippel-Lindau disease has  been associated with  all of  the  following  except
A.  a defect on chromosome  3 
B.  dominant inheritance 
C.  iris hamartomas 
D.  pancreatic cysts 
E.  renal cell  carcinoma
A

C. iris hamartomas

V&A p. 705. Iris harmartomas (Lisch nodules) are seen in neurofibromatosis type 1.

92
Q
Gerstmann's syndrome classically involves  a lesion in  the 
A.  dominant frontal  lobe 
B.  dominant parietal lobe 
C.  dominant temporal  lobe 
D.  nondominant parietal  lobe 
E.  nondominant temporal lobe
A

B. dominant parietal lobe

V&A p. 485. The syndrome consists of finger agnosia, left-right confusion, acalculia, and agraphia.

93
Q

Each of the following is true of dopamine pharmacology except the following:
A. Homovanillic acid is a metabolite.
B. It is derived from phenylalanine.
C. It is metabolized by monoamine oxidase (MAO).
D. The activation of the D2 receptor decreases the release of transmitter at synaptic terminals.
E. The rate-limiting step in its synthesis is dopa decarboxylase.

A

E. The rate-limiting step in its synthesis is dopa decarboxylase. V&A pp. 72-73, G&G p. 131. The rate-limiting step is tyrosine hydroxylase (converts L-tyrosine to L-hydroxyphenylalanine [L-dopa]).

94
Q
contains a dopa decarboxylase  inhibitor 
A.  amantadine 
B.  Artane  (trihexyphenidyl) 
C.  bromocriptine 
D.  Eldepryl (selegiline) 
E.  Sinemet (carbidopa-levidopa)
A

E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levidopa)

95
Q
slows progression of  the  disease in  its early stages 
A.  amantadine 
B.  Artane  (trihexyphenidyl) 
C.  bromocriptine 
D.  Eldepryl (selegiline) 
E.  Sinemet (carbidopa-levidopa)
A

D. Eldepryl (selegiline)

96
Q
stimulates Dz receptors 
A.  amantadine 
B.  Artane  (trihexyphenidyl) 
C.  bromocriptine 
D.  Eldepryl (selegiline) 
E.  Sinemet (carbidopa-levidopa)
A

C. bromocriptine

97
Q
Dryness of  the  mouth and blurred vision  are some  of  the  side  effects. 
A.  amantadine 
B.  Artane  (trihexyphenidyl) 
C.  bromocriptine 
D.  Eldepryl (selegiline) 
E.  Sinemet (carbidopa-levidopa)
A

B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)

98
Q
inhibits intracerebral  metabolic degradation  of  dopamine 
A.  amantadine 
B.  Artane  (trihexyphenidyl) 
C.  bromocriptine 
D.  Eldepryl (selegiline) 
E.  Sinemet (carbidopa-levidopa)
A

D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
For questions 95-99 see V&A pp. 1133-1136. Amantadine is an antiviral agent that may release dopamine from striatal neurons. Artane is an anticholinergic agent. Bromocriptine is an ergot derivative. Eldepryl is a monoamine oxidase B inhibitor and slows progression of disability. Sinemet combines L-dopa with a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor.

99
Q
Wernicke's area corresponds most closely  to Brodmann's  area(s) 
A.  17 
B.  19 
C.  22 
D.  41 and  42 
E.  44
A

C. 22