Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

foundations. exam 2 > clinical immunology > Flashcards

clinical immunology Flashcards

1
Q

which antibody appears first in the primary immune response

A

IgM

“mom comes first”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which antibody appears second during a primary immune response

A

IgG around day 10

“grandma comes next:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

IgG synthesis occurs ____ in the secondary immune response compared to the primary immune response

A

early, final concentration is also higher than in the primary response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

using antibodies as treatment

A

we can provide artificial passive immunity to a patient by administering immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

passive immunity natural example

A

maternal antibodies are transferred to fetus the placenta which will remain weeks to months post delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

artificial immunity example

A

human or horse immunoglobulin specific to a specific toxin or antigen given to a patient can be IM or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the most like immunoglobulin given during immunoglobulin treatment

A

IgG is the main immunoglobulin, some treatments contain IgG solely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

examples of immunoglobulin treatments

A

rabies ig, tetanus ig, hepatitis ig, and RSV ig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

immunoglobulin treatments are typically used when there are no _____ or _______ available

A

antibiotic or vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

passive immunity (immunoglobulin) is used when

A

the rick of infection is high and the body does not have sufficient time to develop an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

passive immunity length

A

immunity is temporary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which type of immunity does a vaccine administration stimulate artificially

A

active immunity

the antigen is administer and it it the own body that develops its own antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

length of vaccine immunity

A

active immunity is typically long lasting so it is ideal that a vaccine will be long lasting as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is blood type determined

A

by the presence or absence of RBC antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

RBC antigen types

A

A antigens and B antigens
people may have one, both or neither

Rh antigens are also absent or present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do we test for blood type?

A

agglutination, this is antibody binding to an antigen on the RBCs causing clumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

type A blood

A

a antigens present

anti-b antibodies are always present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

type b blood

A

b antigens present

anti a antibodies are always present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

type AB

A

type A and B antigens present

no antibodies present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

type O blood

A

neither antigen present

type A and B antibodies present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rh - individuals

A

antibodies to the Rh antigen are not always present but they can develop if the pt is exposed to RH+ blood
this is called sensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when would you type the fetus’ dad’s blood type

A

when the mother is Rh-, to see if the is Rh + (dominant)

if he was positive the mother would bt tested fr antibodies against the Rh antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how do test the mother for Rh antibodies

A

indirect combo’s test
draw blood and mix it with Rh+ RBCs
combo’s serum is added to the mixture and will cause angulation if antibodies are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what if initial Rh antibody test is negative when do you retest

A

28-30 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is hemolytic diseases of newborns in subsequent pregnancies prevented

A

immediately after delivery the mom is given RhoGAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is rhoGAM

A

an Rh immunoglobulin that sort of neutralizes the RH antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

universal donor

A

O -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  • blood types are only compatible
A

with other - types depending which antigens are present,

but can donate to either positive to negative types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

universal recipient

A

AB+

30
Q

most common blood type in the US

A

O+, then A+

31
Q

most rare blood type in the US

A

AB-

32
Q

in an emergency situation what blood type is given

A

type O-

33
Q

why is crossmatching done

A

to identify other minor antigens

34
Q

how do you perform a indirect combos

A

mix recipients serum with donors RBC
add in combos serum
check for angulation

35
Q

prick skin testing detects

A

detects specific IgE antibodies to allergens such as pollen mol pet and food

36
Q

when someone is allergic to something exposure to it causes

A

B cells to differentiate and produce IgE to the allergen that will later bind to a mast cells

37
Q

once someone has been exposed to an antigen what happens during repeated exposure to the allergen

A

the mast cell is sensitized by the allergen and causes the release of histamine and other mediators during exposure

38
Q

histamine release causes

A

the wheel and flare reaction

39
Q

a positive skin prick test results in

A

wheal and flare reaction, caused by histamine release

40
Q

RAST test is used to

A

is a blood test that detects specific igE antibodies in a patent’s serum

41
Q

RAST method

A

the known antigen is coupled to a paper disk
the patients serum is added
if IgE antibodies are present in the patients serum they will bind to the antigen and test result will be positive

additionally radio labeled anti-IgE antibody is added
and the radioactive anti IgE binds to the specific IgE (if it is present) and then the radio active emissions are counted

42
Q

big picture of RAST testing

A

detects IgE antibodies to an allergen

if you are allergic to something then you will produce IgE antibodies against that allergen

43
Q

RAST method big picture

A

attacks the antibodies with an antigen (the allergen) then marks the IgE with an radioactive anti-IgE antibody then detects the IgE antibody/ anti IgE antibody complex

44
Q

RAST results

A 
go from absent to extremely high level of allergen specific IgE 
measured in (IU/ml)
45
Q

window period

A

if the test detects antibodies there may be a window period where antibodies are not yet being produced against the antigen
infection is present but test result is negative

46
Q

should we check for the antigen or antibody in patients that we suspect have HIV

A

antigen in order to avoid window period and false negative result given to patient, such as with acute HIV, this allows for them to pass on infection (patients are highly contagious during the acute HIV stage)

47
Q

what do the ELISA and Western Blot test for

A

the presence of antibodies against HIV, but they may be negative during the first few weeks of infection, while antibodies are being produced to a detectable level

48
Q

viral load test

A

detects the. presence of the virus

49
Q

steps of infectious viral load and antibody

A

starts with exposures and virus increases until it reaches it’s infectious viral load
antibody development at this time is low and undetectable and there for would result in a negative result from an antibody detecting test, the patient is still infectious during this time after reaching infectious viral load and will continue until the body is able to produce enough antibody to combat the infectious viral load

50
Q

what does a titer measure

A

the highest level of dilution in which an antibody still will cause agglutination of an antigen

this is not an antigen test

51
Q

why might we use a titer

A

to see if a treatment has worked, a vaccine is still effective, or to follow the course of an infection

52
Q

is the Rapid Plasma Reagin specific?

A

not very, but it is very sensitive

53
Q

what does RPR detect?

A

syphilis

54
Q

what does reagin mean?

A

the test does not detect antibodies against the actual bacterium but for antibodies against the substances released by cells when they are damaged by T pallidum

55
Q

is RPR specific

A

no, but is very sensitive

56
Q

RPR decreased titer

A

results from the body’s decreased need to produce as many antibodies used to monitor treatment success example a 1:32 should become 1:4

57
Q

FTA-ABS test

A

detects antibodies specific to treponema bacterium
not detectable until 4-6 weeks after inoculation
again sensitive not specific

58
Q

ASO titer

A

looks for the presence of antisterptolysin O or ASO, which indicates the bod’s reaction to group A beta hemolytic strep

59
Q

purpose of ASO titer

A

primary to determine whether a previous strep infection has caused a post strep disease
such as post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

60
Q

enzyme produced by streptococcus organism

A

sreptollysin O which can lyse red blood cells

it acts as an antigen so the body will produce antibodies to it, antistreptolysin O

61
Q

when does ASO appear in the blood or serum

A

one week to one month after the onset of infection

62
Q

when are ASO titers the highest

and when will a pts levels return to normal

A

3 weeks after infections titers are the highest but by 6 months most its titers will have returned to normal

63
Q

using ASO as a diagnostic tool for acute diseases

A

not useful for diagnosis because many times not enough antibodies are present to be detectable during symptomatic period so instead we use cultures or rapid strep test that find the bacteria or antigen it’s self

however the it can be useful 2-3 weeks after the onset of infection to diagnosis post strep diseases when a culture is negative because the antigen it’s self is no longer present but the antibodies should still be present in this time period

64
Q

HSV IgM antibody production

A

begins several days are the primary HSV infection

can be detected in the blood from serveral days to several weeks before subsiding

65
Q

HSV gig antibody production

A

begins after HSV IgM in primary infection
concentrations will rise for several weeks then fall and stabilize in the blood where they will continue to make small quantities of HSV igG

66
Q

HSV antibody testing detects

A

both viral types of herpes simplex virus HSV1 and HSV2

can detect early IgM antibodies and IgG antibodies that will remain in the system post outbreak

67
Q

culture for HSV uses what bodily fluid

A

fluid from the blisters, can be painful to pt

this also gives us zero information about whether the disease is primary or recurrent

68
Q

why do we test for IgM and IgG

A

it helps us distinguish between a primary or recurrent disease and help distinguish from a current/recent infection verses one in the past/ or one that has since resolved

69
Q

Testing for an antigen, positive result

A

the infecting oraism is present

70
Q

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAATs or NAT0

A

biochemical technique used to detect the genetic material of an infecting organism
help shorten the window period
take less time than a culture

foundations. exam 2 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions