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First Aid STEP 1 - Microbiology > Clinical Bacteriology I > Flashcards

Clinical Bacteriology I Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe characteristics of S. aureus

A

Gram +
Catalase +
Coagulase +

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2
Q

Describe characteristics of Clostridium

A

Gram +
bacilli
anaerobe

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3
Q

Describe characteristics of Listeria

A

Gram +
bacilli
aerobe

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4
Q

Describe characteristics of Mycobacterium

A

acid fast

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5
Q

Describe characteristics of Strep. pneumoniae

A 
Gram +
Cocci
catalase -
capsule
alpha hemolysis
optochin sensitive
bile soluble (lysed by bile)
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6
Q

Describe characteristics of Strep. pyogenes

A 
Gram +
cocci
catalase - 
beta hemolysis
bacitracin sensitive
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7
Q

Describe characteristics of Strep. agalactiae

A 
Gram +
cocci
catalase -
beta hemolysis
bacitracin resistant
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8
Q

Is Staph. epidermidis or Staph. saprophyticus resistant to novobiocin?

A

Staph. saprophyticus - resistant

Staph. epidermidis - sensitive

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9
Q

Is Strep. pneumoniae or Strep. viridans resistant to optichin?

A

Strep. pneumoniae - sensitive

Strep. viridans - resistant

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10
Q

Is group B strep or group A strep resistant to bacitracin?

A

group B strep - resistant

group A strep - sensitive

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11
Q

Which bacteria are alpha-hemolytic?

A

Streptoccocus pneumoniae

Viridans streptococci

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12
Q

What do alpha-hemolytic bacteria look like on blood agar?

A

green

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13
Q

What do beta-hemolytic bacteria look like on blood agar?

A

clear area of hemolysis on blood agar

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14
Q

Which bacteria are beta-hemolytic?

A

staph. aureus
Strep. pyogenes
Strep. agalactiae
Listeria monocytogenes

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15
Q

What is MRSA and why is it important?

A

Methicillin resistant S. aureus

important cause of serious nosocomial and community-acquired infections

resistant to methicillin and nafcillin because of altered penicillin-binding protein

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16
Q

What is TSST from S. aureus and what symptoms does it cause?

A

Toxin shock syndrome toxin

Binds to MHC II and T-cell receptor –> polyclonal T-cell activation

Presentation: fever, vomiting, rash, desquamation, shock, end-organ failure

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17
Q

What predisposes individuals to toxic shock syndrome?

A

vaginal or nasal tampons

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18
Q

Where does St. aureus commonly colonize in the body?

A

nose

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19
Q

How does Staph. epidermidis infect?

A

infects prosthetic devices and IV catheters by producing adherent BIOFILMS

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20
Q

What is the 2nd MCC of uncomplicated UTIs in young women?

A

Staph. saprophyticus

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21
Q

What are the diseases that S. pneumoniae commonly causes?

A

Meningitis
Otitis media (in children)
Pneumonia
Sinusitis

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22
Q

What is the characteristic shape of S. pneumoniae?

A

Gram + lancet-shaped diplococci

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23
Q

Where are viridans streptococci normally located?

A

normal flora of the oropharynx

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24
Q

What diseases do viridans streptococci cause?

A 
dental caries (Strep. mutans)
subacute bacterial endocarditis (S. sanguinis)
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25
How does Strep. sanguinis cause subacute bacterial endocarditis?
makes dextran --> bind to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves
26
What is the JONES Criteria for rheumatic fever?
MAJOR CRITERIA Joints - polyarthritis O - carditis (O should be shaped like a heart...) Nodules (subcutaneous) Erythema marginatum Sydenham chorea (face, tongue, upper limbs) ``` MINOR CRITERIA fever arthalgias increased ESR (or CRP) increase PR interval ```
27
What are physical symptoms of Scarlet Fever?
scarlet rash (starting on trunk and neck but SPARES the face) with sandpaper-like texture strawberry tongue circumoral pallor
28
What location does Strep. agalactiae (group B strep) colonize in the body?
vagina
29
If a women screens + for a group B strep culture before delivery, what should be done?
intrapartum penicillin prophylaxis
30
What location does enterococci (group D strep) colonize in the body?
normal colonic flora
31
What diseases are caused by enterococci (group D strep)?
UTI biliary tract infections subacute endocarditis (following GI/GU procedures)
32
What diseases are caused by Strep. bovis?
bacteremia | subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients
33
What are symptoms on Diphtheria?
pseudomembranous pharyngitis lymphadenopathy myocarditis arrythmias
34
What type of agar is used to detect c. diphtheriae?
black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar
35
What are examples of spore-forming Gram + bacteria found in soil?
Bacillus anthracis Clostridium perfringens C. tetani
36
How can spores be killed?
steaming at 121 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes
37
What is unique about Bacillus anthracis compared to other bacteria?
only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule (contains D-glutamate)
38
What are the two types of anthrax infections?
Cutaneous anthrax | Pulmonary anthrax
39
What is the pathogenesis of a cutaneous anthrax infection?
boil-like lesion --> ulcer from black eschar (painless, necrotic) --> uncommonly progresses to bacteremia and death
40
What is the pathogenesis of a pulmonary anthrax infection?
inhalation of spores --> flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinhtis, and shock
41
Why is the pulmonary anthrax infection also called Woolsorters' disease?
inhalation of spores from contaminated wool
42
In what food is bacillus cereus usually found?
reheated rice
43
What disease does Bacillus cereus cause?
emetic type food poisoning | diarrheal type food poisoning
44
Where does Listeria monocytogenes like to live?
intracellularly
45
How is Listeria monocytogenes acquired?
ingestion of unpasteurized dairy products and deli meats
46
What is unique about Listeria monocytogenes?
only gram + organism to produce LPS
47
What is the treatment for Listeria monocytogenes infection?
gastroenteritis is usually self limiting | infants, IC pts, and elderly w/ symptoms of meningitis - AMPICILLIN
48
Actinomyces vs. Nocardia
Gram + anaerobe ----- Gram + aerobe Not acid fast ------------- acid fast (weak) normal oral flora -------- found in soil causes oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts, forms yellow "sulfur granules" -------- causes pulmonary infections in IC pts and cutaneous infections after trauma in IC pts Treat w/ penicillin -------- Treat with sulfonamides BOTH form long, branching filaments resembling fungi
49
What will result in positive PPD test?
current infection past exposure BCG vaccination
50
What will result in a negative PPD test?
no infection anergic (steroids, malnutrition, IC pts) sarcoidosis
51
What is a more specific test than PPD?
Interferon- gamma release assay (IGRA)
52
What are symptoms of TB?
fever, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis
53
What are the strains of mycobacteria and what diseases do they cause?
Mycobacterium TB - TB M. kansasii - pulmonary TB-like symptoms M. avium- intracellulare - causes disseminated, non-TB disease in AIDS
54
What inhibits macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-alpha in virulent TB strains?
cord factor
55
What inhibit phagolysosomal fusion on mycobacteria?
sulfatides (surface glycolipids)
56
What microorganism causes Leprosy (Hansen disease)?
Mycobacterium leprae
57
What are characteristic findings seen in lepromatous Hanson Disease?
presents diffusely over the skin leonine (lion-like) facies communicable low cell-mediated immunity with a HUMORAL TH2 response
58
What are characteristic findings seen in tuberculoid Hanson Disease?
limited to a few hypothetic, hairless skin plaques high cell-mediated immunity with a largely TH1-TYPE immune response
59
What is the treatment for Leprosy?
Tuberculoid Form: Multi drug therapy consisting of dapsone and rifampin for 6 months Lepromatous Form: dapsone, rifampin, and clofazimine for 2-5 years
60
What is a signature finding of Leprosy?
"glove and stocking" loss of sensation
61
Which microorganisms are lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria?
Grow PINK COLONIES on MACCONKEY agar Test with MacConKEE'S agar ``` Citrobacter Klebsiella E. coli Enterobacter Serratia ```
62
Are Gram - bacilli susceptible to penicillin G?
NO But they may be susceptible to ampicillin and amoxicillin
63
What are the characteristics of Neisseria?
Gram - diplococci ferment glucose IgA proteases often intracellular
64
What are the differences between N. gonococci and N. meningococci?
No polysaccharide capsule --------- polysaccharide capsule No maltose fermentation ------------ maltose formation no vaccine -------------------------------- vaccine (none for type B) sexually transmitted ------------------- respiratory and oral secretions gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID, and Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome --------- meningococcemia and meningitis, Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome Condoms prevent transmission. Erythromycin ointments prevents neonatal transmission ------ rifampin, ciprofloxacin, and ceftriaxone prophylaxis in close contacts Tx: ceftriaxone + (azithromycin or doxycycline) for possible chlamydia coinfection ------------ Tx: ceftriaxone or penicilin G
65
What are diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
HaEMOPhilus Epiglottitis* ("cherry red" in children) Meningitis Otitis media Pneumonia
66
What is the treatment for H. influenzae infections?
mucosal infections - amoxicillin +/- clavulanate | meningitis - ceftriaxone (rifampin for prophylaxis in close contacts)
67
What stain is used best to detect Legionella pneumophila?
silver stain Or can also grow on charcoal yeast extract culture with Fe and cysteine
68
How can you clinically detect Legionella pneumophila?
presence of Ag in urine
69
What are signs of Legionnaire's Disease?
severe pneumonia fever GI and CNS symptoms
70
What is the treatment for Legionella pneumophila infection?
macrolide or quinolone
71
What are notable characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
``` produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment) grape-like odor ```
72
What diseases are associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
PSEUDOmonas ``` Pneumonia Sepsis External otitis UTI Drug use Diabetic Osteomyelitis hot tub folliculitis ```
73
What is the treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?
aminoglycoside + extended-spectrum penicillin (e.g. piperacillin, ticarcillin, cefepime, imipenem, meropenem)
74
When you think of Pseudomonas you should think of two things...
1. WATER | 2. BURNS
75
Ecthyma gangrenosum is a rapidly progressive, necrotic cutaneous lesion caused by Pseudomonas bacteremia. It is commonly seen in which patients?
IC pts
76
What are E. coli virulence factors and which diseases do they help cause?
fimbriae - cystitis and pyelonephritis K capsule - pneumonia, neonatal meningitis LPS endotoxin - septic shock
77
What are the strains of E. coli and which diseases do they cause?
EIEC - dysentery (invasive) ETEC - traveler's diarrhea (watery) EPEC - diarrhea usually in children EHEC - dysentery, can cause HUS and thrombocytopenia
78
What distinguishes EHEC from the other forms of E. coli?
EHEC does NOT ferment sorbitol
79
What is notable about sputum from a Klebsiella infection?
looks like "currant jelly"
80
What are the 4 A's to remember for Klebsiella?
``` 4 A's: Aspiration pneumonia Abscess in lungs and liver Alcoholics di-A-betics ```
81
Compare Salmonella and Shigella
have flagella --------- no flagella can disseminate hematogenously ------- cell to cell transmission; no hematogenous spread many animal reservoirs ------- only reservoirs are humans and primates antibiotics may prolong fecal excretion -------- antibiotics shorten duration of fecal excretion invades intestinal mucosa and causes a monocytic response -------- invades intestinal mucosa and causes a PMN response can cause bloody diarrhea ------ OFTEN causes bloody diarrhea BOTh do NOT ferment lactose
82
What disease is characterized by rose spots on the abdomen, fever, HA, and diarrhea?
Typhoid fever from salmonella typhi
83
Campylobacter jejuni 101
major cause of BLOODY diarrhea (esp. children) fecal-oral poultry, meat, unpasteurized milk Comma or S-shaped, oxidase + ***common antecedent to Guillain-Barre Syndrome and reactive arthritis
84
Vibrio cholerae
rice-water diarrhea via enterotoxin by permanently activating Gs --> increases cAMP comma shaped, oxidase + alkaline media developing countries oral rehydration therapy
85
Yersinia enterocolitica
transmitted through pet feces (e.g. puppies), contaminated milk, or pork mesenteric adenines that mimics Crohn disease or appendicitis
86
Helicobacter pylori
Causes: gastritis, peptic ulcers (esp. duodenal) Risk factor for adenocarcinoma and lymphoma curved, Gram - rod, catalase, oxidase, and urease +
87
What is the initial treatment for H. pylori infection?
PPI + clarithromycin + either amoxicillin or metronidazole
88
What are the 3 spirochetes to know?
BIG Borrelia Leptospira Treponema
89
What group of people and where is leptospirosis often found?
surfers and in tropics
90
What are symptoms of leptospirosis?
flu-like symptoms jaundice photophobia with conjunctival suffusion (erythema with exudate)
91
What is the reservoir of leptospira interrogans?
water contaminated with animal urine
92
What is the causative microorganism of Lyme Disease and what is the natural reservoir?
Causative microorganism: Borrelia burgdorferi (transmitted in tick)Natural reservoir: mouse
93
What are the symptoms of Lyme Disease?
Initial symptoms- erythema chronic migrans (bulls eye rash)- flu-like symptoms- +/- facial nerve palsyLater symptoms- monoarthritis (large joints)- migratory polyarthritis- cardiac (AV nodal block)- neurologic (encephalopathy, facial nerve palsy, polyneuropathy)
94
What is the treatment for Lyme Disease?
Doxycycline (1st line)Ceftriaxone (better for neuro Sx)
95
What is the causative microorganism of syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
96
What is the treatment for syphilis infection?
Penicillin G
97
What are the stages of syphilis and what is the characteristic finding in each stage?
Primary syphilis - PAINLESS chancreSecondary syphilis - systemic constitutional symptoms, maculopapular RASH (palms and soles too)Tertiary syphilis - GUMMAS, aortitis, neurosyphilis, Argyll Robertson pupil
98
What is the most specific test to detect syphilis infection?
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)
99
What is a non-specific test to detect syphilis infection? What other diseases or conditions will give a positive result with this test?
VDRL/RPR - tests for beef cardiolipinVDRLViruses (mono, hepatitis)DrugsRheumatic feverLupus and Leprosy
100
What are signs of congenital syphilis?
saber shinssaddle noseCN VIII deafnessHutchinson teethmulberry molars
101
When does transmission of syphilis to the placenta occur?
typically after 1st trimester
102
What is the Jarish-Herxheimer reaction?
flu-like syndrome after antibiotics are started d/ t killed bacteria releasing pyrogens
103
What are symptoms of a Gardnerella vaginalis infection?
BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS- gray vaginal discharge- fishy smell*- nonpainful (vs. vaginitis)
104
Clue cells are found in which infection?
Gardnerella vaginalis infection
105
What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
metronidazole or clindamycin
106
What is the treatment for all Rickettsial diseases and vector-borne illnesses (for the most part...)?
doxycycline
107
Where does Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever typically occur?
South Atlantic states (esp. North Carolina)
108
Rash starting at wrists and ankles --> spreading to trunk, severe HA, and red conjunctivae after a tick bite would indicate what infection?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
109
Palms and soles rash is caused by which microorganisms?
Coxsackievirus ARMSFSecondary syphilis
110
Which rickettsial disease is endemic and which is epidemic?
endemic (fleas) - R. typhiepidemic (louse) - R. prowazekii
111
What is the difference b/t the Rickettsii rash and the typhus rash?
Rickettsii - starts on wRistTyphus - starts on the Trunk
112
What is the vector for Ehrlichiosis?
tick
113
What is a unique blood smear finding with Ehrlichiosis infection?
morulae ("berry-like" inclusion in the cytoplasm of monocytes)
114
What is the vector for Anaplasmosis?
tick
115
What is a unique blood smear finding with Anaplasmosis?
granulocytes with moralae in cytoplasm
116
How is Q fever transmitted?
tick feces and cattle placenta release spores that are inhaled as aerosols
117
How does Q fever present?
pneumonia
118
What microorganism causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
119
What are the 2 forms of chlamydia and how do they contribute to infection?
1. Elementary body - enters cell via endocytosis and is infectious2. Reticulate body - replicates in cell by fission
120
What complications are associated with Chlamydia infection?
Reactive arthritis (Reiter Syndrome)Follicular conjunctivitisNongonococcal urethritisPID
121
What stain is most useful to see Chlamydia?
Giemsa or fluorescent Ab-stained smear
122
What is the treatment for Chlamydia infection?
azithromycin (1st line) or doxycyclineCeftriaxone - Azithromycin often used together b/c high rate of co-infection with N. gonorrhea
123
Chronic infection causing BLINDNESS d/t follicular conjunctivitis in Africa is associated with what types of chlamydia?
Types A, B, and C
124
Urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia, and neonatal conjunctivitis is associated with what types of chlamydia?
Types D - K
125
Small, painless ulcers on genitals --> swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate ("buboes") is associated with what types of chlamydia?
This is a description of Lymphogranuloma VenereumTypes L1, L2 and L3
126
What is the MC causative organism in atypical "walking" pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
127
An infection of mycoplasma pneumoniae will result in a high titer of what protein?
high titer of cold agglutinins (IgM) --> agglutinate or lyse RBCs
128
What agar is mycoplasma pneumoniae grown on?
Eaton agar
129
What is the treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?
macrolide (1st line)doxycyclinefluoroquinolone*penicillin ineffective since Mycoplasma have no cell wall
130
What is the causative microorganism of Lyme Disease and what is the natural reservoir?
Causative microorganism: Borrelia burgdorferi (transmitted in tick)Natural reservoir: mouse
131
What are the symptoms of Lyme Disease?
Initial symptoms- erythema chronic migrans (bulls eye rash)- flu-like symptoms- +/- facial nerve palsyLater symptoms- monoarthritis (large joints)- migratory polyarthritis- cardiac (AV nodal block)- neurologic (encephalopathy, facial nerve palsy, polyneuropathy)
132
What is the treatment for Lyme Disease?
Doxycycline (1st line)Ceftriaxone (better for neuro Sx)
133
What is the causative microorganism of syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
134
What is the treatment for syphilis infection?
Penicillin G
135
What are the stages of syphilis and what is the characteristic finding in each stage?
Primary syphilis - PAINLESS chancreSecondary syphilis - systemic constitutional symptoms, maculopapular RASH (palms and soles too)Tertiary syphilis - GUMMAS, aortitis, neurosyphilis, Argyll Robertson pupil
136
What is the most specific test to detect syphilis infection?
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)
137
What is a non-specific test to detect syphilis infection? What other diseases or conditions will give a positive result with this test?
VDRL/RPR - tests for beef cardiolipinVDRLViruses (mono, hepatitis)DrugsRheumatic feverLupus and Leprosy
138
What are signs of congenital syphilis?
saber shinssaddle noseCN VIII deafnessHutchinson teethmulberry molars
139
When does transmission of syphilis to the placenta occur?
typically after 1st trimester
140
What is the Jarish-Herxheimer reaction?
flu-like syndrome after antibiotics are started d/ t killed bacteria releasing pyrogens
141
What are symptoms of a Gardnerella vaginalis infection?
BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS- gray vaginal discharge- fishy smell*- nonpainful (vs. vaginitis)
142
Clue cells are found in which infection?
Gardnerella vaginalis infection
143
What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
metronidazole or clindamycin
144
What is the treatment for all Rickettsial diseases and vector-borne illnesses (for the most part...)?
doxycycline
145
Where does Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever typically occur?
South Atlantic states (esp. North Carolina)
146
Rash starting at wrists and ankles --> spreading to trunk, severe HA, and red conjunctivae after a tick bite would indicate what infection?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
147
Palms and soles rash is caused by which microorganisms?
Coxsackievirus ARMSFSecondary syphilis
148
Which rickettsial disease is endemic and which is epidemic?
endemic (fleas) - R. typhiepidemic (louse) - R. prowazekii
149
What is the difference b/t the Rickettsii rash and the typhus rash?
Rickettsii - starts on wRistTyphus - starts on the Trunk
150
What is the vector for Ehrlichiosis?
tick
151
What is a unique blood smear finding with Ehrlichiosis infection?
morulae ("berry-like" inclusion in the cytoplasm of monocytes)
152
What is the vector for Anaplasmosis?
tick
153
What is a unique blood smear finding with Anaplasmosis?
granulocytes with moralae in cytoplasm
154
How is Q fever transmitted?
tick feces and cattle placenta release spores that are inhaled as aerosols
155
How does Q fever present?
pneumonia
156
What microorganism causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
157
What are the 2 forms of chlamydia and how do they contribute to infection?
1. Elementary body - enters cell via endocytosis and is infectious2. Reticulate body - replicates in cell by fission
158
What complications are associated with Chlamydia infection?
Reactive arthritis (Reiter Syndrome)Follicular conjunctivitisNongonococcal urethritisPID
159
What stain is most useful to see Chlamydia?
Giemsa or fluorescent Ab-stained smear
160
What is the treatment for Chlamydia infection?
azithromycin (1st line) or doxycyclineCeftriaxone - Azithromycin often used together b/c high rate of co-infection with N. gonorrhea
161
Chronic infection causing BLINDNESS d/t follicular conjunctivitis in Africa is associated with what types of chlamydia?
Types A, B, and C
162
Urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia, and neonatal conjunctivitis is associated with what types of chlamydia?
Types D - K
163
Small, painless ulcers on genitals --> swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate ("buboes") is associated with what types of chlamydia?
This is a description of Lymphogranuloma VenereumTypes L1, L2 and L3
164
What is the MC causative organism in atypical "walking" pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
165
An infection of mycoplasma pneumoniae will result in a high titer of what protein?
high titer of cold agglutinins (IgM) --> agglutinate or lyse RBCs
166
What agar is mycoplasma pneumoniae grown on?
Eaton agar
167
What is the treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?
macrolide (1st line)doxycyclinefluoroquinolone*penicillin ineffective since Mycoplasma have no cell wall
168
What is the causative microorganism of Lyme Disease and what is the natural reservoir?
Causative microorganism: Borrelia burgdorferi (transmitted in tick)Natural reservoir: mouse
169
What are the symptoms of Lyme Disease?
Initial symptoms- erythema chronic migrans (bulls eye rash)- flu-like symptoms- +/- facial nerve palsyLater symptoms- monoarthritis (large joints)- migratory polyarthritis- cardiac (AV nodal block)- neurologic (encephalopathy, facial nerve palsy, polyneuropathy)
170
What is the treatment for Lyme Disease?
Doxycycline (1st line)Ceftriaxone (better for neuro Sx)
171
What is the causative microorganism of syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
172
What is the treatment for syphilis infection?
Penicillin G
173
What are the stages of syphilis and what is the characteristic finding in each stage?
Primary syphilis - PAINLESS chancreSecondary syphilis - systemic constitutional symptoms, maculopapular RASH (palms and soles too)Tertiary syphilis - GUMMAS, aortitis, neurosyphilis, Argyll Robertson pupil
174
What is the most specific test to detect syphilis infection?
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)
175
What is a non-specific test to detect syphilis infection? What other diseases or conditions will give a positive result with this test?
VDRL/RPR - tests for beef cardiolipinVDRLViruses (mono, hepatitis)DrugsRheumatic feverLupus and Leprosy
176
What are signs of congenital syphilis?
saber shinssaddle noseCN VIII deafnessHutchinson teethmulberry molars
177
When does transmission of syphilis to the placenta occur?
typically after 1st trimester
178
What is the Jarish-Herxheimer reaction?
flu-like syndrome after antibiotics are started d/ t killed bacteria releasing pyrogens
179
What are symptoms of a Gardnerella vaginalis infection?
BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS- gray vaginal discharge- fishy smell*- nonpainful (vs. vaginitis)
180
Clue cells are found in which infection?
Gardnerella vaginalis infection
181
What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
metronidazole or clindamycin
182
What is the treatment for all Rickettsial diseases and vector-borne illnesses (for the most part...)?
doxycycline
183
Where does Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever typically occur?
South Atlantic states (esp. North Carolina)
184
Rash starting at wrists and ankles --> spreading to trunk, severe HA, and red conjunctivae after a tick bite would indicate what infection?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
185
Palms and soles rash is caused by which microorganisms?
Coxsackievirus ARMSFSecondary syphilis
186
Which rickettsial disease is endemic and which is epidemic?
endemic (fleas) - R. typhiepidemic (louse) - R. prowazekii
187
What is the difference b/t the Rickettsii rash and the typhus rash?
Rickettsii - starts on wRistTyphus - starts on the Trunk
188
What is the vector for Ehrlichiosis?
tick
189
What is a unique blood smear finding with Ehrlichiosis infection?
morulae ("berry-like" inclusion in the cytoplasm of monocytes)
190
What is the vector for Anaplasmosis?
tick
191
What is a unique blood smear finding with Anaplasmosis?
granulocytes with moralae in cytoplasm
192
How is Q fever transmitted?
tick feces and cattle placenta release spores that are inhaled as aerosols
193
How does Q fever present?
pneumonia
194
What microorganism causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
195
What are the 2 forms of chlamydia and how do they contribute to infection?
1. Elementary body - enters cell via endocytosis and is infectious2. Reticulate body - replicates in cell by fission
196
What complications are associated with Chlamydia infection?
Reactive arthritis (Reiter Syndrome)Follicular conjunctivitisNongonococcal urethritisPID
197
What stain is most useful to see Chlamydia?
Giemsa or fluorescent Ab-stained smear
198
What is the treatment for Chlamydia infection?
azithromycin (1st line) or doxycyclineCeftriaxone - Azithromycin often used together b/c high rate of co-infection with N. gonorrhea
199
Chronic infection causing BLINDNESS d/t follicular conjunctivitis in Africa is associated with what types of chlamydia?
Types A, B, and C
200
Urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia, and neonatal conjunctivitis is associated with what types of chlamydia?
Types D - K
201
Small, painless ulcers on genitals --> swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate ("buboes") is associated with what types of chlamydia?
This is a description of Lymphogranuloma VenereumTypes L1, L2 and L3
202
What is the MC causative organism in atypical "walking" pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
203
An infection of mycoplasma pneumoniae will result in a high titer of what protein?
high titer of cold agglutinins (IgM) --> agglutinate or lyse RBCs
204
What agar is mycoplasma pneumoniae grown on?
Eaton agar
205
What is the treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?
macrolide (1st line)doxycyclinefluoroquinolone*penicillin ineffective since Mycoplasma have no cell wall

First Aid STEP 1 - Microbiology (4 decks)

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