Clinical Bacteriology Gram Positive Organisms Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What organism is the most common cause of an acute bacterial infection of the parotid gland? It is gram (+) cocci, catalase (+), and coagulase (+).

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What organism is the most common cause of ottis media? It is a gram (+) cocci, catalase (-), alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive organism.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What organism is the most common organism that causes pneumonia in alcoholics? The organism produces a “salmon colored” sputum.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute mastitis is most commonly cause by what gram (+) cocci?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Patients who acquire MRSA are given IV vancomycin rather than oral vancomycin. This is because oral vancomycin has a very __ systemic absorption.

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What gram (+) organism most commonly causes endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is caused by what toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus ?

A

TSST-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

TSST acts as what type of molecule? This binds to MHC II and T-cell receptors causing T-cell activation. This leads to shock and ultimately end organ failure.

A

Superantigen. Toxin binds outside the antigen binding site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which gram (+) cocci infects prosthetic devices and intravenous catheters? It is novobiocin sensitive.

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What gram (+) cocci is the second most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in young women? It is novobiocin resistant.

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What disease, caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, is characterized by sudden onset of fever, chills, and a productive cough?

A

Classic pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Streptococcus pneumonaie is the most common cause of this disease? Associated with inflammation of the meninges.

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the “classic shape” of Streptococcus pneumonia?

A

Lancet-shaped diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumonia?

A

Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of sputum is produced by Streptococcus pneumonia?

A

Rust color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Quellung reaction tests an organism for the presence of what structure?

A

Capsule. A positive test means that the organism has a capsule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What group of streptococci organisms are apart of the normal body flora (in the oropharynx) and cause dental caries and subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A

Viridans group streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Streptococcus mutan causes what?

A

Dental caries (cavities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Streptococci sanguins causes what type of bacterial endocarditis? Where does the organs attach itself to?

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis. Aggregates on damaged heart valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Can Streptoccous mutans and Streptococcus sanguins cause subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A

Yes, both organisms can caused subacute bacterial endocarditis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What organisms causes pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo, scarlet fever, necrotizing fascitis, and rheumatic fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What skin condition, characterized by a painful raised lesions with sharply demarcated boarders, is caused by Streptococcus progenies?

A

Erysipelas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What “group” does Streptococcus pyogenes belong to?

A

Group A strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Streptocococcus pyogenes has an antibody against what protein which gives rise to thematic fever?

A

M Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The JONES criteria is used in what disease?

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What disease, caused by streptococcus pyogenes, precedes glomerulonephritis more commonly than pharyngitis?

A

Impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What fever, caused by Streptococcus progenies, is associated with a sandpaper-like texture and a strawberry tongue?

A

Scarlet Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae causes what disease in babies?

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae is classified as what type of streptococci?

A

Group B. Think, “B” for “Babies”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Enterococci are classified as what type of streptococci?

A

Group D streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Enterococci are normally found in what part of the GI tract?

A

Colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Streptococcus bovis is associated with subactue endocarditis in patient with what type of cancer?

A

Colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria. Is this organism motile or non-motile?

A

Non-motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria. Exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of what elongation factor?

A

EF-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria. What type of pharyngitis?

A

Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria. Is lympadenopathy present?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria. Gram Stain? Shape of organism?

A

Gram (+) rob

38
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria. What type of vaccine prevents diphtheria?

A

Toxoid

39
Q

Clostridia. Gram stain? Shape of organism?

A

Gram (+) bacilli

40
Q

Clostridium tetani. Tetanus toxin are what type of proteins that cleave releasing proteins for neurotransmitters?

A

Proteases

41
Q

Clostridium tetani. Tetanus toxin produce tetanus and tetanic parlysis. Which two inhibitory neurotransmitter release are blocked? What jaw symptom occurs?

A

GABA and glycine. Lockjaw.

42
Q

Clostridium botulinum. Produces what type of performed toxin?

A

Heat-labile

43
Q

Clostridium botulinum. Inhibits release of which neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?

A

ACh

44
Q

Clostridium botulinum. What type of paralysis?

A

Flaccid paralysis

45
Q

What type of Clostridium species is associated with an alpha toxin, also known as a lecithinase which is a phospholipase, resulting in gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

46
Q

Clostridium difficle. Causes what type of colitis?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

47
Q

Clostridium difficle. What type of diarrhea?

A

Foul smelling

48
Q

Clostridium difficle. How many toxins are produced?

A

Two toxins

49
Q

Clostridium difficle. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by which two antibiotics?

A

Ampicillin and Clindamycin

50
Q

Clostridium difficle. Diagnosed by detection of what present in the stools?

A

Toxins are present within the stools

51
Q

Clostridium difficle. What two medications are used for treatment?

A

ORAL vancomycin and metronidazole

52
Q

Bacillus anthracis. Gram stain? Spores? Shape?

A

Gram (+), spore forming, rod

53
Q

Bacillus anthracis. What toxin does it produce?

A

Anthrax toxin

54
Q

Bacillus anthracis. What type of polypeptide capsule is present?

A

D-glutamate

55
Q

Bacillus anthracis. Cutaneous anthrax is associated with what type of eschar?

A

Black eschar

56
Q

Listeria monocytogenes. Associated with what structure, via actin polymerization, which allows it to move through the cytoplasm and into the cell membrane and avoid antibody?

A

Rocket Tails

57
Q

Listeria monocytogenes. What type of motility?

A

Tumbling motility

58
Q

Listeria monocytogenes. This is the only gram-postiive organism that produces what toxin?

A

LPS

59
Q

Listeria monocytogenes. Causes meningitis in which two populations?

A

Neonatal and immunocrompromised patients

60
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia contain what type of filaments?

A

Branching filaments

61
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia are classified as what type of anaerobes?

A

Gram (+)

62
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which organism is acid fast?

A

Nocardia

63
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which organism is apart of the normal oral flora?

A

Actinomyces

64
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which causes an oral or facial abcessess and form yellow sulfur granules?

A

Actinomyces

65
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which causes pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients?

A

Nocardia

66
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which is treated with sulfonamides (TMP-SMX)?

A

Nocardia

67
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which is treated with penicillin?

A

Actinomyces

68
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which causes a fistula to form near the mandible in Lumpy Jaw Syndrome?

A

Actinomyces

69
Q

What type of tuberculosis is causes infection of the hilum and the adjacent lymph node?

A

Primary tuberculosis

70
Q

What type of tuberculosis is associated with Ghon complex formation?

A

Primary tuberculosis

71
Q

A Ghon complex is made up of two structures. Name them.

A

Ghon focus (necrotic tissue) plus a lymph node

72
Q

What type of tuberculosis is associated with a lesion within the upper lobe?

A

Secondary tuberculosis

73
Q

What vertebral disease is associated with tuberculosis?

A

Pott Disease

74
Q

What type of granuloma is found on cellular examination of tuberculosis?

A

Caseating granuloma

75
Q

What type of PPD test indicates current infection, past exposure, of BCG vaccinated?

A

Positive

76
Q

What type of PPD test indicates no infraction or anergic?

A

Negative

77
Q

What type of reaction is a PPD test?

A

Type IV reaction

78
Q

An erythematous induration of more than 5 mm in what people indicates a positive test?

A

immunocompromised

79
Q

An erythematous induration of more than 10 mm in what people indicates a positive test?

A

medium risk patients

80
Q

An erythematous induration of more than 15 mm in what people indicates a positive test?

A

patients with no risk

81
Q

Is a PPD test used to determine an active infection?

A

No, a PPD test is used to determine if the patient has been exposed to TB. It is NOT diagnostic.

82
Q

Myobacterium tuberulosis. What type of lymphadenopathy?

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

83
Q

What part of the lung is the most common location for Myobacterium tuberculosis to colonize, due to high oxygen tension?

A

Apex

84
Q

What type of Myobacterium species is associated with infection in HIV patients with a CD4 count less than 50 cells/mL?

A

Myobacterium avium.

85
Q

Myobacterium are what type of organisms?

A

Acid fast

86
Q

Fever, nigh sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis is associated with what disease?

A

Tuberculosis

87
Q

What is another name for Leprosy?

A

Hansen disease

88
Q

Myobacterium leprae is causes the two types of leprosy. What form presents diffusely over the skin with a leonine (lion like) appearance and is characterized with low cell-mediated immunity?

A

Lepromatous

89
Q

Myobacterium leprae is causes the two types of leprosy. What form presents as limited hypesthetic hairless skin plaques and is characterized with a high-cell mediated response?

A

Tuberculoid form

90
Q

Thalidomide is used to treat with what of leprosy? What condition should this drug NEVER be used in?

A

Lepromatous. NEVER use in pregnancy.