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Clinical Bacteriology Gram Positive Organisms Flashcards

1
Q

What organism is the most common cause of an acute bacterial infection of the parotid gland? It is gram (+) cocci, catalase (+), and coagulase (+).

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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2
Q

What organism is the most common cause of ottis media? It is a gram (+) cocci, catalase (-), alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive organism.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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3
Q

What organism is the most common organism that causes pneumonia in alcoholics? The organism produces a “salmon colored” sputum.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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4
Q

Acute mastitis is most commonly cause by what gram (+) cocci?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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5
Q

Patients who acquire MRSA are given IV vancomycin rather than oral vancomycin. This is because oral vancomycin has a very __ systemic absorption.

A

Low

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6
Q

What gram (+) organism most commonly causes endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is caused by what toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus ?

A

TSST-1

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8
Q

TSST acts as what type of molecule? This binds to MHC II and T-cell receptors causing T-cell activation. This leads to shock and ultimately end organ failure.

A

Superantigen. Toxin binds outside the antigen binding site.

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9
Q

Which gram (+) cocci infects prosthetic devices and intravenous catheters? It is novobiocin sensitive.

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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10
Q

What gram (+) cocci is the second most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in young women? It is novobiocin resistant.

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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11
Q

What disease, caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, is characterized by sudden onset of fever, chills, and a productive cough?

A

Classic pneumonia

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12
Q

Streptococcus pneumonaie is the most common cause of this disease? Associated with inflammation of the meninges.

A

Meningitis

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13
Q

What is the “classic shape” of Streptococcus pneumonia?

A

Lancet-shaped diplococci

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14
Q

What is the virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumonia?

A

Capsule

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15
Q

What type of sputum is produced by Streptococcus pneumonia?

A

Rust color

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16
Q

The Quellung reaction tests an organism for the presence of what structure?

A

Capsule. A positive test means that the organism has a capsule.

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17
Q

What group of streptococci organisms are apart of the normal body flora (in the oropharynx) and cause dental caries and subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A

Viridans group streptococci

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18
Q

Streptococcus mutan causes what?

A

Dental caries (cavities)

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19
Q

Streptococci sanguins causes what type of bacterial endocarditis? Where does the organs attach itself to?

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis. Aggregates on damaged heart valves.

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20
Q

Can Streptoccous mutans and Streptococcus sanguins cause subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A

Yes, both organisms can caused subacute bacterial endocarditis.

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21
Q

What organisms causes pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo, scarlet fever, necrotizing fascitis, and rheumatic fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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22
Q

What skin condition, characterized by a painful raised lesions with sharply demarcated boarders, is caused by Streptococcus progenies?

A

Erysipelas

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23
Q

What “group” does Streptococcus pyogenes belong to?

A

Group A strep

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24
Q

Streptocococcus pyogenes has an antibody against what protein which gives rise to thematic fever?

A

M Protein

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25
The JONES criteria is used in what disease?
Rheumatic fever
26
What disease, caused by streptococcus pyogenes, precedes glomerulonephritis more commonly than pharyngitis?
Impetigo
27
What fever, caused by Streptococcus progenies, is associated with a sandpaper-like texture and a strawberry tongue?
Scarlet Fever
28
Streptococcus agalactiae causes what disease in babies?
Meningitis
29
Streptococcus agalactiae is classified as what type of streptococci?
Group B. Think, "B" for "Babies".
30
Enterococci are classified as what type of streptococci?
Group D streptococci
31
Enterococci are normally found in what part of the GI tract?
Colon
32
Streptococcus bovis is associated with subactue endocarditis in patient with what type of cancer?
Colon cancer
33
Corynebacterium diphtheria. Is this organism motile or non-motile?
Non-motile
34
Corynebacterium diphtheria. Exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of what elongation factor?
EF-2
35
Corynebacterium diphtheria. What type of pharyngitis?
Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane)
36
Corynebacterium diphtheria. Is lympadenopathy present?
Yes
37
Corynebacterium diphtheria. Gram Stain? Shape of organism?
Gram (+) rob
38
Corynebacterium diphtheria. What type of vaccine prevents diphtheria?
Toxoid
39
Clostridia. Gram stain? Shape of organism?
Gram (+) bacilli
40
Clostridium tetani. Tetanus toxin are what type of proteins that cleave releasing proteins for neurotransmitters?
Proteases
41
Clostridium tetani. Tetanus toxin produce tetanus and tetanic parlysis. Which two inhibitory neurotransmitter release are blocked? What jaw symptom occurs?
GABA and glycine. Lockjaw.
42
Clostridium botulinum. Produces what type of performed toxin?
Heat-labile
43
Clostridium botulinum. Inhibits release of which neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?
ACh
44
Clostridium botulinum. What type of paralysis?
Flaccid paralysis
45
What type of Clostridium species is associated with an alpha toxin, also known as a lecithinase which is a phospholipase, resulting in gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
46
Clostridium difficle. Causes what type of colitis?
Pseudomembranous colitis
47
Clostridium difficle. What type of diarrhea?
Foul smelling
48
Clostridium difficle. How many toxins are produced?
Two toxins
49
Clostridium difficle. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by which two antibiotics?
Ampicillin and Clindamycin
50
Clostridium difficle. Diagnosed by detection of what present in the stools?
Toxins are present within the stools
51
Clostridium difficle. What two medications are used for treatment?
ORAL vancomycin and metronidazole
52
Bacillus anthracis. Gram stain? Spores? Shape?
Gram (+), spore forming, rod
53
Bacillus anthracis. What toxin does it produce?
Anthrax toxin
54
Bacillus anthracis. What type of polypeptide capsule is present?
D-glutamate
55
Bacillus anthracis. Cutaneous anthrax is associated with what type of eschar?
Black eschar
56
Listeria monocytogenes. Associated with what structure, via actin polymerization, which allows it to move through the cytoplasm and into the cell membrane and avoid antibody?
Rocket Tails
57
Listeria monocytogenes. What type of motility?
Tumbling motility
58
Listeria monocytogenes. This is the only gram-postiive organism that produces what toxin?
LPS
59
Listeria monocytogenes. Causes meningitis in which two populations?
Neonatal and immunocrompromised patients
60
Actinomyces and Nocardia contain what type of filaments?
Branching filaments
61
Actinomyces and Nocardia are classified as what type of anaerobes?
Gram (+)
62
Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which organism is acid fast?
Nocardia
63
Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which organism is apart of the normal oral flora?
Actinomyces
64
Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which causes an oral or facial abcessess and form yellow sulfur granules?
Actinomyces
65
Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which causes pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients?
Nocardia
66
Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which is treated with sulfonamides (TMP-SMX)?
Nocardia
67
Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which is treated with penicillin?
Actinomyces
68
Actinomyces and Nocardia. Which causes a fistula to form near the mandible in Lumpy Jaw Syndrome?
Actinomyces
69
What type of tuberculosis is causes infection of the hilum and the adjacent lymph node?
Primary tuberculosis
70
What type of tuberculosis is associated with Ghon complex formation?
Primary tuberculosis
71
A Ghon complex is made up of two structures. Name them.
Ghon focus (necrotic tissue) plus a lymph node
72
What type of tuberculosis is associated with a lesion within the upper lobe?
Secondary tuberculosis
73
What vertebral disease is associated with tuberculosis?
Pott Disease
74
What type of granuloma is found on cellular examination of tuberculosis?
Caseating granuloma
75
What type of PPD test indicates current infection, past exposure, of BCG vaccinated?
Positive
76
What type of PPD test indicates no infraction or anergic?
Negative
77
What type of reaction is a PPD test?
Type IV reaction
78
An erythematous induration of more than 5 mm in what people indicates a positive test?
immunocompromised
79
An erythematous induration of more than 10 mm in what people indicates a positive test?
medium risk patients
80
An erythematous induration of more than 15 mm in what people indicates a positive test?
patients with no risk
81
Is a PPD test used to determine an active infection?
No, a PPD test is used to determine if the patient has been exposed to TB. It is NOT diagnostic.
82
Myobacterium tuberulosis. What type of lymphadenopathy?
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
83
What part of the lung is the most common location for Myobacterium tuberculosis to colonize, due to high oxygen tension?
Apex
84
What type of Myobacterium species is associated with infection in HIV patients with a CD4 count less than 50 cells/mL?
Myobacterium avium.
85
Myobacterium are what type of organisms?
Acid fast
86
Fever, nigh sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis is associated with what disease?
Tuberculosis
87
What is another name for Leprosy?
Hansen disease
88
Myobacterium leprae is causes the two types of leprosy. What form presents diffusely over the skin with a leonine (lion like) appearance and is characterized with low cell-mediated immunity?
Lepromatous
89
Myobacterium leprae is causes the two types of leprosy. What form presents as limited hypesthetic hairless skin plaques and is characterized with a high-cell mediated response?
Tuberculoid form
90
Thalidomide is used to treat with what of leprosy? What condition should this drug NEVER be used in?
Lepromatous. NEVER use in pregnancy.

Microbiology (8 decks)

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