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Clinical Bacteriology Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Intestinal infection, possible ileocecal valve obstruction

Eggs visible in feces under microscopy

A

Giant roundworm aka

Ascaris lumbricoides

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1
Q

chronic infection leading to squamous cell carcinoma of bladder and pulmonary HTN

A

Schistosoma haematobium

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2
Q

cystercercosis bug

A

taenia solium

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2
Q

Name 2 bugs:

neutropenic patients

A

Candida albicans

Aspergillus

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3
Q

Hippurate test positive

Produces CAMP factor

A

GBS

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3
Q

Rickettsia ricketsii vs Rickettsia typhii

A

Rickettsii on the wrists, Typhus on the trunk

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4
Q

Associated with acute hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Adenovirus

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5
Q

Palms and soles rash (name 3)

A

CARS

Coxsackie A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Syphilis (secondary)

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5
Q

Possible anatomically remote sequela of PID

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome – infection of liver capsule and violin string adhesions of peritoneum to liver

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6
Q

Intestinal infection causing anal pruritis

See eggs on tape test

A

Pinworm aka

Enterobius vermicularis

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7
Q

Pinworm treatment

A

bendazoles

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8
Q

Gram negative “coccoid” rods (name 4)

A

H flu

Pasteurella

Brucella

Bordatella pertussis

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9
Q

Dimorphic cigar shaped budding yeast

Spores introduced by plant thorn

Pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics

A

Sporotrichosis 2/2

Sporothrix schenckii

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10
Q

Gram +

Cocci

Catalase +

Coagulase +

A

Staph aureus

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10
Q

Gram negative diplococcus

Maltose fermenter:

Maltose non-fermenter:

A

Maltose fermenter: N. meningitidis

Maltose non-fermenter: N. gonorrhea

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11
Q

Gram +

Cocci

Catalase - (chains)

Complete hemolysis (beta)

A

B-BRAS

Bacitracin - GBS Resistant, GAS Sensitive

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13
Q

Name the bug

Currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

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14
Q

Gram +

Cocci

Catalase + (clusters)

Coagulase -

A

NO StRESs

NOvobiocin:

Saprophyticus Resistant

Epidermis Sensitive

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14
Q

Gram negative coccoid rod common in animal bites

A

Pasteurella

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14
Q

Leishmaniasis treatment

A

Amphotericin B

Sodium stibogluconate

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15
Q

Gram positive

Branching filaments

Anaerobe

Not acid fast

A

Actinomyces

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16
Q

Which flora is more dominant in colon:

B fragilis or E Coli?

A

B fragilis

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17
Q

Diabetic or immunocompromised pt with cerebral infection 2/2 direct extension of rhinosinusitis

A

mucormycosis

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18
Q

Mycotic disease

Hypopigmented or pink patches

Lipid degredation

A

Tinea versicolor

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20
Q

Hansen disease treatment

Lepromatous:

Tuberculoid:

A

Lepromatous: Clofazimine

Tuberculoid: Dapsone and rifampin

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21
Q

Chagas disease treatment

A

Benznidazole or nifurtimox

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22
Q

Spiking fevers

pancytopenia

HSM

Sandfly

A

leishmaniasis

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23
Q

Name causative organism:

Condolomata acuminata:

Condolomata lata:

A

Condolomata acuminata: HPV-6 or HPV-11

Condolomata lata: T palladium (syphilis)

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24
Q

Name three bug

UTI 2/2 catheterization

A

E Coli

Klebsiella

Proteus

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25
Q

Common atecedent to Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter

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26
Q

Liver mass, associated with sheep and dogs

A

Hydatid cyst

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27
Q

Fever, hemolytic anemia, northeastern US

Maltese cross or ring form on blood smear

A

Babesiosis

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28
Q

E Coli Strains

A

EIEC: Invasive

ETEC: traveler’s diarrhea (watery)

EPEC: Pediatric diarrhea

EHEC: HUS

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29
Q

Which enters the cell in chlamydia infection:

Elementary body or reticulate body

A

Elementary

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30
Q

Syphilis serologies

Sensitive:

Specific:

A

Sensitive: VDRL, RPR

Specific: FTA-ABS

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31
Q

2 most common causes of brain abscess in immunocompetent

A

Viridans strep and Staph aureus

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32
Q

Name the organism:

Lymphatic infection

Painless genital ulcers

Painful LAD (buboes)

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (Lymphogranuloma venereum)

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33
Q

3rd leading cause UTI

Large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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34
Q

Are mycobacteria acid fast?

A

Yes

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35
Q

Second most common cause of uncomplicated UTI young women

Novobiocin resistant

A

S. saprophyticus

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35
Q

Bacteremia and endocarditis associated with colon cancer

A

S. bovis

Bovis in the blood = cancer in the colon

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35
Q

Explanations for false-positive VDRL

A

Viral infection

Drugs

Rheumatic Fever

Lupus and leprosy

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35
Q

Bloody diarrhea

Liver abscess with anchovy paste exudate

RBC’s in trophozoite cytoplasm

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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35
Q

fever, headache, anemia, splenomegaly

travel associated

A

Malaria

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37
Q

Exfoliatin

Epidermal sloughing

A

Staph scalded skin syndrome

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38
Q

3 most common causes of osteomyelitis in IV drug abusers

A

Pseudomonas

Candida

S. aureus

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39
Q

Foul smelling greenish vaginal discharge

Trophozoites on wet mount

Strawberry cervix

A

Trichomonas

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40
Q

Name the bug:

Decubitus ulcers, surgical wounds, drains

A

S aureus

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41
Q

Strep pneumo is most common cause of

A

Meningitis

Otitis media (kids)

Pneumonia

Sinusitis

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42
Q

Erythematous sandpaper-like rash with fever and sore throat in a child

A

Scarlet fever 2/2 Strep pyogenes

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43
Q

B12 deficiency 2/2 infection

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

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44
Q

GNR

Lactose nonfermenter

Oxidase negative

Doesn’t produce H2S

A

Shigella

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45
Q

red granules (Schuffner stippling) throughout RBC cytosol

A

P vivax/ovale

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46
Q

South America

Megacolon

Megaesophagus

Dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Chagas disease

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47
Q

GNR

Lactose fermenter

Slow fermenter

A

Citrobacter

Serratia

48
Q

Blood smear: trophozoite ring within RBC, schizont containing merozoites

A

Malaria

49
Q

Bronchiectasis and eosinophilia

Associated with CF and asthma

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)

50
Q

Latex agglutination test

A

Cryptococcus neoformas

51
Q

Neonatal encephalitis and vesicular lesions

A

HSV-2

52
Q

Name the bug:

Day care outbreaks, pseudoappendicitis

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

53
Q

Lab abnormality associated with Legionella

A

hyponatremia

54
Q

Gram +

Cocci

Catalase - (chains)

No hemolysis (gamma)

A

Group D

Enterococcus or Strep bovis

55
Q

Only gram positive that produces endotoxin

A

Listeria

56
Q

Mycotic disease

Inflammatory lung disease that can disseminate to skin and bone

Broad budding base

A

Blastomycosis

57
Q

Gram positive

Branching filaments

Aerobe

Acid Fast

A

Nocardia

58
Q

GNR

Lactose fermenter

Fast fermenter

A

Klebsiella

E Coli

Enterobacter

59
Q

GNR

Lactose nonfermenter

Oxidase positive

A

Pseudomonas

59
Q

Currant jelly sputum

Nosocomial UTI

Aspiration PNA in alcoholics and diabetics

A

Klebsiella

59
Q

Latin American mycotic disease

Budding yeast with captain’s wheel

A

Paracoccidiomycosis

59
Q

Toxoplasma treatment

A

Sulfadiazene + pyrimethamine

59
Q

Intestinal infection causing anemia by sucking blood from intestinal walls

A

Hookworms aka

Ancylostoma duodenale

Necator americanus

59
Q

Sickle cell and osteomyelitis

A

Salmonella (also can be S aureus)

60
Q

flu-like sx

myalgias, especially of the calves

photophobia

conjunctival suffusion (erythema w/o exudate)

Surfers and in the tropics

A

Leptospirosis

62
Q

Severe diarrhea in AIDS

A

Cryptosporidium

63
Q

Hepadnavirus structure

A

Partially DS and circular

64
Q

Heavily encapsulated yeast

India ink and mucicarmine stain

Sabourad agar culture

A

cryptococcus neoformans

65
Q

Facultative intracellular microbe

Unpasteurized dairy products and deli meats

Rocket tails via actin polymerization

A

Listeria

66
Q

High cold-agglutinin titer and RBC lysis with PNA

A

Mycoplasma PNA

67
Q

PNA in cystic fibrosis

Also in burn infections

A

Pseudomonas

68
Q

Liver abscess and dysentery

A

E histolytica

69
Q

Parasite causing biliary tract dz, cholangiocarcinoma

Undercooked fish

A

clonorchis sinensis

71
Q

Sporotrichosis treatment

A

Itraconazole

Potassium iodide

72
Q

Pseudohyphae and budding yeasts at 20 degrees C

A

Candida

73
Q

Recurrent infections and chronic diarrhea in neonate

A

HIV

74
Q

Painful genital ulcer with exudate

Inguinal LAD

A

Chancroid 2/2 H ducreyi

75
Q

Dominant flora in vagina

A

lactobacilus

76
Q

Immune response in Hansen disease

Lepromatous:

Tuberculoid:

A

Lepromatous: low cell-mediated immunity w/ intact Th2 response and suppressed Th1 response

Tuberculoid: high cell-mediated immunity w/ largely Th1 response

77
Q

Optocin resistant

Dental caries

Endocarditis

A

Viridans strep group

78
Q

Intubated or ventilated patient with new infiltrate on CXR

A

Pseudomonas (sweet odor)

Klebsiella

Acinetobacter

S. aureus

79
Q

Most common culture negative endocarditis

cattle/sheep amniotic fluid

A

Q fever from Coxiella

80
Q

Prosthesis and catheter infections

biofilms

Novobiocin sensitive

A

S. epi

82
Q

Walking pneumonia

Patient < 30 yo

Often military or prison

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

83
Q

Virulence in mycobacterium TB associated with:

A

presence of cord factor

84
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus (or Pulm art hypoplasia)

Cataracts

Deafness

+/- blueberry muffin rash

A

Rubella

85
Q

Granulocytes with morulae in cytosol

A

Anaplasma

87
Q

Bug in elephantiasis

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

88
Q

GNR

Lactose nonfermenter

Oxidase negative

Produces H2S

A

SPY

Salmonella

Proteus

Yersinia

89
Q

Methenamine silver stain

Bilateral ground glass opacities

disc-shaped yeast

A

PCP

90
Q

Chorioretinitis

hydrocephalus

intracranial calcifications

A

Congenital toxoplasma

91
Q

Cryptosporidium tx in immunocompetent host

A

nitazoxanide

93
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi causes what disease

A

Chagas disease

94
Q

Hearing loss

Seizures

Petechial rash

Blueberry muffin rash

Periventricular calcifications

A

Neonatal CMV

96
Q

cysticercosis treatment

A

Praziquantel

Albendazole for neurocysticercosis

97
Q

Clue cells

gray vaginal discharge

A

BV

99
Q

Trophozoites or cysts in stool

Fatty Diarrhea

A

Giardia

101
Q

Comma or S shaped organism, growth at 42 C

A

Campylobacter

102
Q

Adenovirus structure

A

DS and linear

103
Q

Bacteria associated with chronic granulomatous disease

A

S aureus

104
Q

Malaria treatment

A

Chloroquine if sensitive

Mefloquine if resistant

Add primaquine for P vivax/ovale

105
Q

Bacteria with D-glutamate polypeptide capsule

A

Anthrax

106
Q

Virus frequently causing conjunctivitis

A

Adenovirus

107
Q

Malaria:

48 hour cycle:

72 hour cycle:

A

48 hour cycle: P vivax/ovale

72 hour cycle: P malariae

108
Q

Neonate:

Notched teeth

Saddle nose

Short maxilla

Saber shins

CN VIII deafness

A

Congenital syphilis

110
Q

Giant roundworm treatment

A

Bendazoles

111
Q

Mycotic PNA

Resides in macrophages

A

Histoplama

112
Q

Most severe type of malaria

A

P falciparum

113
Q

Tsetse fly bite

Somnolence, LAD, recurring fever

A

Trypanosoma brucei

aka African sleeping sickness

114
Q

Gram negative

Oxidase positive, comma shaped

Grows in 42 degrees C:

Grows in alkaline media

Produces urease:

A

Grows in 42 degrees C: Campylobacter

Grows in alkaline media: Vibrio cholerae

Produces urease: H pylori

115
Q

Name 3 bugs:

Rash on hands and feet

A

Coxsackie A

Syphilis

Rickettsia rickettsii

117
Q

Amoebas in spinal fluid

Rapidly progressive meningoencephalitis

Swimming in freshwater lakes

A

Naegleria fowleri

118
Q

Babesiosis treatment

A

Atovaquone + azithromycin

119
Q

What is physical exam finding of Argyll Robinson pupil?

A

Accomodates but does not react

120
Q

African sleeping sickness treatment

A

Suramin = blood borne disease

melarsoprol = CNS penetration

“Sure is nice to go to sleep. Melatonin helps with sleep”

121
Q

Chlamydia trachomitis serotypes

A, B, and C:

D-K:

L1, L2, L3:

A

A, B, and C: Africa, blindness, chronic infection

D-K: everything else

L1, L2, L3: Lymphogranuloma venereum – painless genital ulcers and inguinal LAD

122
Q

Gram +

Cocci

Catalase - (chains)

Partial hemolysis (alpha)

A

OVRPS

Optocin - Viridins is Resistant, Pneumoniae is Sensitive

123
Q

Which is more important in Shigella: exotoxin production or mucosal invasion

A

Mucosal invasion

124
Q

Mycotic disease

PNA and Meningitis

Spherule filled with endospores

Erythema nodosum

Arthralgias

A

Coccidiomycosis

125
Q

Life threatening malaria treatment

A

IV quinidine or artesunate (test G6PD)

126
Q

Hand foot and mouth disease

A

Coxsackie A

127
Q

Herpesvirus DNA structure

A

DS and linear

128
Q

Dark field microscopy positive means what bug?

A

Syphilis

129
Q

Cysts from meat or oocysts from cat feces

Tachyzoite on biopsy

A

Toxoplasma

130
Q

Larvae enter bloodstream and encyst in striated muscle

Fever, vomiting, nausea, periorbital edema, myalgia

A

Trichinosis

131
Q

Monocytes with morulae (berry-like inclusions)

A

Ehrlichiosis

132
Q

Goats, wools, hides

Widened mediastinum

Medusa head culture

A

Anthrax

133
Q

Beta hemolytic bacteria

A

Staph aureus

GAS

GBS

Listeria

Microbiology (5 decks)

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