Clinical Flashcards

1
Q

Asthma treatment pathway according to NICE?

A

1) SABA
2) low-dose ICS and SABA
3) add in LTRA
4) LABA with ICS (with or without LTRA)
5) MART with ICS
6) MART with higher dose ICS or trial additional drug such as antimuscarinic or theophylline
7) specialist

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2
Q

Prescribing advice for LABA?

A
  • only add if ICS failing
  • do not initiate in rapidly deteriorating asthma
    -introduce at a low dose
  • discontinue if no benefit
  • not for exercise-induced asthma unless also using ICS
  • review as appropriate with aim to step down
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3
Q

Signs of theophylline toxicity?

A

Nausea and vomiting

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4
Q

Why do asthma deaths still occur?

A

Underuse of ICS
Over use of B2 agonists
Failure to recognise symptoms
Failure to recognise severity of attack
Incorrect use of inhalers
Underuse of monitoring devices
Lacks of education and training

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5
Q

What is classed as uncontrolled asthma?

A

3 or more days a week with symptoms or with SABA use or 1 or more nights awakening with asthma

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6
Q

Key features of asthma?

A

Chronic airway inflammation
Cough
Wheeze
Breathlessness
Chest tightness
Reversibility
Trigger factors

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7
Q

What is FEV1?

A

forced expiratory volume in 1 second the maximum amount of air that the subject can forcibly expel during the first second following maximal inhalation.

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8
Q

Normal FEV1 for age 8-19 years?

A

85%

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9
Q

Normal FEV1 for age 20-39 years?

A

80%

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10
Q

Normal FEV1 for age 40-59 years?

A

75%

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11
Q

Normal FEV1 for age 60-80 years?

A

70%

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12
Q

Common types of asthma?

A

Allergic
Non-allergic
Late-onset
Asthma with fixed airflow limitation
Asthma with obesity

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13
Q

Physiology of asthmatic airways?

A

Wall inflamed and thickened
Excess mucus production
Tightened airway muscles
Smaller lumen
Dysynchronisd cilia

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14
Q

Immune cells involved in mild/moderate asthma?

A

Eosinophils
Macrophages
CD4+ T-cells
Mast cells

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15
Q

Immune cells involved in severe refractory asthma?

A

Neutrophils
Macrophages
CD4+ T-cells
CD8+ T-cells

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16
Q

Key mediators in mild/moderate asthma?

A

Eotaxin
IL-4
IL-5
IL-13
Nitric oxide

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17
Q

Key mediators in severe refractory asthma?

A

IL-8
IL-5
IL-13
Nitric oxide

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18
Q

Activators of asthma exacerbations?

A

Viruses
Bacteria
Allergens
Occupational exposure (chemicals)
Irritants (smoke, pollution)
Aspirin
Cold air
Exercise

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19
Q

What causes airway inflammation?

A

Cytokines/chemokines
Cell adhesion
Cellular infiltrate/oedema
Increased mucus
IgE increase

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20
Q

What happens when mast cells in the airways degranulate?

A

Already inflammation and bronchoconstriction

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21
Q

What is Th2 imbalance in allergic asthma?

A

Normally it is an equal balance or favours Th1 but in asthma patients Th2 is greater

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22
Q

Local side effects of ICS?

A

Dysphonia
Candidiasis
Cough
Pneumonia

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23
Q

Systemic side effects of ICS?

A

Adrenal suppression
Growth suppression
Skin thinning
Osteoporosis
Cataracts
Glaucoma
Metabolic abnormalities
Psychiatric disturbance

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24
Q

What are the two response stages of asthma?

A

Acute response
Late response

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25
What is the acute asthmatic response?
Bronchoconstriction Hypersecretion of mucus Mucosal oedema Caused by mast cell degranulation Lasts around an hour
26
What is the late asthmatic response?
Eosinophils attract Th2 T-cells and neutrophils. Causes: Inflammation Tissue destruction Tissue remodelling 2-8 hours after exposure and lasts 1-2 days
27
What are the most common cells to be affected in testicular cancer?
Germ cells
28
Risk factors for developing testicular cancer?
Family history Cryptorchidism (undescended testicles) Previous testicular cancer Testicular carcinoma in situ Ethnic background HIV
29
Symptoms of testicular cancer?
Testicular lump that is usually painless Lumbar back pain Cough Dyspnoea Difficulty swallowing CNS symptoms
30
How to diagnose testicular cancer?
Ultrasound MRI Chest X-ray Blood tests: AFP, LDH, beta-HCG
31
What is stage 1 testicular cancer?
Tumour confined to testes
32
What is stage 2 testicular cancer?
Tumour spread to abdominal lymph nodes
33
What is stage 3 testicular cancer?
Tumour spread to lymph nodes above diaphragm
34
What is stage 4 testicular cancer?
Tumour invading organs other than lymph nodes
35
How to monitor treatment in testicular cancer?
Changes in tumour markers: AFP HCG
36
Drugs used to treat testicular cancer?
Bleomycin Etoposide Cisplatin Ifosfamide
37
Bleomycin indication?
Metastatic testicular cancer Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
38
Bleomycin route of administration?
Intramuscular
39
Side effects of bleomycin?
Rigors Fever Malaise Interstitial pneumonia Nausea and vomiting Pulmonary fibrosis
40
Etoposide indication?
Carcinoma of bronchus Testicular cancer Lymphoma
41
Etoposide route of administration?
Intravenous infusion
42
Side effects of etoposide?
Hypertension Nausea and vomiting Abdominal pain Diarrhoea Fatigue Alopecia Cytopenias
43
Cisplatin indication?
Testicular cancer Lung cancer Cervical cancer Bladder cancer Head and neck cancer Ovarian cancer
44
Cisplatin route of administration?
Intravenous infusion
45
Side effects of cisplatin?
Severe nausea and vomiting Myelosuppression Nephrotoxic Hearing loss Tinnitus Peripheral neuropathy Hyperurcaemia Anaphylaxis
46
Ifosfamide indication?
Testicular cancer
47
Ifosfamide route of administration?
Intravenous infusion
48
Side effects of ifosfamide?
Nephrotoxic Neurotoxic Encephalopathy Nausea and vomiting Hypersensitivity Haemorrhagic cystitis
49
Risk factors for cervical cancer?
HPV Unprotected sex Chemicals Age Smoking Social deprivation Muliparity Early onset of sexual intercourse
50
What are CIN changes?
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia changes Grades abnormal cells that lead to cancer
51
Types of cervical cancer?
Squamous cell Adenocarcinoma Adenosquamous carcinoma Small cell cancer
52
Symptoms of cervical cancer?
Unusual bleeding Smelling vaginal discharge Post-coital bleeding Backache Blood in urine Bone pain Weight loss Loss of appetite
53
What type of test is a smear test?
Liquid-based cytology
54
How often are women aged 25-49 invited for cervical screening?
Every three years
55
How often are women aged 50-64 invited for cervical screening?
Every five years
56
What stage of cervical cancer is treated with chemotherapy?
4
57
Drugs used to treat cervical cancer?
Paclitaxel Cisplatin/carboplatin Topotecan Bevacizumab
58
Paclitaxel indication?
Brest and cervical cancer
59
Paclitaxel route of administration?
Intravenous infusion
60
Side effects of Paclitaxel?
Bone marrow suppression Neurotoxicity Hypersensitivity (steroids and antihistamines should be given prior to treatment) Extravasation
61
Topotecan indication?
Cervical cancer Small cell lung cancer Metastatic ovarian cancer
62
Topotecan route of administration?
Intravenous infusion Oral capsules
63
Side effects of Topotecan?
Diarrhoea Bone marrow suppression Hypersensitivity Sepsis Alopecia Mucositis
64
Bevacizumab indication?
Cervical cancer Metastatic breast cancer Metastatic colorectal cancer Metastatic renal cancer Ovarian cancer
65
Bevacizumab route of administration?
Intravenous infusion
66
Side effects of bevacizumab?
Osteonecrosis of the jaw Fatigue Pain Lack of energy GI effects
67
Monitoring required for bevacizumab?
Blood pressure
68
Three types of anaesthesia?
Local Regional General
69
What is local anaesthesia?
Localised response by inhibiting excitation of nerve endings or by blocking conduction in peripheral nerves. Usually used for minor procedures involving specific tissues
70
What is regional anaesthesia?
Usually involves a larger body area/region
71
What is general anaesthesia?
Involves most of the surgical procedures where patients need to be in an unconscious state
72
How do local anaesthetics work?
Bind reversibly and inactivate sodium channels
73
Examples of amino amide local anaesthetics?
Lidocaine Prilocaine Bupivacaine
74
Examples of amino ester local anaesthetics?
Cocaine Procaine Tetracaine Benzocaine
75
Which type of local anaesthetics are more likely to cause hypersensitivity reactions?
Amino esters
76
Why can adrenaline be used with local anaesthetics?
Constricts the surrounds blood vessels to limit the diffusion of the anaesthetic agent, extending its duration of action
77
Contraindications of spinal anaesthesia?
Local infections Sepsis Bleeding disorders Increased inter-cranial pressure Hypovolaemia
78
What is the difference between spinal and epidural anaesthesia?
The main difference is the placement. With an epidural, anesthesia is injected into the epidural space. With a spinal, the anesthesia is injected into the dural sac that contains cerebrospinal fluid. The direct access means that a spinal gives immediate relief.
79
What adjuvants need to be added to general anaesthesia?
NMBA Benzodiazepines Opioids Anti muscarinic agents
80
What is stage 1 of anaesthesia?
Stage of analgesia Patient is still conscious but drowsy, usually exhibits a reduced response to painful stimuli
81
What is stage 2 of anaesthesia?
Stage of excitement Occurs because inhibition is lost before consciousness
82
What is stage 3 of anaesthesia?
Surgical anaesthesia Reflexes are lost, respiration becomes regular and a muscle tone eventually lost
83
What is stage 4 of anaesthesia?
Medullary depression Respiratory and cardiovascular control is lost, usually resulting in death
84
What are the five main classes of general anaesthetic agents?
Intravenous anaesthetics Inhaled anaesthetics Intravenous sedatives Synthetic opioids Neuromuscular blocking drugs
85
Examples of group one general anaesthetics?
Etomidate Propofol Barbituates
86
How do group 1 anaesthetic agents work?
Actions mediated by a subset of GABA receptors
87
Examples of group two general anaesthetics?
Nitrous oxide Xenon Cyclopropane Ketamine
88
How do group 2 anaesthetic agents work?
Potently inhibit NMDA receptors
89
Example of group 3 general anaesthetics?
Halogenated volatile anaesthetics Isoflurane, halothane
90
How do group 3 anaesthetic agents work?
Positive modulation of GABA receptors Activate 2P potassium channels and inhibit a variety of excitatory cation channels
91
Three main actions of anaesthesia?
Hypnosis Analgesia Relaxation
92
Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?
Rapid rise in temperature Increased muscle rigidity Tachycardia Acidosis
93
Malignant hyperthermia treatment?
IV dantrolene
94
Causes of nausea and vomiting?
Intracranial Vestibular Endocrine/metabolic Radiotherapy Psychogenic Drug induced Gastrointestinal Surgery Pain related
95
Receptors involved in nausea and vomiting?
Histaminergic H1 Cholinergic M1 Dopaminergic D2 Serotonergic 5HT3 Neurokinin-1 NK1
96
What is a volume disturbance?
When the volume of body fluids are altered
97
What is an osmolarity imbalance?
When the concentration of constituents in body fluids are altered
98
What is hypovolaemia?
Depletion of extracellular fluid. Concomitant loss of water and sodium
99
Cause of hypovolaemia?
Insufficient fluid intake Haemorrhage Diarrhoea Burns Vomiting Endocrine imbalances
100
Symptoms of hypovolaemia?
Thirst Weakness Abdominal pains Nausea Hypotension Elevated heart rate Elevated respiratory rate
101
Treatment of hypovolaemia?
Volume replacement: crystalloids, colloids, blood products
102
What is hypervolaemia?
Excess extracellular fluid. Concomitant gain of water and sodium
103
Cause of hypervolaemia?
Excessive administration of fluids Glucocorticoids CKD Liver disease CCF Endocrine imbalances
104
Symptoms of hypervolaemia?
Weight gain Cough Distended abdomen Hypertension Oedema
105
Treatment of hypervolaemia?
Diuretics
106
Normal plasma sodium range?
136-145mmol/l
107
What is hyponatremia?
Loss of sodium from body fluids or excessive gain of extracellular water
108
Cause of hyponatraemia?
Inadequate sodium intake SIADH Diuretic therapy Adrenal insufficiency Hypotonic solutions Heart failure Nephrosis Cirrhosis
109
Symptoms of hyponatraemia?
Peripheral oedema Hypotension Nausea Vomiting Rapid heart rate Cell swelling leads to cerebral oedema, headache and coma
110
Treatment of hyponatraemia?
Review diuretics Treat cause Administer/restrict electrolytes and fluids V2 receptor antagonist (tolvaptan) Demeclocycline
111
What is hypernatraemia?
Increased intake of sodium or excessive loss of water
112
Cause of hypernatraemia?
Excessive sodium intake Corticosteroids Renal insufficiency
113
Symptoms of hypernatraemia?
Hypotension Tachycardia Excessive thirst Cell shrinking can lead to CNS irritability
114
Treatment of hypernatremia?
Treat underlying cause IV fluids, such as glucose Enteral water
115
Normal plasma potassium range?
3.6-5mmol/l
116
Cause of hypokalaemia?
Insufficient intake Abnormal loss Drugs: diuretics, corticosteroids, amphotericin, insulin Endocrine imbalance Trauma Burns
117
Symptoms of hypokalaemia?
Mild: mostly asymptomatic Severe: muscle weakness, ECG changes, arrhythmias
118
Treatment of hypokalaemia?
Potassium replacement, enteral or parenteral
119
Cause of hyperkalaemia?
Renal insufficiency Increased tissue catabolism Increase fragility of blood cells Drugs: ACEi, potassium supplements, potassium-sparing diuretics
120
Symptoms of hyperkalaemia?
Life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias
121
Treatment of hyperkalaemia?
Mild: loop diuretics and NaCl infusion Severe: calcium gluconate Insulin/glucose infusion B-2 agonist infusion Cation exchange resins such as resonium/zirconium Sodium bicarb, if acidosis present
122
What is hypocalcaemia?
Decrease calcium intake/absorption or increased calcium excretion
123
Cause of hypocalcaemia?
CKD Deficient intake/absorption of calcium/vitamin D Hypoparathyroidism Hyperphosphataemia
124
Symptoms of hypocalcaemia?
Increased neuromuscular excitability Prolonged action potentials in the heart
125
Treatment of hypocalcaemia?
IV calcium replacement Oral calcium or vitamin D replacement
126
What is hypercalcaemia?
Increased calcium intake/absorption or decreased calcium excretion or movement of calcium from the bones to the extracellular fluid
127
Causes of hypercalcaemia?
Hyperparathyroidism Thiazide diuretics Excessive intake of calcium/vit D Bone carcinomas
128
Symptoms of hypercalcaemia?
Nausea Vomiting Fatigue Muscle weakness Diminished reflexes Cardiac arrhythmias
129
Treatment of hypercalcaemia?
Phosphates Calcitonin Bisphosphonates Loop diuretics
130
Normal plasma calcium range?
2.15-2.65mmol/l
131
Normal plasma phosphate range?
1.12-1.45mmol/l
132
Main types of antiplatelet drugs?
Theinopyridines Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors Others
133
Examples of theinopyridines?
Clopidogrel Prasugrel Ticlopidine
134
Examples of glycoprotein IIb/IIIb inhibitors?
Abciximab Eptifibatide Tirofiban
135
Examples of ‘other’ antiplatelet drugs?
Aspirin Dipyridamole Ticagrelor
136
What does the cycloxygenase enzyme produce?
Thromboxane A (TXA2) Prostacyclin 2 (PGI2)
137
What does Thromboxane A (TXA2) do?
Promotes platelet aggregation
138
What does Prostacyclin 2 (PGI2) do?
Inhibits platelet aggregation
139
Low dose aspirin mode of action?
Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, which reduces the synthesis of thromboxane A for the life of the platelet
140
Common side effects of low dose aspirin?
GI irritation Prolonged bleeding time Allergy
141
Rarer side effects of low dose aspirin?
GI bleed Intracranial bleed
142
Can low dose aspirin be used in pregnancy?
Category C in pregnancy Low doses are considered safe but should be avoided where possible in the third trimester
143
Clopidogrel/prasugrel mode of action?
Block the platelet ADP receptor (P2Y12) which prevents activation of the platelet glycoprotein IIa/IIIb complex, preventing platelet aggregation and thrombus formation
144
When would clopidogrel be used alongside aspirin?
After having a CV event whilst on aspirin or after stenting
145
When should aspirin be taken with prasugrel?
In most cases
146
Comparison of prasugrel and clopidogrel in ACS after PCI?
Prasugrel superior in primary outcomes (death, stroke, MI) and secondary outcomes (stent thrombosis) Prasugrel had an increased risk of bleeding Overall mortality did not differ between the two groups
147
Prasugrel dose?
Loading dose of 60mg then 10mg daily. Reduced to 5mg daily if over 75 years old or less than 60kg
148
Dipyridamole mechanism of action?
Inhibits platelet function by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, thereby increasing cAMP, which blocks platelet response to ADP
149
Dipyridamole indications?
In combination with warfarin in patients with prosthetic heart valves In combination with aspirin for the secondary prevention of stroke
150
Dipyridamole side effects?
Headache Hot flushes Hypotension Tachycardia Allergic reactions
151
Ticagrelor mechanism of action?
Binds reversibly to P2Y12 receptor inhibiting platelet aggregation
152
Ticagrelor indication?
For use in ACS with aspirin.
153
Ticagrelor with aspirin VS clopidogrel with aspirin?
Ticagrelor more effective in preventing CV events in ACS patients Significant reduction in MI and vascular death but a non-significant increase in stroke noted Total bleeding similar but rate if ICH higher with ticagrelor Risk-benefit of ticagrelor less favourable when used with aspirin doses above 150mg daily
154
Side effects of ticagrelor?
Bleeding Nausea Diarrhoea Headache Non-cardiac chest pain
155
How are glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors administered?
Intravenously
156
Mechanism of action of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors?
Prevent binding of fibrinogen to platelet by occupying platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, reducing platelet aggregation
157
Main groups of anticoagulants?
Indirect parenteral anticoagulants Direct thrombin inhibitors Vitamin K antagonists Factor Xa inhibitors
158
Examples of indirect parenteral anticoagulants?
Heparin LMWH Danaparoid
159
Examples of direct thrombin inhibitors?
Dabigatran Bivalirudin
160
Examples of vitamin K antagonists?
Warfarin Phenindione
161
Examples of factor Xa inhibitors?
Apixaban Edoxaban Rivaroxaban Fondaparinux
162
Heparin onset of action?
Almost immediate
163
Heparin mechanism of action?
Heparin binds to antithrombin III, causing a conformational change allowing antithrombin to rapidly combine and inhibit thrombin It also inactivates factor Xa
164
Can heparin be used in pregnancy?
Yes, it does not cross the placenta as it has a large molecular weight
165
How can heparin be administered?
IV or SC
166
Why can heparin not be administered intramuscularly?
Risk of haematoma
167
Heparin side effects?
Haemorrhage Bruising or pain at injection site HIT Hypersensitivity reactions
168
Heparin monitoring?
Platelet count on days 0, 3, 5 and then on alternative days if treatment continued APTT target range of 1.5-2.5 times of control
169
LMWH mechanism of action?
Enhance effects of antithrombin III but have a higher ratio for factor Xa than IIa, so has a more selective Xa activity
170
Which is more Xa selective LMWH or danaparoid?
Danaparoid
171
LMWH monitoring?
AntiXa levels but only in at-risk patients
172
LMWH vs heparin in regards to bleeding?
Similar incidences of bleeding but protamine only partially effective with LMWH
173
LMWH vs heparin in regards to renal impairment?
Incidence of bleeding higher with LMWH
174
LMWH vs heparin in regards to HIT?
Lower risk with LMWH but there is 90% cross-reactivity, so LMWH is not an alternative to heparin in a patient with HIT
175
LMWH vs heparin in regards to preventing VTE in general surgery patients?
Similar efficacy, but LMWH can be given once daily, although it is more expensive
176
LMWH vs heparin in regards to preventing VTE in orthopaedic patients?
LMWH seen to be more effective
177
LMWH vs heparin in regards to treating DVT?
LMWH are at least as effective as heparin in preventing recurrence and reducing overall mortality in hospital patients. LMWH is more expensive, but since monitoring is not required and can be used for outpatients, this may offset the cost
178
Warfarin mode of action?
Impairs utilisation of vitamin K and reduces the synthesis of some clotting factors and proteins. thought to interfere with clotting factor synthesis by inhibition of the regeneration of vitamin K1 epoxide
179
Which clotting factors and anticoagulant proteins does warfarin reduce the synthesis of?
2,7,9,10 Proteins C and S
180
Why does warfarin take time to exert its full anticoagulant effect?
It has not direct action on the coagulation factors present in the blood so the effects start once these factors are cleared. The factors have half-lives between 24 and 50 hours
181
Warfarin contraindications?
Bleeding disordered Previous GI bleed Haemorrhagic retinopathy Intracerebral haemorrhage Severe hypotension Bacterial endocarditis Alcoholism Unsupervised dementia Frequent falls
182
Warfarin in renal and hepatic impairment?
Cautioned
183
Warfarin in pregnancy?
Avoid- teratogenic and can cause placental haemorrhage
184
How can warfarin interact with other drugs?
Decreased hepatic synthesis of procoagulant factors Inhibition of enzymatic metabolism of warfarin Increased receptor affinity for warfarin Decreased vitamin K synthesis Displacement of warfarin from protein binding sites Increased metabolism of warfarin
185
INR range for AF, DVT, PE and bio-prosthetic heart valves?
2.0-3.0
186
INR range for mechanical prosthetic heart valves?
2.5-3.5
187
How often is INR monitored?
2-3 times weekly until three consecutive readings are within 0.5 of each other, then weekly for four weeks and then every 4-6 weeks when stable
188
Warfarin counselling points?
?Do not change brands Take at same time of day Stabilise vitamin K intake Avoid excessive alcohol intake Care with OTC and herbal products Warn about early signs of haemorrhage
189
Warfarin antidote?
Phytomenadione
190
How does dabigatran/bivalirudin work?
Binds directly to thrombin to block its effect
191
Which type of anticoagulants also have an antiplatelet affect?
Dabigatran Bivalirudin
192
Dabigatran indications?
Prevention of VTE after elective hip or knee replacement Treatment of acute VTE and prevention of subsequent VTE Non-valvular AF and a high risk of stroke or systemic embolism
193
Common dabigatran drug interactions?
Clarithromycin Verapamil Ketoconazole
194
Common dabigatran side effects?
Gastritis Dyspepsia GI bleed
195
Dabigatran counselling points?
Importance of not missing doses Do not open capsules or chew or crush as it can increase the risk of bleeding Take at the same time of day Monitor for signs of bleeding
196
Dabigatran reversal agent?
Idarucizumab
197
Factor Xa inhibitor mechanism of action?
Selectively inhibits factor Xa, blocking thrombin production, conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and thrombus development
198
Can factor Xa inhibitors be used in valvular AF?
No
199
Common DOAC interactions?
Ketoconazole Itraconazole HIV protease inhibitors Rifampicin St Johns wort Carbamazepine
200
When to consider DOACs over warfarin?
Lots of interacting medicines or frequent antibiotic courses High alcohol intake Unable to cope with variable dosing
201
Warfarin vs DOAC in renal impairment?
Warfarin clearance less affected by renal function
202
DOAC positives?
No INR monitoring No known food interactions
203
DOAC negatives?
Cannot be used in valvular AF High cost Shorter half-life so greater effect with compliance issues Less evidence for reversal agents
204
Warfarin positives?
Longer half-life so compliance less of an issue Cheap Lots of experience with its use Can be used in valvular AF Reversal agent
205
Warfarin negatives?
INR monitoring Food interactions
206
Appropriate starting dose of beclometasone ICS in ages 5-16?
50mcg BD
207
Appropriate starting dose of beclometasone ICS in ages 17+?
100mcg BD
208
What is low-dose budesonide ICS in adults?
<400mcg daily
209
What is moderate-dose budesonide ICS in adults?
>400<800mcg daily
210
What is high-dose budesonide ICS in adults?
>800mcg daily
211
What is low-dose budesonide ICS in under 16s?
<200mcg daily
212
What is moderate-dose budesonide ICS in under 16s?
>200<400mcg daily
213
What is high-dose budesonide ICS in under 16s?
>400mcg daily
214
How often to clean a spacer?
Monthly
215
How often to change a spacer?
6-12 months
216
Difference between NICE and GINA?
NICE: LTRA after ICS GINA: LABA after ICS GINA does not recommend SABA alone
217
Why does NICE use LRTA second line?
Cost-effective, even though evidence shows LABA more effective
218
Chlamydia treatment?
Doxycycline 100mg BD for seven days OR azithromycin 1g stat (useful in pregnancy)
219
Gonorrhoea treatment?
Ceftriaxone 500mg IM/IV stat AND azithromycin 1g stat OR doxycycline 100mg BD for 10 days
220
Early/late latent syphilis treatment?
Benzathine penicillin 1.8g IM stat OR procaine penicillin 1.5g IM daily for 10 days
221
Tertiary syphilis treatment?
Ben pen 1.8g every four hours for 15 days
222
Trichomoniasis treatment?
Metronidazole 2g stat OR tinidazole 2g stat In relapse metronidazole 400mg BD for 5 days
223
First episode of genital herpes treatment?
Aciclovir 400mg TDS for 10 days (Stop treatment after 5 days if worked)
224
Episodic genital herpes treatment?
Aciclovir 800mg TDS for two days
225
Prevention of genital herpes?
Aciclovir 400mg BD
226
Treatment of pubic lice?
Permethrin
227
Microbiological features of chlamydia?
Gram-negative (ish) Lacks cell wall Non-motile Has two forms: elementary bodies, which are cocci, and articulate bodies, which are pleomorphic
228
Is chlamydia an intracellular or extracellular pathogen?
Intracellular Grows in host cells as does not have genes for ATP production
229
What causes chlamydia?
Chlamydia trachomatis
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Which form of chlamydia bodies are infective?
Elementary
231
Which form of chlamydia bodies can replicate and how?
Reticulate. Through binary fission within phagosomes
232
What cells can chlamydia infect?
Conjunctiva Trachea Bronchi Urethra Uterus Anus Rectum
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Does chlamydia cause genital lesions?
Yes. Initially a lesion forms as bacteria multiply. This is I ften missed though, internal in women
234
How can chlamydia be transmitted?
Drops Hands Fomites Flies
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Chlamydia symptoms in women?
85% asymptomatic Unusual vaginal discharge Pain when urinating Low abdominal pain Bleeding between periods or after sex Pain during sex
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Chlamydia symptoms in men?
75% have symptoms White/cloudy/watery discharge Pain/burning when urinating Testicular pain or swelling
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Diagnosis of chlamydia?
Urine test or swab
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Cause of gonorrhoea?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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Microbiological features of gonorrhoea?
Gram-negative Diplococci True pathogen
240
What cells can gonorrhoea infect?
Genital mucosal membranes, urethra, digestive tract, cervix, uterus, rectum, pharynx, mouth
241
Gonorrhea secretes?
A protease that cleaver IgA
242
Gonorrhoea symptoms in men?
Usually symptomatic Acute inflammation Painful urination Purulent discharge Can cause infertility
243
Gonorrhoea symptoms in women?
Often asymptomatic Often mistaken for bladder infection Infects cervix Can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease
244
Diagnosis of gonorrhoea?
Urine sample or swab
245
Why do athletes use drugs?
Legitimate therapeutic use Performance continuation Recreationally Performance enhancement
246
What is WADA?
World anti-doping agency
247
Five main groups of performance enhancing drugs?
Stimulants Anabolic steroids Diuretics Narcotic analgesics Peptides/hormones
248
Activation of what receptors in the gut can cause nausea and vomiting?
5HT3 D2 NK1
249
Activation of what receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone can cause nausea and vomiting?
5HT3 D2 M1
250
Where is the chemoreceptor trigger centre found?
Area postrema
251
Activation of what receptors in the cerebral cortex can cause nausea and vomiting?
NK1 GABA 5HT
252
Activation of what receptors in the vestibular nuclei can cause nausea and vomiting?
M1 H1
253
Activation of what receptors in the vomiting centre can cause nausea and vomiting?
M1 H1 Mui opioid 5HT3 NK1
254
What gene is defective in CF?
CFTR
255
What does the CFTR gene stand for?
Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator
256
What does the CFTR gene control?
Transport of chloride
257
Is CF dominant or recessive?
Recessive
258
What is the most common CFTR gene mutation?
Delta-F508
259
Common places to find CFTR channels?
Sweat glands Lungs Pancreatic duct GI tract
260
How many functional mutation classes of CF are there?
Six
261
How is CF tested for in newborns and when?
Heel prick blood test on day six of life
262
Ways to diagnose CF?
Heel prick blood test Sweat test Genetic test
263
What type of sweat is produced in individuals with CF and why?
Hypertonic (salty) as since Cl- cannot be reabsorbed so to balance the electrical charges, neither is Na+
264
What is ASL in the lungs?
Airway surface liquid
265
What is airway surface liquid?
Salt containing, mucus gel layer that traps bacteria and foreign particles breathed in. Then wafted out by cilia
266
How is airway surface liquid affected by CF?
Excess Na+ reabsorbed from the ASL and water follows so it becomes sticky and dehydrated
267
Lung management in CF?
Chest physiotherapy Mucus modifying drugs Vibrating vest Regular sputum samples Prophylactic antibiotics Bronchodilators Transplant Gene therapy
268
Effects of CF on the pancreas?
Pancreatic insufficiency Nutrient malabsorption Constipation Bloating Pancreatitis Can lead to diabetes Fats and fat-soluble vitamins not absorbed
269
Effects of CF on the liver bile duct?
Obstruction of liver bile duct Biliary cirrhosis Inflammation Scarring Fibrosis
270
Effects of CF on the GI system?
Malnutrition Vitamin deficiency Intestinal obstruction Intussusception
271
Effects of CF on the reproductive system?
Infertility
272
Effects of CF on the sinuses?
Sinusitis Nasal polyps
273
Why is reproduction affected in patients with CF?
98% of males have no vas deferens Females have thick cervical mucus
274
What does HIV bind to?
CD4 antigens on lymphocytes, macrophage
275
What to monitor when using antiretrovirals?
Clinical status and compliance HIV viral load CD4 cell count Toxicity through FBC, U and Es every three months Cardiovascular risk
276
Common opportunistic infections in HIV?
PCP CMV MAC
277
What causes pubic lice?
Phthirus pubis
278
Drugs that target bacterial cell walls?
Beta-lactams Glycopeptides
279
Antibiotics that target bacterial protein synthesis?
Aminoglycosides Chloramphenicol Fusidic acid Clindamycin Macrolides Tetracyclines
280
Antibiotics that target folate synthesis?
Sulphonamides Trimethoprim
281
Antibiotics that target transcription of bacterial RNA?
Rifampicin
282
Antibiotics that target bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV?
Quinolones
283
How do penicillins work?
Bind to penicillin-binding proteins resulting in weakness of the cell wall and lysis
284
General penicillin spectrum of action?
Many Gram-positive organisms and gran-negative cocci
285
Which penicillin does not need to be taken on an empty stomach?
Amoxicillin
286
Examples of beta-lactam inhibitors?
Clavulanate Tazobactam
287
Common side effects of penicillin?
Diarrhoea Nausea Superinfection
288
Rare side effects of penicillins?
Anaphylaxis Bronchospasm SJS TEN
289
Common penicillin drug interactions?
Probenecid Oral contraceptives Anticoagulants
290
Benzylpenicillin spectrum of activity?
Neisseria meningitidis Neisseria gonorrhoeae
291
600mg of benpen in units?
100 million units (1 mega unit)
292
Key points of benzathine penicillin?
Slowly released from IM injection site and is hydrolysed to benpen Gives low serum concentrations for up to one month Treatment for syphilis
293
Key points of procaine penicillin?
Mix of procaine and benpen Procaine slows absorption of penicillin which gives a plateau-type blood level at four hours which gradually falls over the next 15-20 hours
294
First-generation cephalosporins?
Cefazolin Cefalotin Cefalexin
295
Second-generation cephalosporins?
Cefaclor Cefoxitin Cefuroxime
296
Third-generation cephalosporins?
Cefotaxime Ceftriaxone Ceftazidime
297
Fourth-generation cephalosporins?
Cefipime
298
Moderate spectrum cephalosporins?
Cefaclor Cefalotin Cefoxitin Cefuroxime Cefalexin Cephazolin
299
Broad spectrum cephalosporins?
Cefepime Cefotaxime Ceftaroline Ceftazidime Ceftriaxone
300
What can happen with rapid IV administration of cephalosporins?
Seizures
301
Monitoring with cephalosporins?
Renal function and FBCs with high doses or prolonged therapy
302
What is the main macrolide used in STIs?
Azithromycin