Client Interview And Assesment Flashcards

0
Q

Dan is a new client whom you are meeting with for the first time today. He will most likely be evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal communication. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Dan?

A

Rapport Stage

When you are first meeting a client and verbal and non-verbal communication are extremely important to consider, you are in the rapport stage.

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1
Q

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?

A

Investigation Stage

The investigation stage occurs between the rapport stage and planning stage, and is typically when a trainer will ask a client to fill out a health-history or lifestyle questionnaire.

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2
Q

Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin?

A

Investigation Stage

This is an example of gathering information, which you should do before the planning stage. This is part of the investigation stage.

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3
Q

Your client tells you that he understands that his family has a history of heart disease and that being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He is still wary of beginning any kind of exercise program and says that he has never had any weight loss success in the past. According to the Theoretical Model of Behavioral Change, what stage of change is your client in?

A

Precontemplation

In the precontemplation phase people are beginning to understand the implications of being inactive, but are not quite ready to commit to a change yet.

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4
Q

Bob is a 45-year-old man who quit smoking 2 months ago. He has not participated in any exercise program in 2 years. His body mass index (BMI) is 32. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors?

A

High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

Since Bob is over 45 years old, it has been less than 6 months since he quit smoking and he also has a BMI of 32, he has 3 points on the risk stratification scale and is considered high risk, therefore he needs to have a medical examination prior to beginning an exercise program.

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5
Q

What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect?

A

Detailed medical and health information.

The health history questionnaire collects detailed information about an individual’s health background such as medications, surgeries, family history and lifestyle information.

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6
Q

What information does the Informed Consent form collect?

A

Evidence of disclosure.

The informed consent form is where your client acknowledges their “assumption of risk”, serves as evidence of disclosure of risks and communicates the potential dangers of exercise. It does not release liability.

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7
Q

What information does the Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire collect?

A

Previous exercise including adherence experience.

The exercise history and attitude questionnaire collects information on the client’s adherence and behavior history and is helpful in developing goals.

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8
Q

What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A

140/90 mmHg

An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or 90 mmHg diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

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9
Q

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD. is s condition that affects mainly which system?

A

Respiratory

COPD is a common respiratory problem, affecting the lungs and an individual’s oxygen carrying capacity.

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10
Q

Your client has been complaining of pain in her anterior lower leg. What is the best course of action to take in continuing her exercise program?

A

Modify the program with cross training.

The best course of action is to modify with cross training that does not aggravate the pain. This will keep her active without further injuring herself. Diagnosing and treating an injury is not within the scope of practice.

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11
Q

Your client is complaining of pain with extension of her elbow. She has a history of lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow). What is the best course of action to take in continuing her exercise program?

A

Modify the program with cross training.

The best course of action is to modify with cross training that does not aggravate the pain. This will keep her active without further injuring herself. Diagnosing and treating an injury is not within the scope of practice.

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12
Q

Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most important thing to do for this client?

A

Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program.

It is very important for a client receiving insulin for diabetes to consult with a physician prior to beginning any kind of exercise program, both for legal reasons as well as client safety.

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13
Q

When filling out the “medications” portion of the Health History Questionnaire, your client lets you know that he is taking a beta-blocking medication. Once obtaining a physician’s release for exercise, what is the most important difference in this client’s exercise program versus a client who is not taking beta-blockers?

A

Use Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE. to determine the level at which he is exercising as his heart rate will not go up.

Beta-blockers keep a person’s heart rate from going up past a certain point, therefore rendering heart rate monitoring useless for determining the intensity at which someone is exercising. Therefore, RPE is the only way you will be able to determine if this person is exercising at the desired intensity.

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14
Q

When beginning an exercise program with a client, you determine that he has checked “yes” to 4 risk factors on the Health Questionnaire. The next step in the training process is to:

A

Give your client a form to be signed by his physician, approving the exercise program.

If a client has 1 or more risk factors, you may not legally train him or her without a signed consent form from his/her physician.

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15
Q

When checking a client’s heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site?

A

Carotid artery

The pulse can only be felt on arteries, and the most common sites are the carotid artery in the neck and the radial artery on the thumb side of the inside of the wrist.

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16
Q

When checking a client’s heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site?

A

Radial artery

The pulse can only be felt on arteries, and the most common sites are the carotid artery in the neck and the radial artery on the thumb side of the inside of the wrist.

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17
Q

A client’s resting heart rate should always be checked ____________________.

A

When the client is sitting

Although resting heart rate may be slightly lower when a client is lying down or has just woken up, it is only necessary for them to be sitting to acquire an accurate resting heart rate.

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18
Q

When measuring a client’s blood pressure, where should the stethoscope be placed?

A

On the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.

In order to hear the blood flow when releasing the pressure of the cuff, the stethoscope must be placed on the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.

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19
Q

After taking the Exercise-Induced Feeling Inventory 12 weeks into their program, your client appears to have the mood profile of “Positive Engagement”. What might your client have answered to feeling very strongly?

A

Enthusiastic

When a client’s mood profile shows “positive engagement” this means that their mood has been improving since beginning training, and they may answer “feel very strongly” to feelings such as refreshed, enthusiastic, relaxed or upbeat on the Exercise-Induced Feeling Inventory.

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20
Q

When performing a Static Postural Assessment on your client, you determine that your client has a slight posterior pelvic tilt. This means that the line of symmetry is __________________.

A

Tilted Posteriorly

With a posterior pelvic tilt, the line of symmetry is tilted posteriorly, creating a posterior tilt.

21
Q

When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

A

Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip flexors and/or erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine.

22
Q

When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise?

A

Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the rectus abdominis and the hamstrings.

23
Q

When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

A

Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When a posterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight rectus abdominis and/or hamstrings, possibly causing reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine.

24
Q

When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise?

A

Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of a posterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the hip flexors and erector spinae.

25
Q

Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation?

A

Knees moving inward

The muscles that oppose the inward movement of the knees are weak and the muscles that generate it are tight, therefore causing the movement to occur.

26
Q

Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation?

A

Raised heels

The plantarflexor muscles cause the heels to elevate, therefore tight, or overactive, plantarflexors can lead to the inability to keep heels in contact with the floor.

27
Q

You have a new client who is extremely obese, and you realize that your body fat calipers (skinfold measurement) may not be an accurate method to determine their body fat percentage. You want to have a starting measurement to determine their progress. What is the best course of action?

A

Utilize Body Mass Index (BMI) and girth measurements.

Most forms of body fat testing other than skinfold measurement are pricey and uncomfortable, and are not usually necessary for determining progress. Instead you can utilize BMI and circumference measurements to determine progress, as these will change along with body fat percentage.

28
Q

What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in women?

A

Triceps, thigh and suprailium

The triceps (back of the arm), thighs and suprailium area are places women are known to hold fat; therefore it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test.

29
Q

What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in men?

A

Chest, thigh and abdominal

The chest, thighs and abdominal area are places men are known to hold fat, therefore it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test.

30
Q

What are the correct units of measurement for calculating body mass index (BMI)?

A

Weight (kg)/Height (m)

BMI is a ratio of weight to height, or weight/height. You must make sure to first convert height to meters and weight to kilograms.

31
Q

Jeanette is a 55-year-old woman who exercises regularly. What is her estimated maximum heart rate?

A

165 bpm

A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is calculated by substracting 220 from the person’s age: (220 - age).

32
Q

Mark is a 32-year-old man. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?

A

188 bpm

A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is 220 - age.

33
Q

What component of fitness does the push-up test measure?

A

Muscular endurance

The push-up test measures upper-body muscular endurance because it requires multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.

34
Q

What component of fitness does the body weight squat test measure?

A

Muscular endurance

The bodyweight squat test measures lower body muscular endurance because it requires multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.

35
Q

What is an example of testing absolute strength?

A

1 RM leg-press test

Absolute strength is tested with a one-repetition maximum test in which the maximum amount of resistance that can be lifted one time is determined.

36
Q

The Vertical Jump test assesses what component of fitness?

A

Power

The vertical jump test assesses muscular power in the lower body.

37
Q

In which stage of the client-trainer relationship should the trainer learn their client’s likes and dislikes?

A

Investigation Stage

The investigation stage is when the trainer should learn about the client, including their likes and dislikes.

38
Q

In which assessment can a personal trainer determine potential movement compensations associated with poor posture?

A

Static postural assessments

Potential movement compensations can be identified through static postural assessments.

39
Q

What is the best method for discussing nutrition with your client?

A

Instruct them to go to choosemyplate.gov and to follow the instructions on the web site.

Telling your client to visit choosemyplate.gov is within the ACE trainer’s scope of practice and is a good way to get your client on the right track nutritionally.

40
Q

A one-repetition maximum test evaluates which type of strength?

A

Absolute strength

A 1RM test evaluates absolute strength, as it determines the greatest amount of weight that can be lifted at one time.

41
Q

In what specific location is the abdominal circumference measured?

A

At the level of the umbilicus.

The abdomen should be measured at the level of the umbilicus for best results. Waist circumference is taken at the smallest part.

42
Q

In what specific location is the circumference of the upper thigh measured?

A

Just below the gluteal fold.

The circumference of the upper thigh should be measured at the largest part, or just below the gluteal fold.

43
Q

In what specific location should the arm be measured?

A

Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the arm relaxed.

The measurement of the arm should be taken between the acromion (lateral portion of the collarbone) and the olecranon process (elbow) with the arm relaxed for best results.

44
Q

How do you determine a person’s waist-to-hip ratio?

A

Waist measurement divided by hip measurement

Waist-to-hip ratio is determined by waist circumference divided by hip circumference.

45
Q

Jose is 18 years old. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?

A

202 bpm

An individual’s estimated MHR is 220 - age. In Jose’s case this is 202 bpm.

46
Q

What is the approximate standard deviation of an individual’s maximum heart rate?

A

12 bpm

The approximate standard deviation for MHR is plus or minus 12 beats per minute, meaning a man of 22 years could have a maximum heart rate that falls between 186-210 bpm.

47
Q

At what times should heart rate be monitored throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

A

Continuously

If possible, heart rate should be monitored continuously during a cardiorespiratory assessment.

48
Q

What is the workload of 1 MET associated with?

A

Oxygen consumption at rest

One MET is equivalent to oxygen consumption at rest, which is approximately 3.5 mL/kg/min.

49
Q

How often should Ratings of Perceived Exertion (RPEs) be taken throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

A

Once every minute

RPEs should be taken during the last 5 seconds of every minute of a cardiorespiratory assessment.

50
Q

What is the best definition of VO2 max?

A

Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of body weight.

VO2 max is the maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of body weight. It is also called maximum oxygen uptake or maximal aerobic capacity.

51
Q

At what point in a maximal aerobic capacity assessment are carbohydrates the primary source of fuel?

A

After reaching the first ventilatory threshold

Carbohydrates are the main source of fuel after the first ventilatory threshold is reached.