Class Notes Flashcards

1
Q

What is a quint?

A

Apparatus equipped with an aerial device, ground ladders, and fire pump, water tank and fire hose

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2
Q

What component is a step up transformer that converts the vehicles 12 or 24 volt DC current into 110 or 220 volt AC current

A

Inverter

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3
Q

What component turns various lights on at specified intervals so that the start up electrical load for all the devices don’t occur at the same time?

A

Load sequencer

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4
Q

What component watches the system for added electric load that threaten to overload system?

A

Load monitor

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5
Q

What is it called when the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent the overload

A

Load shedding

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6
Q

Steering wheel play should be no more than ______

A

10 degrees in either direction

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7
Q

NFPA braking test requirements

A

Complete stop from 20 mph in no more than 35 feet. Parking brake must hold apparatus on a grade of 20%

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8
Q

Air pressure should build to a sufficient level to allow driving within _____ of starting.

A

60 seconds

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9
Q

You might not be able to operator the air horn if the air reservoir drops below _____ because of the air pressure protection valve

A

80 psi

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10
Q

Condition that occurs when the throttle is applied while the transmission is in too high a gear for a given set of conditions

A

Lugging

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11
Q

Choose a gear that allows the engine to operate between _______ rpm

A

200 and 300 rpm.

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12
Q

Long idling periods can result in the use of ______ of fuel per hour

A

1/2 gallon

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13
Q

NFPA _____ states that all riders must be seated and belted, unless loading hose, providing patient care, or teaching tractor drawn aerial

A

1500

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14
Q

The sum of the driver’s reaction time distance and the vehicles braking distance.

A

Total stopping distance

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15
Q

The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping.

A

Reaction distance

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16
Q

The distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a compete stop.

A

Braking distance

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17
Q

It takes ______ more distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than dry concrete.

A

3 to 15 times

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18
Q

At speeds above ____ an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device

A

50 mph

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19
Q

Vehicles moving at _____ can project 300 feet in front of the vehicle. At a speed of 60 mph however the siren is only audible 12 feet

A

40 mph

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20
Q

______ staging may be used on an emergency response where two or more companies are dispatched. Hearing this order, other responding units stage at least one block away form the scene in the direction of travel and await further orders

A

Level 1

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21
Q

____ staging is used where a large number of emergency vehicles are responding to the same incident. This staging is initiated by the IC.

A

Level 2

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22
Q

The measure of the heat absorbing capacity of a substance.

A

Specific heat

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23
Q

Pressure is defined as ______

A

Force per unit area

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24
Q

A one square inch column of water one foot high therefore exerts a pressure at its base of _____

A

.434 psi

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25
Q

_____ feet of water column exerts a pressure of 1 psi at its base

A

2.304 feet (1 divided by .434)

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26
Q

At sea level, the atmosphere exerts a pressure of ______

A

14.7 psi

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27
Q

Absolute zero is also called _____

A

A perfect vacuum

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28
Q

____ in the fire service refers to the height of water supply above the discharge orifice.

A

Head

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29
Q

_____ is the forward velocity pressure at a discharge opening when water is flowing

A

Flow pressure

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30
Q

In residential areas the recommended size for a fire hydrant supply main is at least _____ in diameter.

A

6”

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31
Q

In business and industrial the minimum size for fire hydrant supply main is ___ in diameter.

A

8”

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32
Q

The maximum amount of water used in any one hour interval over the course of the day

A

Peak hourly consumption

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33
Q

The max total amount of water that was used during any 24 hour interval within a 3 year period

A

Maximum daily consumption

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34
Q

This type of pump does not use positive action/positive displacement to force water from the pump; rather it depends on the velocity of the water produced by the centrifugal force to provide the necessary pump discharge pressure for effective operations

A

Centrifugal pump

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35
Q

These types of pumps are used as priming devices to get water into centrifugal pumps

A

Positive displacement pumps

36
Q

Type of positive displacement pump commonly used in hydraulic systems. The pump imparts pressure on the hydraulic fluid by having two intermeshing rotary gears that force the supply of hydraulic oil into the pump casing chamber

A

Rotary gear pump

37
Q

The major components of a centrifugal pump

A

Impeller, vanes, shroud, volute, casing, eye, hub, stripping edge, and discharge

38
Q

Spiral, divergent chamber of a centrifugal pump in which the velocity energy given to water by the impeller blades is converted into pressure

A

Volute

39
Q

The max net pump discharge pressure at which the transfer valve should be operated will not exceed ____

A

50 psi

40
Q

On a 2-stage pump, if unknown which mode to operate in, you should operate in ____ because _____.

A

Parallel/volume because it can supply 100 percent of the rated volume capacity at 150 psi at draft

41
Q

The piping system must be able to withstand a hydrostatic test of _____.

A

500 psi

42
Q

Tank fill line must be _____ in diameter

A

1” minimum

43
Q

NFPA 1901 requires all valves on intake or discharge that are _____ or greater to be equipped with slow acting valve controls, this prevents movement from the full open to the full closed positions in less than 3 seconds

A

3”

44
Q

This component provides a relative indication of battery condition and alternator output

A

Voltmeter

45
Q

If a pump will be required to use more than _____ it should be set to parallel/volume

A

50% of its rated capacity

46
Q

The maximum amount of vacuum that most pumps develop is approx. _____

A

22 inches

47
Q

The best indicator of cavitation is _____

A

The lack of reaction on the pressure gauge to changes in the setting of the throttle

48
Q

At 20 feet of lift the amount of water that can be supplied is only about ____ of its rated capacity.

A

60%

49
Q

Which setting on a 2-stage pump should you be in for drafting?

A

Parallel/volume

50
Q

At 15 feet of lift the amount of water that can be supplied is only about ____ of its rated capacity.

A

70%

51
Q

NFPA 1901 requires all tenders to be able to dump at a minimum average flow rate of ______

A

1000 gpm for the first 90% of their tank

52
Q

The foam concentrate inlet to the edcutor should not be more than _____ above the liquid.

A

6 feet

53
Q

Engine must accelerate to ____ from a standing start within _____ and must achieve a top speed of _____.

A

35 mph; 25 seconds, 50 mph

54
Q

Engine must come to a stop from 20 mph within _____

A

35 feet

55
Q

Pump is tested at 150 for ____ minutes; 200 for ____ min which is 70% capacity, and 250 for ____ which is 50% capacity

A

20; 10; 10

56
Q

NFPA minimum pump capacity for an engine

A

750 gpm @ 150 psi

57
Q

NFPA minimum pump capacity for a tender

A

250 gpm @ 150 psi

58
Q

2 reasons to prime above 1000 rpm

A

It primes faster and it’s less load on the electrical system

59
Q

When not to prime?

A

If getting a supply. Only have to prime if pumping from the tank

60
Q

Minimum tire tread depth

A

1/8” on steering axle tires, 1/16” on rolling axles

61
Q

Where does most of the breaking capability occur?

A

80% in the front disc brakes

62
Q

How much of the braking does the engine brake handle?

A

85%

63
Q

What does the green brake do?

A

It will get you off the road by pulling the remaining air in the system to the spring brakes if the brakes have locked up. Must hold it down.

64
Q

Maximum GPM in standpipe

A

500 gpm

65
Q

GPM of sprinkler head

A

20 gpm

66
Q

When pumping a sprinkler FDC, how do you know if you’re flowing water?

A

Gate down and if water is flowing the pressure will drop. If no water is flowing the pressure will hold.

67
Q

PDP for a building with fire pumps

A

10 psi less than rating of fire pump

68
Q

Explanation of friction loss for aerial master stream

A

185 psi (100 psi tip, 25 psi for ladder pipe (treat as a standpipe), 40 psi elevation (80’), 20 psi pipe FL)

69
Q

What psi is attack hose tested at?

A

300 psi (max PDP should be 250)

70
Q

What psi is supply hose tested at?

A

200 psi (max PDP should be 180)

71
Q

When would you consider a relay pumping operation over a water shuttle?

A

If NFF exceeds 300 gpm

72
Q

Phrase to explain dual pumping

A

“Putting the water main above ground”

73
Q

What size hose would you use on a tank transfer?

A

2 1/2” hose to preserve water

74
Q

Water comes into the ___ of the pump, then gets spun through the _____ in the _____ and then thrown through the _____ to the discharge

A

Eye; Vanes; Impeller; Volutes

75
Q

Minimum gpm Tank to Pump must provide

A

500 gpm

76
Q

All pump components and piping is rated to a minimum of ____

A

500 psi

77
Q

What is the size of the Tank to Pump line?

A

2 1/2”-3”

78
Q

What is the size of the Tank Fill line?

A

About 1”

79
Q

When would you be in RPM mode as opposed to pressure mode?

A

RPM for relay pumping (relay, tandem, supply ladder) or drafting

80
Q

How do you know you’re at your maximum volume you can pump based on the hydrant supply?

A

No more intake pressure OR

You throttle up and your master gauge doesn’t increase

81
Q

What type of foam is Novacool?

A

Universal Extinguishing Agent; Class A/B foam

82
Q

What types of fires can Novacool be used on?

A

Class A, B, D, or K fires

83
Q

Proportioning for Novacool

A

Overhaul: 0.1%

Fire Attack: 0.4%.

84
Q

3/2/1 rule of foam eductors

A

200 psi to eductor, 100 GPM eductor, 300’ max eductor to nozzle

85
Q

Drop 10 rule for 2 1/2” hose friction loss

A

Drop the last digit of GPM, subtract 10, gives FL per 100’.

Example: 2 ½” w/ 300 GPM (300=30, 30-10 = 20 psi per 100’)