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HazMat > Class Final > Flashcards

Class Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the standards set by the Occupational safety and health act?
A. OSHA standards apply primarily to emergency responders
b. OSHA standards apply primarily to hazardous waste sites
C. OSHA standards apply primarily to local, state, and federa workers
D. OSHA standards apply to all workplaces

A

D. OSHA standards apply to all workplaces

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2
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the regulations set by the Environmental protection agency?
A. EPA regulations apply primarily to emergency response
B EPA regulations apply primarily to hazardous wastes
C. EPa regulationa apply primarily to local, state, and federal work sites
D. EPA reaulations apply primarily to privately owned work sites

A

B. EPA regulations apply primarily to hazardous wastes

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3
Q

Which of the following organizations issues mandatory standards?
A. National institute for occupational safety and health (NIOSH)
B. National fire protection association (NFPA)
C. Occupational safeety and health administration (OSHA)
D. Both A and C

A

C. Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA)

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4
Q 
The OSHA standard that protects workers in hazardous waster operations and emergency response is:
A. 29 CFR 1910.120
B. 29 CFR 1400z
C. 49 CFR subchapter C
D. 49 CFR 172.101
A

A. 29 CFR 1910.120

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5
Q 
OSHA’s hazard communication standard is:
A. An employer right-to-know law
B. An emergency worker right-to-know law
C. A community right-to-know law
D. A worker right-to-know law
A

D. A worker right-to-know law

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6
Q

Which of the following organizations issues hazard classes and divisions?
A. Department of transportation (DOT)
B. Department of energy (DOE)
C. National institute for occupational safety and health (NIOSH)
D. Natioanl institute of environmental health sciences (NIEHS)

A

A. Department of transprotation (DOT)

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7
Q 
UN identification numbers indicate that a chemical may be shipped:
A. Only within North america
B. Only within the united states 
C. Only within the county of origin
D. Internationally
A

D. Internattionally

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8
Q 
Hazardous materials that must always be placearded, regardless of quantity, are:
A. Table 1 materials 
B. Table 2 materials 
C. Other regulated materials (ORMs)
D. Flammable chemcials
A

A. Table 1 materials

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9
Q 
Title 49 in code of federal regulations includes all:
A. EPA regulations 
B. OSHA regulations 
C. DOT regulations 
D. None of the above
A

C. DOT regulations

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10
Q 
The superfund amendment and reauthorization act is administered by:
A. EPA
B. OSHA
C. DOT
D. DOE
A

A. EPA

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11
Q

How can DOT subsidiary placards be distinguished from primary placards?
A. Subsidiary placards are smaller
B. Subsidiary placards are a single solid color
C. Sbusidiary placards do nnot carry hazard or UN numbers
D. Subsidiary placards carry only UN numbers

A

C. Subsidiary placards do not carry hazard class or UN numbers

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12
Q 
Bulk containers for liquids hold a mazimum capacity of more than:
A. 119 gallons 
B. 500 gallons 
C. 882 pounds 
D. 1001 pounds
A

A. 119 gallons

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13
Q 
An “MC 331” is a:
A. Non-pressure cargo tank 
B. Low pressure cargo tank
C. Pressure cargo tank 
D. Corrosive liquid cargo tank
A

C. Pressure cargo tank

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14
Q

Non-pressure cargo tanks have:
A. Elliptical cross-sections and flat heads
B. Circular cross-sections and flat heads
C. Elliptical cross-section and rounded heads
D. Circular cross-section and rounded heads

A

A. Elliptical cross-section and flat heads

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15
Q 
Caustic soda is fequently transported in:
A. Corrosive liquid tank cars 
B. Non-pressure tank cars
C. Covered hopper cars 
D. Ton containers
A

C. Covered hopper cars

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16
Q 
Non-pressure cargo tanks primarily carry:
A. Solids 
B. Corrosive materials 
C. Food products 
D. Petroleum products
A

D. Petroleum products

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17
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding shipping papers:
A. DOT requires all vehicles hauling hazardous materials to carry shipping papers
B. DOT requires shipping papers to be within reach of a cargo tank operator
C. DOT requires that MSDs accompany shipping papers
D. Dangerous cargo manifests are used in waterway transportation

A

C. DOT requires that MSDs accompany shipping papers

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18
Q 
Non-pressure tank containes transport liquid and solid materials at pressures up to:
A. 50 psig
B. 100 psig
C. 250 psig
D. 500 psig
A

B. 100 psig

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19
Q 
Tube trailers carry:
A. Liquefied gases 
B. Pressureized gases 
C. Non-pressureized gases 
D. Cryogenic molecules
A

B. Pressureized gases

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20
Q

Which of the following best describes the most common type of tank container?
A. Multiple compantments, stainless steel
B. Single compartment, aluminium tank in wooden frame
C. Multiple compartment, aluminum tank in metal frame
D. Single compartment, stainless steeel tank in metal frame

A

D. Single compartment, stainless steel tank in metal frame

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21
Q 
Medical surveillance for emergency responders in part of which federal regulation?
A. NFPA 1500
B. NFPA 473
C. 29 CFR 1910.1200
D. 29 CFR 1910.120
A

D. 29 CFR 1910.120

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22
Q 
The primary route of chemical exposure for fire fighters is:
A. Inhalation 
B. Skin absorption 
C. Ingestion 
D. Injection/puncture
A

A. Inhalation

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23
Q

Secondary contamination refers to:
A contamination from a second chemcial during one incident
B. Contamination of the public
C. Contamination from someone who has already been contaminated
D. Contamination from more than one source

A

C. Contamination from someone who has already been contaminated

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is not true of the skin?
A. Intact skin is usually a good barrier to chemicals
B. Skin can be both a route of entry and a target site for chemcials
C. Water-soluble substances are more easily absorbed by the skin
D. Areas of the body with more hair follicles allow greater chemcial absorption

A

A. Intact skin is usually a good barrier to chemcials

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25
Q

Which of the following items will provide minimum shielding from gamma radiation?
A. Several inches of lead
B. Chemical protective gear
C. Bunker gear
D. Nothing can protect you from gamma radiation

A

A. Several inches of lead

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26
Q

Under federal regulations, medical surveillance is required for:
A. All fire fighters
B. Members of EMS and hazardous materials teams
C. Memebrs of EMS teams only
D. Members of hazardous mateirals teams only

A

A. All fire fighters

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27
Q 
Biological monitoring measures:
A. The amount of absorbed radiation 
B. The amount of an agent in your body 
C. Chemcial exposure over long peridos of time 
D. Baseline body chemistry
A

B. The amount of an agent in your body

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28
Q

Simple asphyxiants displace oxygen in the air. Chemical asphyxiants:
A. Absorb oxygen in the air
B. Combine with oxygen moleulces to create a chemcial reaction
C. Prevent the respiratory system from inhaling oxygen
D. Prevent the body from using inhaled oxygen

A

D. Prevent the body from using inhaled oxygen

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29
Q 
Etiologic means that an agent is:
A. Airborne
B. Bloodborne
C. Infectious 
D. Carcinogenic
A

C. Infectious

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30
Q 
Which of the following organs is considered the primary “transfer point” for chemcials in the body?
A. The heart 
B. The brain 
C. The gastrointestinal system 
D. The lungs
A

D. The lungs

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the hazard identification phase of pre-incident planning?
A. Transportation routes as well as fixed sites should be identified
B. Hazard indentification is not necessary at sites that sue non-bulk quantities of hazardous waste sites
C. The EPA, not the fire service, is responsible for identifying hazards at regulated waste sites
D. Raw materials are usually more hazardous than processed products

A

A. Transportation routes as well as fixed sites should be identified

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32
Q

What infleunce does topography have on the spread of a poisonous gas that is heaver than air?
A. It usually increases the spread of the gas
B. It usually prevents the spread of the gas
C. It may either increase or prevent the spread of the gas
D. Topography does not influence the spread of the gas

A

C. It may either increase or prevent the spread of te gas

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33
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding weather conditions?
A. Humidity affects heat-induced illnesses among fire fighters
B. Wind can assist first responders by dissipating a dangerous gas
C. Control of run-off from a chemical spill is more difficult when it is raining
D. Cold temperatures have little effect because of physical demands in firefighting

A

D. Cold temperatures have little effect because of physical demands in firefighting

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34
Q 
The hazard identification phase of pre-incident planning primarily involves:
A. Devloping response tactics 
B. Gathering information 
C. Drills with facility response teams 
D. Analysis of resources
A

B. Gathering information

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35
Q

Facilities that use only very small quantities of hazardous materials:
A. Must always follow government reporting procedures
B. May not need to follow government reporting procedures
C. Must provide MSDS s to emergency response personnel
D. Must develop a facility pre-incident plan

A

B. May not need to follow government reporting procedures

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36
Q

What is the next step in a pre-incident plan once you have collected all pertinent information?
A. Develop a generic pre-incident plan for similar industries
B. Disseminate the plan within the department
C. Disseminate the plan to relevant goverment agencies
D. Devleop a comprehensive plan of action

A

D. Develop a comprehensive plan of action

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37
Q

If after preplanning a facility, you find you would not have sufficient resources to respond to an incident, your department should:
A. Purchase the appropriate resources
B. Advise the facility of its limitations
C. Require the facility to establish its own response team
D. Take preventive measures

A

B. Advise the facility of its limitations

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38
Q

Generic pre-incident plans can be developed for:
A. Facilities that store similar products
B. Facilities that use similar processes
C. Facilities within a certain geographic area
D. Each pre-incident plan must be site-specific

A

D. Each pre-incident plan must be site-specific

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39
Q

Which of the following statements is not true of pre-incident planning?
A. Preplanned facilities should be prioritized
B. MSDSs should be collected during the initial site visit
C. A site visit may not be necessary if preveious pre-incident plans are available
D. All possible sources of assistance must be documented

A

D. All possible sources of assistance must be documented

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40
Q

The right response to an incident is to:
A. Allow facility response teams to handle the situation first
B. Allow state or lcoal government response teams to handle the situation first
C. Work within limitations of resources and training
D. Be prepared for large-scale incidents by purchasing additioanl resources

A

C. Work within limitations of resources and training

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41
Q 
Air is assigned a vapor density of:
A. 0
B. 1
C.
7
D. Air has no vapor density
A

B. 1

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42
Q 
If a material is “water miscible” it is:
A. Insoluble in water 
B. Partially soluble in water 
C. Soluble at a one-to-one ratio
D. Infinitely soluble in water
A

D. Infinitely soluble in water

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43
Q 
Substances with high vapor pressure are:
A. More likely to evaporate
B. Less likely to evaporate
C. More likley to sink in air 
D. More likley to risk in air
A

A. More likely to evaporate

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44
Q

The rate of chemcial reaction can usually be increased by:
A. Increasing temperature and concentration and reducing pressure
B reducing temperature and pressure and increasing concentration
C. Reducing pressure and incresing temperature and concentration
D. Increasing temperature, concentration, and pressure

A

D. Increasing temperature, concentration, and pressure

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45
Q 
Vapors and gases with molecular weights greater than 29 tend to:
A. Rise in air 
B. Sink in air 
C. Evaporate quickly
D. Evaporate slowly
A

B. Sink in air

46
Q 
Although specific gravity has no unit of measure, it does have a value relative to:
A. The weight of air 
B. The weight of water 
C. The effect of gravity 
D. Parts per million
A

B. The weight of water

47
Q 
“Igition temperature” refers to:
A. The flash point 
B. The upper explosive limit 
C. The flammable range 
D. The temperature at which a material burns without a flame
A

D. The temperature at which a material burns without a flame

48
Q 
A “pyrophoric” material describes a material that spontaneously ignities in air at or below:
A. 130F
B. 100F
C. 85F
D. 32F
A

A. 130F

49
Q 
All gases have vapor pressures higher than:
A. 0 mm Hg
B. 120 mm Hg
C. 540 mm Hg
D. 760 mm Hg
A

D. 760 mm Hg

50
Q 
A chemical’s “explosive limit” depends on its:
A. Ignition temperature 
B. Specific gravity 
C. Reactivity 
D. Concentration
A

D. Concentration

51
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of response tie as it applies to detection devices?
A. The period between beginning measurement and the initial reading
B. The period between beginning measurement and obtaining a reading
C. The lenght of time required to obtain a sample
D. The lenght of time is takes a device to adjust for the callibration standard

A

A. The period between beginning measurement and its initial reading

52
Q

Detector tubes are used to:
A. Measure the concentration of known gases, vapors, and unknown hydrocarbons
B. Identify specific gases in an atmosphere
C. Distinguish between specific gases within a hazard class
D. Detect flammable atmosphere

A

A. Measure the concentration of known gases, vapors, and unknown hydrocarbons

53
Q 
Alpha and beta radiation survery meters usually display readings in:
A. Milliroentgens per hour 
B. Millirems per hour 
C. Counts per minute 
D. Percentages of LEL
A

C. Counts per minute

54
Q

On a combustible gas indicator with a reading in % LEL, the reading indicates 0.100% of:
A. The explosive gas in the atmosphere
B. The non-explosive gas in the atmosphere
C. The lower explosive limit
D. The flammable range

A

C. The lower eplosive limit

55
Q 
The most common clibration gases for combustible gas indicators are:
A. Methane, pentane 
B. Pentane, oxygen 
C. Methane, xylene
D. Oxygen, methane
A

A. Methane, pentane

56
Q

Which of the following is true of direct read-out instruments?
A. Direct read-out instruments provide measurements in real time
B. Measurements from direct read-out instruments do not need to be converted
C. Measurements from diret read-out instruments are displayed digitally
D. Direct read-out instruments detect specific chemicals

A

A. Direct read-out instruments provide measurements in real time

57
Q

Which of the following instruments should you use in a flammable atmosphere?
A. Instruments marked “UL”
B. Instruments marked “FM”
C. Instruments marked “intrinscially safe”
D. Instruments marked “non-incendive”

A

C. Instruments marked “intrinsically safe”

58
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of relative response as it applies to detection devices?
A. The instrument’s reading compared to the calibration gas
B. The instrument’s reading over the period of the response time
C. The instrument’s reading in response to a specific class of chemicals
D. The instrument’s reading in response to measurements from other devices

A

A. The instrument’s reading compared to the calibration gas

59
Q 
If you are monitoring a gas with an LEL of 2% and your combustible gas indicator reads 50% LEL, what is the actual percentage of gas in the atmosphere?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 25%
D. 50%
A

A. 1%

60
Q 
An atmosphere is assumed to be oxygen-enriched if concentrations of oxygen are greater than:
A. 19.5%
B. 20.9%
C. 23.5%
D. 25%
A

C. 23.5%

61
Q 
Vapor-protective clothing for hazardous chemcial emergency response is described in:
A. NFPA 1991
B. NFPA 1992
C. NFPA 1993
D. NFPA 1994
A

A. NFPA 1991

62
Q 
Chemical protective clothing is specifically designed to:
A. Repel most liquid chemcials 
B. Prevent or limit inhalation hazards 
C. Prevent or limit skin exposure 
D. Provide chemical and flash protection
A

C. Prevent or limit skin exposure

63
Q 
The process by which a chemical moves through a material by molecular means is called:
A. Degradation 
B. Penetration 
C. Permeation 
D. Adsorption
A

C. Permeation

64
Q

Which type of respirator should be worn in emergency reponse?
A. Demand respirators
B. Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus
C. Negative pressure self-contained breathing apparatus
D. Either positive pressure or nnegative pressure self-contained breathing apparatus

A

B. Postivie pressure self-contained breathing apparatus

65
Q

Which of the following organizations assigns protection factors to respirators?
A. National institutes of occupational safety and health
B. Environmental protection agency
C. National fire protection administration
D. Mine safety and health adminsitration

A

A. National institutes of occupational safety and health

66
Q 
The longest approved air line for supplied air respirators is:
A. 100 feet
B. 250 feet 
C. 300 feet
D. 500 feet
A

C. 300 feet

67
Q 
Support funcntion garments shoudl never be used for:
A. Decontamination 
B. Waste cleanup
C. Training 
D. Emergency response
A

D. Emergency response

68
Q 
Liquid splash-protective clothing for hazardous chemical emergency response is described in:
A. NFPA 1991
B. NFPA 1992
C. NFPA 1993
D. NFPA 1994
A

B. NFPA 1992

69
Q

Breakthrough time refers to the time it takes for a chemcial to:
A. Penetrate protective clothing
B. Permeate protective clothing
C. Affect the integrity of protective clothing
D. Create any type of opening in protective clothing

A

B. Permeate protective clothing

70
Q 
Which type of resistance data is most valuable when using vapor-protective clothing?
A. Degradation 
B. Penetration 
C. Permeation 
D. Adsorption
A

B. Penetration

71
Q

When must a decontamination area be set up?
A. As soon as the hazardous materials team arives
B. When personnel enter the HOT zone
C. Before personnel enter the HOT zone
D. When the backup team is suited

A

C. Before personnel enter the HOT zone

72
Q 
In emergency decontamination, which of the following is a primary concern?
A. Remove solid contaminants
B. Remove all contaminants quickly 
C. Avoid secondary contaminants 
D. Prevent severe injury
A

D. Prevention severe injury

73
Q

If contaimants are corrosive, skin and muscous membranes must be flushed with:
A. Large amounts of water
B. No water
C. Just enough water to remove the contaminants
D. Large amounts of a nutralizing solution

A

A. Large amounts of water

74
Q 
Non-soluble contaminants should be removed from the skin with:
A. Water 
B. Liquid soap and water 
C. An oil-based decontaination solition 
D. Dry blotting
A

B. Liquid soap and water

75
Q

Although other facts are involved, protective clothing is more likley to be permeated if:
A. The contaminant is a liquid rather than a gas or solid
B. The ambient temperature is relatively cold
C. The cehmical saturates a small area rather than a large area
D. The chemical is highly concentrated

A

D. The chemical is highly concentrated

76
Q

“Decativation” is the use of cleaning agents, neutralizers, or disinfectants for decontamination and is generally used for:
A. Loose solid contaminants
B. Contaminants mixed with dust or debris
C. Volatile liquids
D. Organic compounds

A

D. Organic compounds

77
Q

In the decontamination process for liquid splash-protective garments, the SCBA facepiece is removed:
A. As soon as possible
B. After outer garments (boots and gloves) are removed
C. After the splash suit is removed
D. After a personal shower

A

C. After the splash suit is removed

78
Q

How should you decontaminate a contaminated entry team member who experiences heat stress in the Hot Zone?
A. Do not decontaminate; remove the protective clothing immediately
B. Perform an emergency decontaminnation, then remove the clothing
C. Perform a thorough decontamination, then remove the clothing
D. Cool the responder, then thoroughly decontaminate and remove the clothing

A

B. Perform an emergency decontamination, then remove the clothing

79
Q 
Exposure to which type of chemical automatically prohibits the reuse of PPE?
A. Carcinogens 
B. Hydrocarbons 
C. Combustible liquids 
D. Organic peroxides
A

A. Carcinogens

80
Q 
PPE contamination levels can only be determined by:
A. Thorough visual examination 
B. Wipe sampling 
C. Analysis of spent decon solutions 
D. Destructive testing
A

D. Destructive testing

81
Q 
Most 55-gallon drums have openings in the top fitted with plugs and caps. These openings are called:
A. Bungs 
B. Chimes 
C. Vents 
D. None of the above
A

A. Bungs

82
Q 
The best type of control technique for trapping solid materials floating on running water is:
A. An overflow dam 
B. An underflow dam 
C. A dike 
D. None of the above
A

B. An underflow dam

83
Q 
Oxygen gas would. Most likely be transported in which type of tank car?
A. Pressure tankcar 
B. Non-pressure tank car 
C. Cryogenic liquid tank car 
D. High pressure tube car
A

C. Cryogenic liquid tank car

84
Q 
Which of the following is usually built to contain releases on land?
A. Booms 
B. Dams 
C. Diversion pits
D. Dikes
A

D. Dikes

85
Q

Which of the following statements is true of overpacking?
A. Overpacking should only be used on 55-gallon drums
B. Leaking drums do not need to be sealed before they are overpacked
C. Overpack drums must be marked
D. Overpack drums must be made of plastic

A

C. Overpack drums must be marked

86
Q 
Which of the following control technqiues are fire fighters usually responsible for?
A. Off-loading 
B. Venting and burning 
C. Product transfer
D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

87
Q 
Which of the following control techniques invovles releasing gas vapors into teh atmosphere to reduce tank pressure?
A. Vapor flaring 
B. Hot tapping 
C. Cold tapping 
D. Venting
A

D. Venting

88
Q 
Which of the following items is often used as an adsorbent?
A. Sand
B. Sawdust
C. Cat litter
D. Clay
A

C. Cat litter

89
Q 
Cargo tanks can be constucted from any of the following materials. Which one is softest and will puncture most easily?
A. Aluminum 
B. Quenched and tempered steel 
C. Mild steel 
D. Stainless steel
A

A. Aluminum

90
Q 
Which type of tank car is the most common?
A. Pressure tank cars 
B. Non-pressure tank cars 
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars 
D. High pressure tube cars
A

B. Non-pressure tank cars

91
Q

An incident management system should be established when:
A. A battalion chief or higher level of authority arrives
B. The span of conntrol exceeds four response units
C. The span of control exceeds six units
D. The first responding unit arrives

A

D. The first responding unit arrives

92
Q 
Which of the following functions is not a command staff position?
A. Safety 
B. Logistics 
C. Liaison 
D. Public information
A

B. Logistics

93
Q

In an incident management system, which of the following statements best descibes the function of the operations function?
A. Operations is responsible for management of tactivcal operations to stabilize and control the incident
B. Operations is responsible for developing action plans and elternatives
C. Operations is responsible for coordinating technical specialists
D. Operations is responsible for projecting long-term resource needs

A

A. Operations is responsible for management of tactical operations to stabilize and control the incident

94
Q 
A rest and rehabilitation unit at a large-scale incident would fall under the:
A. Logistics function 
B. Planning function 
C. Operations function 
D. EMS function
A

C. Operations function

95
Q

During a hazardous materials incident, transfers of command should take place:
A. Only during size-up
B. Only during termination
C. An necessary
D. Transfers of command are not recommended during hazmat incidents

A

C. As necessary

96
Q 
The integrated emergency management system is implemented at large-scale incidents by the:
A. National fire protection assoication 
B. Federal emergency management agency 
C. Environmental protection agency 
D. Department of transportation
A

B. Federal emergency management agency

97
Q

In addition to incident command, what are the four primary divisions at a hazardous materials incident?
A. Operations, planning, logistics, finance
B. Operations, planning, research, safety
C. Operations, planning, safety, finance
D. Operations, logistics, safety, research

A

A. Operations, planning, logistics, finance

98
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the incident safety officer?
A. The incident safety officer also acts as the hazardous materials safety officer
B. The incident safety officer assumes command from the incident commander at termination
C. The incident safety officer can halt operations if unsafe practices occur
D. The incident safety officer is appointed by the hazardous materials officer

A

C. The incident safety officer can halt operations if unsafe practices occur

99
Q 
Coordination of communication at a hazardous materials incident is the responsibility of which division?
A. Operations 
B. Planning 
C. Research 
D. Logistics
A

D. Logistics

100
Q

Which organization mandates the use of incident command systems at hazardous materials incidents?
A. Occupational safety and health administration
B. Environmental protection agency
C. National fire adminstration
D. Department of labor

A

A. Occupational safety and health adminstration

101
Q

How should a seriously injured patient who has been contaminated with a toxic chemical be decontaminated?
A. The patient should undergo full decontamination prior to medical treatment
B. The patient should undergo full decontamination after medical treatment
C. The patient should undergo gross decontamination prior to medical treatment
D. Medical treatment takes priority; the patient should. Not be decontaminated at the scene

A

C. The patient should undergo gross decontamination prior to medical treatment

102
Q

How should burns from alkali corrosive agents be treated?
A. The chemical shuld be blotted dry and the burn covered with a dry dressing
B. The chemcial should be blotted dry and the burn covered with a wet dressing
C. The chemcial should be thoroughly flushed and the burn covered with a dry dressing
D. The chemcial should be thoroughly flushed and the burn covered with a wet dressing

A

C. The chemical should be thoroughly flushed and the burn covered with a dry dressing

103
Q 
Which of these asphyxiants carries the highest risk of secondary contamination?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Cyanide
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. Methane
A

B. Cyanide

104
Q 
The acronym DUMBELS is associated with symptoms produced by exposure to which of the following insecticides?
A. Organophosphates 
B. Organochlorines 
C. Pyrethrins 
D. Carbamates
A

A. Organophosphates

105
Q

Victims of heat stroke experience:
A. Rapid, weak pulse and flushed, dry skin
B. Rapid, strong pulse and flushed, dry skin
C. Rapid, weak pulse and heavy perspiration
D. Slow pulse and flushed, dry skin

A

A. Rapid, weak pulse and flushed, dry skin

106
Q 
Exposure to hydrogen fluoride can cause depletion of blood:
A. Oxygen 
B. Nitrogen
C. Red blood cells 
D. Calcium
A

D. Calcium

107
Q 
Carboxyhemoglobin occurs when carbon monoxide inhibits:
A. The blood’s ability to carry oxygen 
B. Gas transfer through the lungs 
C. Blood flow 
D. Heart rhjythm
A

A. The blood’s ability to carry oxygen

108
Q 
Cyanide is easily absorbed through:
A. Inhalation
B. Skin absorption 
C. Ingestion 
D. All three routes of exposure
A

D. All three routes of exposure

109
Q

How should hypothermic patients be treated?
A. The patient should be warmed quickly by total immersion in warm water
B. The patient should be warmed slowly by placing heat packs close to the body
C. The patietn should be warmed quickly by placing heat packs on the extremities
D. Extremities should be warmed quickly and the torso slowly

A

B. The patient should be warmed slowly by placing heat packs close to the body

110
Q 
Which of the following chemcials can produce methemoglobinemia?
A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Carbon monoxide 
C. Cyanide
D. Nitrates
A

D. Nitrates

HazMat (16 decks)

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