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Nur202 Test 1 > Class 2 > Flashcards

Class 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Mood and affect

A

Mood is a pervasive and sustained emotion that may have a major influence on a persons perception of the world. Examples of mood include depression, joy, elation, anger, and anxiety. Affect is described as the external observable emotional reaction associated with an experience. A flat affect describe someone who lacks emotional expression, and it is often seen and severely depressed clients

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2
Q

Depression

A

Depression is an alteration in mood that, is expressed by feelings of sadness and despair and pessimism. In clinically significant depression, there is a loss of interest, in usual activities and somatic symptoms may be evident. Changes an appetite, sleep patterns, and cognition , are common. Severe depression may be accompanied by suicide, ideation, and/or attempts 

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3
Q

Melancholia

A

Severe form of major depressive disorder in which symptoms are exaggerated and interest or pleasure in virtually all activities, is lost

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4
Q

Persistent depressive disorder, dysthymia

A

Individuals with this man disturbance described her mood as sad or down in the dumps. There is no evidence of psychotic symptoms. The essential feature is a chronically depressed mood for most of the day more days than not for at least two years.

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5
Q

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

Markedly depressed mood, excessive anxiety, mood swings and decreased interest in activities during the week prior to menses improving shortly after the onset of menstruation and becoming minimal or absent in the week post menses

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6
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

manifest as cycles of mania and depression

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7
Q

Mania

A

Mania is an altercation in the mood that may be expressed by feelings of elation, inflated self-esteem, grandiosity, hyperactivity agitation, racing thoughts, and accelerated speech. Mania can occur as part of the psychiatric disorder bipolar disorder as part of some other medical condition are in response to some substances.

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8
Q

Cyclothymic disorder

A

A chronic mood disturbance of at least two years duration, involving numerous periods of elevated mood. They do not meet the criteria for hypomanic episode, and numerous periods of depressed mood of insufficient severity or duration to meet the criteria for major depressive episode. The individual is never without symptoms for more than two months.

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9
Q

Affect

A

Feeling that a person experiences when he or she responds emotionally to the environment

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10
Q

Biogenic amine

A

One of the Neurotransmitters, norepinephrine, serotonin, or dopamine; it is thought that a deficiency of the substances in key areas of the brain results in depression

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11
Q

Depression

A

Affective disorder in which a person experiences sadness that is much more severe, and longer lasting than is warranted. By the event that seems to have precipitated it, with more intense mood; the condition may not even be traceable to a specific event or stressor.

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12
Q

Monoamine, oxidize inhibitor MAOI 

A

Drug that prevents the enzymes monoamine oxidase from breaking down, norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine, leading to increased neurotransmitter levels in the synaptic cleft; relieves depression, and also causes sympathmimetic effects

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13
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor SSRI

A

Drug that specifically blocks the reuptake of serotonin, and increases its concentration in the synaptic cleft; relieves depression, and is not associated with anticholinergic or sympathomimetic of adverse effects

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14
Q

Serotonin norepinephrine, inhibitors SNRI

A

Drug that increases both serotonin and norepinephrine concentrations and synaptic cleft; relieves depression, with varying serotonergic or non-adrenic activity

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15
Q

Tricyclic, antidepressants, TCA

A

Drug that blocks, the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin; relieves depression, and has antichlinergic, and sedative affects

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16
Q

Tyramine

A

An amine found in food that causes vasoconstriction and raises blood pressure; ingesting, food high, in tyramines while taking an MAOI poses the risk of severe hypertensive crisis

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17
Q

Antipsychotic

A

Drug used to treat disorders involving throughout processes; dopamine, receptor blocker that helps affected people to organize their thoughts and respond appropriately to stimuli

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18
Q

Attention deficit disorder

A

Behavioral syndrome characterized by an inability to concentrate for longer than a few minutes and excessive activity

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19
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Behavioral disorder that involves extremes of depression, alternating with hyperactivity and excitement

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20
Q

Major tranquilizer

A

Former name of antipsychotic drugs; the name is no longer used, because it implies that the primary effect of these drugs and sedation, which is no longer thought to be the desired therapeutic action

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21
Q

Mania

A

State of hyperexcitability, one phase of bipolar disorders, which alternate between periods of severe depression, and mania

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22
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Mental disorder characterized by daytime sleepiness in. The sudden loss of wakefulness.

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23
Q

Neuroleptic

A

A drug with many associated neurological adverse effects that is used to treat disorders that involve that processes i.e. schizophrenia

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24
Q

Schizophrenia

A

The most common type of psychosis; characteristics include hallucinations, paranoia, delusions, speech, abnormalities, and affective problems

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25
Q

Absence seizure

A

Type of generalized seizure that is characterized by sudden temporary loss of consciousness, sometimes with staring or blinking for 3 to 5 seconds; formally known as a petit mal seizure

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26
Q

Anti-epileptic

A

Drug used to treat the abnormal and excessive energy bursts of the brain that are characteristic of epilepsy 

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27
Q

Convulsion

A

Tonic colonic, muscular reaction to excessive electrical energy arising from nerve cells in the brain

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28
Q

Epilepsy

A

Collection of various syndromes, all of which are characterized by seizures

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29
Q

Generalized seizure

A

Seizure that begins in one area of the brain and rapidly spread throughout both hemispheres

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30
Q

Partial seizure

A

Also called focal seizures; seizures involving one area of the brain that do not spread throughout the entire organ

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31
Q

Seizure 

A

Sudden discharge of excessive electrical energy from nerve cells in the brain

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32
Q

Status epilepticus

A

State in which seizure rapidly reoccur; most severe form of generalized seizure

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33
Q

Tonic colonics seizure

A

Type of generalized seizure that is characterized by serious, involuntary muscle contractions, followed by RelaxSation appearing as an aggressive spasm. In addition to a loss of consciousness, with exhaustion and little memory of the event on awakening; formally known as a grand mal seizures

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34
Q

Anxiety

A

A feeling of discomfort, apprehension, or dread related to anticipation of danger the source of which is often nonspecific or unknown. Anxiety is considered a disorder or pathology when fears and anxieties are excessive, and there are associated behavioral disturbances, such as interference with social and occupational functioning.

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35
Q

Stress

A

An external pressure that is brought to bear on the individual

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36
Q

Fear

A

Intellectual appraisal of a stimulus perceived to be threatening; anxiety is an emotional response of internal tension, and worry that may be diffuse, and not directly related to an external cause

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37
Q

Panic

A

A sudden, overwhelming, feeling of terror impending doom. This most severe form of emotional anxiety is usually accompanied by behavioral cognitive and psychological signs and symptoms considered extremely intense and frightening.

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38
Q

Panic disorder

A

Characterized by recurrent panic attacks, the onset of which is unpredictable

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39
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Characterized by persistent, unrealistic and excessive anxiety, and worry which have occurred more days than not for at least six months, and cannot be attributed to specific organic factors, such as caffeine intoxication or hyper thyroidism

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40
Q

Phobia

A

An irrational fear of a specific object or situation, resulting in an intense aversion, toward the feared stimulus. Exposure to the feared, object or situation is typically accompanied by intense anxiety or panic attacks.

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41
Q

Agoraphobia

A

The fear of being in open shops and market, but more specifically it is the fear of being being unable ,to get help or escape the setting should panic symptoms occur

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42
Q

Social anxiety disorder SAD

A

An excessive fear of situations in which a person might do something embarrassing, or be a evaluated negatively by others

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43
Q

Specific phobia

A

Identified by fear of specific objects or situations that could conceivably cause harm but the persons reaction to them is excessive and irrational

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44
Q

Obsessions

A

Intrusive thoughts that are reoccurring and stressful. Although they are recognized by the individual as irrational, they continue to be repetitive, and cannot be ignored.

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45
Q

Compulsions 

A

Repetitive ritualistic behaviors, or mental acts that the individual feels driven to perform, according to rigidly applied rules, and which are intended to reduce the anxiety associated with obsessive thoughts

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46
Q

Obsessive compulsive disorder

A

Include the presence of obsessions, or compulsions, or both the severity of which is significant enough to cause distress or impairment and social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning

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47
Q

Body, dysmorphic disorder

A

Characterized by the exaggerated belief that the body is deformed or defective in a some specific way

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48
Q

Trichotillomania

A

The reoccurring, pulling out of one’s hair that results in hair loss

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49
Q

Hoarding disorder

A

Persistent, difficulty discarding, or parting with possessions, regardless of their actual value

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50
Q

Systematic desensitization

A

The client is gradually exposed to the phobic of stimulus, in either a real or imagined situation

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51
Q

Implosion therapy or flooding

A

A therapeutic process in which clients for a prolonged period must imagine situations or participate in real life situations they find extremely frightening

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52
Q

Trauma

A

An extremely distressing experience that causes severe emotional shock, and may have long lasting psychological effects

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53
Q

Trauma informed care

A

Realizes the widespread impact of trauma and various pass for recovery

Recognizes the signs and symptoms of trauma in clients families, staff, and all those involved with the system 

Responds by fully integrating knowledge about trauma and policies, procedures, and practice

Seeks to actively resist re-traumatization

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54
Q

Post traumatic stress disorder, PTSD

A

A multi symptom response triggered by an extremely traumatic event

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55
Q

Stress

A

A state of disequilibrium and tension that occurs when there is disharmony between demands occurring within an individuals, internal or external environment, and their ability to cope with those demands

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56
Q

Prolonged grief disorder

A

The stressor is specifically the death of a person who was close to the bereaved individual and clinically significant distress or impairment in functioning endurance beyond a year of the associated death

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57
Q

Disassociation

A

An unconscious defense mechanism in which there is separation of normally related mental processes, such as identity, memory, and cognition from affect; the detachment of ideas and memories from events or experiences

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58
Q

Aphonia

A

Inability to produce voice

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59
Q

Anosmia

A

In ability to perceive smell

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60
Q

Pseudocyesis

A

False pregnancy

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61
Q

Somatization

A

Focus on physical symptoms becomes reinforced as a way to shift the focus away from family issues and discord

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62
Q

Amnesia

A

Partial or total loss of memory. Memory loss may be temporary or permanent.

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63
Q

Localized amnesia

A

Unable to recall all incidents associated with a stressful event

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64
Q

Selective amnesia

A

Individual can recall only certain incidents associated with a stressful event for specific. After the event.

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65
Q

Generalized amnesia

A

Individual has amnesia for both identity and total life history

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66
Q

Fugue

A

A sudden, unexpected travel away from customary place of daily activities, or by bewildered, wandering with the inability to recall some or all of ones past 

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67
Q

Depersonalization

A

A disturbance in the perception of oneself

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68
Q

Derealization

A

An alteration in the perception of the external environment

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69
Q

Anurea

A

Your an output of less than 50 mL per 24 hours

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70
Q

Ascites

A

An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity

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71
Q

Cardiac re-synchronization therapy CRT

A

A treatment for heart failure in which a device paces both ventricles to synchronize contractions

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72
Q

Congestive heart failure CHF

A

A fluid overload condition associated with heart failure

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73
Q

Diastolic heart failure

A

The inability of the left ventricle of the heart to fill and pump sufficiently; term used to define a type of heart failure; same as heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

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74
Q

Ejection fraction EF

A

Percentage of blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole that is a ejected during systole; a measurement of contractility

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75
Q

Heart failure

A

A clinical syndrome resulting from structural or functional, cardiac disorders that impair the ability of a ventricle to fill our eject blood

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76
Q

Heart failure with mid range ejection fraction

A

 Clinical heart failure syndrome with left ventricular ejection fraction, greater than or equal to 40 to 49%

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77
Q

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

A

Clinical heart failure syndrome with left ventricular ejection fraction, greater than or equal to 50%; the same as diastolic heart failure

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78
Q

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

A

Clinical heart failure syndrome with the left ventricle ejection fraction, less than or equal to 40%; same as systolic heart failure

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79
Q

Left sided heart failure

A

Inability of the left ventricle to fill or eject sufficient blood into the systemic circulation; same as left ventricular failure

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80
Q

Oliguria

A

Diminished urine output; less than .5 mL per kilogram per hour over at least six hours are less than 400 mL in 24 hours

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81
Q

Orthopnea

A

Shortness of breath, when lying flat

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82
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea PND

A

Shortness of breath that occurs suddenly during sleep

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83
Q

Pericardiocentesis

A

Procedure, that involves aspiration of fluid from the pericardial sac

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84
Q

Pericardiotomy

A

Surgically created opening of the pericardium

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85
Q

Pulmonary edema

A

Pathologic accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces and alveoli of the lungs, causing severe respiratory distress

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86
Q

Pulseless electrical activity, PEA

A

Condition in which electrical activity is present on an electrocardio gram, but there is not a Physiologically adequate pulse or blood pressure

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87
Q

Pulsus paradoxus

A

Systolic blood pressure that is more than 10 mm lower during inhalation than during exhalation; difference is normally less than 10 mm

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88
Q

Right sided heart failure

A

Inability of the right ventricle to fill or eject sufficient blood into the pulmonary circulation; same as right, ventricular failure

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89
Q

Systolic heart failure

A

inability of the heart to pump efficiently because of an altercation in the ability of the heart to contract; term used to describe a type of heart failure; same as a heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

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90
Q

Anastomosis

A

Junction of two vessels

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91
Q

Aneurysm

A

Localized sac or dilation of an artery, formed at a weak point in the vessel wall

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92
Q

Angioplasty

A

An invasive procedure that uses a balloon tipped catheter to dilate a stenotic area of a blood vessel

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93
Q

Ankle brachial index ABI

A

Ratio of the ankle systolic pressure to the brachial systolic pressure; an objective measurement of arterial disease that provides quantification of the degree of stenosis

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94
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

Diffuse process whereby the muscle fibers and the endothelial lining of the walls of small arteries and arterial thicken

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95
Q

Atherectomy

A

An invasive procedure that uses a cutting device or laser to remove or reduce plaque in an artery

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96
Q

Atherosclerosis 

A

Inflammatory process involved in the accumulation of lipids, calcium blood components, carbohydrates and fibrous tissue on the intimal layer of a large or medium sized artery

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97
Q

Bruit

A

Sound produced by turbulent blood flow through an irregular torturous,stenotic or dilated vessel

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98
Q

Cyanosis

A

A bluish tint to the skin manifested when the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin contained in the blood is reduced

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99
Q

Deep vein, thrombosis DVT

A

A blood clot or thrombus located within a deep vein that causes obstruction or occlusion

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100
Q

Dissection

A

Separation of the Weeknd, elastic and fibromuscular elements in the medial layer of an artery

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101
Q

Duplex, ultrasonography 

A

Combines B-mode, grayscale imaging of tissue organs and blood vessels with capabilities of estimating velocity changes by the use of a pulsed Doppler

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102
Q

Embolus

A

A blood clot fatty deposit or air that travels through the blood lodges in an artery or vein and blocks flow

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103
Q

Endovascular

A

A type of procedure that uses a puncture or small incision to place catheters inside a blood vessel to repair it or insert a device

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104
Q

Intermittent claudication

A

A muscular cramp like pain or fatigue, in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise or activity, and relieved by rest

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105
Q

Ischemia

A

Deficient blood supply

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106
Q

Pulmonary embolism PE

A

A blood clot or thrombus within a pulmonary artery that blocks are obstructs blood flow to the lungs

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107
Q

Rest pain

A

Persistent pain in the foot or digits when the patient is resting, indicating a severe degree of arterial insufficiency

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108
Q

Rubor

A

Reddish blue discoloration of the extremity; indicative of severe peripheral artery damage in vessels that remain dilated and unable to constrict

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109
Q

Stenosis

A

Narrowing or constriction of a blood vessel

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110
Q

Thromboembolus

A

A blood clot that may become dislodged from the vessel where it originally formed

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111
Q

Thrombus

A

A blood clot within an artery or a vein

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112
Q

Venus thromboembolism VTE

A

A blood clot that forms in the venous vasculature that may manifest as a DVT, our a PE

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113
Q

actin

A

Then filament a component of a Sarcomere, or muscle unit

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114
Q

Aldosterone

A

A hormone released from the adrenal cortex that acts in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney to increase retention of sodium and water

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115
Q

Angiotension

A

A peptide hormone that causes vasoconstriction and stimulates aldosterone and ADH release; part of the renin angiotension system

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116
Q

Antidiuretic hormone, ADH

A

Released from the posterior pituitary and acts in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney to increase water retention

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117
Q

Arrhythmia

A

A disruption in cardiac rate or rhythm also called dysrhythmia

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118
Q

Arteries

A

Vessels that take blood away from the heart; muscular resistance vessels

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119
Q

Atrium

A

Top chamber of the heart, receives blood from veins 

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120
Q

Auricle

A

Appendage on the atria of the heart holds blood to be pumped out with atrial contraction

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121
Q

Automaticity

A

Property of heart cells to generate an action potential without an external stimulus

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122
Q

Capacitance System

A

The Venoussystem; distensible, flexible veins that are capable of holding large amounts of blood

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123
Q

Capillary

A

Small vessel made up of loosely connected, endothelial cells that connect arteries to veins

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124
Q

Cardiac cycle

A

A period of cardiac muscle, relaxation diastole, followed by a period of contraction systole in the hart

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125
Q

Conductivity

A

Property of heart cells to rapidly conduct an action potential of electrical impulse

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126
Q

Diastole 

A

Resting phase of the heart; blood is returned to the heart during this phase

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127
Q

Dysrhythmia

A

It disruption in cardiac rate or rhythm, also called an arrhythmia

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128
Q

Ectopic focus

A

A shift in the pacemaker of the heart from the Sino atrial node to some other site

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129
Q

Electrocardio gram

A

An electrical tracing, reflecting the conduction of an electrical impulse through the heart muscle; does not reflect mechanical activity

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130
Q

Myocardium

A

The muscle of the heart

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131
Q

Myosin

A

Thick filament was projections a component of a sarcomere or muscle unit

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132
Q

Natriuretic peptide

A

A peptide produced by the brain, heart and vasculature which causes natriuresis excretion of sodium in the Aaron; degraded by the enzyme neprilysis

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133
Q

Oncotic pressure

A

The pulling pressure of the plasma, proteins responsible for returning fluid to the vasculature system at the capillary level

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134
Q

Pulse Pressure

A

The systolic blood pressure minus the diastolic blood pressure; reflects the filling pressure of the coronary arteries

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135
Q

Resistance system

A

The arteries; the muscles of the arteries provide resistance to the flow of blood leading to control of blood pressure

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136
Q

Sarcomere

A

Functional unit of a muscle cell composed of Actin and myosin molecules, arranged in layers to give the unit a striped are striated appearance

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137
Q

Sinoatrial node

A

The normal pacemaker of the heart; composed of primitive cells that constantly generate an action potential

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138
Q

Starlings law of the heart

A

Addresses the contractile properties of the heart the more the muscles stretched the stronger it will react until it is stretched to a point at which it will not react at all

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139
Q

Systole

A

Contracting phase of the heart, during which blood is pumped out of the heart

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140
Q

Troponin

A

Chemical and heart muscle that prevents the reaction between Acton, and myosin leading to muscle relaxation; it is an activated by calcium during muscle stimulation to allow actin and myosin to react causing muscle contraction

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141
Q

Veins

A

Vessels that return blood to the heart; distensible tubes

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142
Q

Ventricle

A

Bottom chamber of the heart which contract to pump blood out of the heart

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143
Q

Antiarrhythmics

A

Drugs that affect the action potential of cardiac cells and are used to treat arrhythmias and restore, normal rate and rhythm

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144
Q

Bradycardia

A

Slower than normal heart rate; usually less than 60 bpm

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145
Q

Cardiac output

A

The amount of blood, the heart can pump per peat; influenced by the coordination of cardiac muscle contraction, heart rate, and blood return to the hart

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146
Q

Heart blocks

A

Blocks to conduction of an impulse through the cardiac conduction system; can occur at the atrioventricular node, interrupting conduction from the atria into the ventricles, or in the bundle branches within the ventricles, preventing the normal conduction of the impulse

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147
Q

Hemodynamics

A

The study of the forces moving blood throughout the cardiovascular system

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148
Q

Premature atrial contractions, PAC

A

Caused by an ectopic focus in the atria that stimulates an atrial response

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149
Q

Premature ventricular contraction PVC

A

Caused by an ectopic focus in the ventricles that stimulates the cells and causes an early contraction

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150
Q

Proarrhythmic

A

Tending to cause arrhythmias; many of the drugs used to treat arrhythmias have been found to generate them

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151
Q

Tachycardia

A

Faster than normal heart rate, usually greater than 100 bpm

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152
Q

Anemia

A

Increased red blood cell count

153
Q

Band cell

A

Slightly immature neutrophil

154
Q

Blast cell

A

Primitive white blood cell

155
Q

Cytokine

A

Proteins produced by leukocytes that are vital to regulation of hematopoiesis, apoptosis, and, immune responses

156
Q

Differentation

A

Development of functions and characteristics that are different from those of the parent stem cell

157
Q

Erythrocyte

A

A cellular component of blood involved in the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide; red blood cell

158
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

Process of the formation of red blood cells

159
Q

Erythropoietin 

A

Hormone produced, primarily by the kidney; necessary for Erythropoiesis 

160
Q

Fibrin 

A

Filamentous protein; basis of thrombus and blood clot

161
Q

Fibrinogen 

A

Protein, converted into fibrin to form, thrombus and clot

162
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

Process of breakdown of fibrin clot

163
Q

Granulocyte

A

Granulated white blood cell; i.e. neutrophil eosinoPhil basophil

164
Q

Hematocrit

A

Percentage of total blood volume consisting of red blood cells

165
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Complex process of the formation and maturation of blood cells

166
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Iron, containing protein of red blood cells; delivers oxygen to tissues

167
Q

Homeostasis

A

Intricate balance between clot formation, and clot disillusion

168
Q

Leukocyte

A

One of several cellular components of blood involved in defense of the body; subtypes include neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils ,monocytes, and lymphocytes; White blood cells

169
Q

Leukopenia

A

Less than normal amount of white blood cells in circulation

170
Q

Lymphocyte

A

Form of white blood cell involved in immune functions

171
Q

Lymphoid

A

Pertaining to lymphocytes

172
Q

Macrophage

A

Reticuloendothelial Cells capable of phagocytosis

173
Q

Monocyte

A

Large white blood cell that becomes a macrophage when it leaves the circulation and moves into body tissues

174
Q

Myeloid

A

Pertaining to non-lymphoid blood cells that differentiate into red blood cells, platelets macrophages, mast cells, and various white blood cells

175
Q

Myelopoiesis

A

Formation and maturation of cells, derived from myeloid stem cells

176
Q

Natural killer cells NK

A

Lymphocytes that defend against microorganisms and malignant cells

177
Q

Neutrophil

A

Fully immature, white blood cell capable of phagocytosis; primary defense against bacterial infection

178
Q

Oxyhemoglobin

A

Combined form of oxygen and hemoglobin; primarily found in arterial blood

179
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Process of cellular ingestion and digestion of foreign bodies

180
Q

Plasma

A

Liquid portion of blood

181
Q

Plasminogen

A

Pro Tien, converted to plasmin to dissolve, thrombi and clots

182
Q

Platelet

A

A cellular component of blood involved in blood coagulation; also called thrombocyte

183
Q

Red blood cell RBC

A

A cellular component of blood involved in the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Also called erythrocytes 

184
Q

Reticuloendothelial system

A

Complex system of cells throughout the body capable of phagocytosis

185
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Slightly immature, red blood cells usually only 1% of total circulating red blood cells

186
Q

Serum

A

Portion of blood remaining after coagulation occurs

187
Q

Stem cell

A

Primitive cell capable of self replication and differentiation into myeloid or lymphoid stem cells

188
Q

Stroma

A

Component of the bone marrow, not directly related to the hematopoiesis but serves important supportive roles in this process

189
Q

Thrombocytes 

A

A cellular component of blood involved in blood coagulation; platelet

190
Q

White blood cell wbc

A

One of several cellular components of blood involved in defense of the body; subtypes include neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes

191
Q

Angiotensin converting enzyme, inhibitors AC E

A

Drug that blocks AC E, the enzyme, responsible for converting angiotensin, one to angiotensin two in the lungs; this blocking prevents the vasoconstriction, and aldosterone , release related to Angiotension two

192
Q

Angiotension two receptors

A

Specific receptors found in blood vessels, and in the adrenal gland that react with angiotension two to cause vasoconstriction and release of aldosterone

193
Q

Baroreceptors

A

Pressure receptors; located in the arch of the aorta , and in the carotid artery; responds to changes in pressure and influences. The medulla to stimulate the sympathetic system to increase or decrease blood pressure.

194
Q

Essential, hypertension

A

Sustained blood pressure above normal limits with no discernible underlying cause

195
Q

Cardiovascular center

A

Area of the medulla, at which stimulation will activate the sympathetic nervous system to increase blood pressure and heart rate

196
Q

Hypotension

A

Sustained blood pressure that is lower than that required to adequately perfuse all of the bodies tissues

197
Q

Peripheral resistance

A

Force that resists the flow blood through the vessels, mostly determined by the arterioles, which contract to increase resistance; important in determining overall blood pressure

198
Q

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system

A

Compensatory process that leads to increased blood pressure and blood volume to ensure a perfusion of the kidneys; important in the continual regulation of blood pressure

199
Q

Shock

A

Severe hypotension that can lead to accumulation of waste products and cell death

200
Q

Stroke, volume

A

The amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each beat; important in determining blood pressure

201
Q

Angina pectoris 

A

Suffocation of the chest; pain caused by the imbalance between oxygen being supplied to the heart muscle, and demand for oxygen by the heart muscle

202
Q

Atheroma

A

Plaque in the endothelial lining of arteries contains fat blood cells, lipids, inflammatory agents, and platelets; leads to a narrowing of the lumen of the artery, stiffening of the artery and loss of distensibility and responsiveness

203
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

Narrowing of the arteries caused by a buildup of atheromas, swelling and accumulation of platelets; leads to a loss of elasticities and responsiveness to normal stimuli

204
Q

Coronary artery disease, CAD

A

Characterized by progressive narrowing of coronary arteries, leading to a decreased delivery of oxygen to cardiac muscle cells

205
Q

Myocardial infraction

A

End result of vessel, blockage in the heart; leads to ischemia, and then necrosis of the area cut off from the blood supply; dead cells replaced by scar tissue

206
Q

Nitrate

A

Drugs used to cause, direct relaxation of smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation and decreased venous return to the heart, with decreased resistance to blood flow; this rapidly decreases oxygen demand in the heart, and can restore the balance between blood delivered and blood needed in the heart muscle of patients with angina

207
Q

Prinzmetal Angina

A

Drop in blood flow through coronary artery caused by a vassospasm in the artery

208
Q

Pulse pressure

A

The systolic pressure minus the diastolic blood pressure; reflects the filling pressure of the coronary arteries

209
Q

Stable angina

A

Pan. Due to the imbalance of myocardial, oxygen supply and demand; the pain is relieved by rest or stoppage of activity.

210
Q

Unstable angina

A

Episodes of myocardial ischemia with pain due to the imbalance of myocardial, oxygen supply and demand when the person is at rest and/or at unpredictable times

211
Q

Hypertensive emergency

A

An emergent situation in which blood pressure is severely elevated and there is evidence of actual or probable target organ damage

212
Q

Hypertensive urgency

A

An urgent situation in which blood pressure is severely elevated, but there is no evidence of impending or progressive target organ damage

213
Q

Isolated systolic, hypertension

A

I just order most commonly seen in older adults in which the systolic pressure is greater than 140 and the diastolic pressure is less than 80

214
Q

Masked hypertension

A

Blood pressure that is typically suggestive of a diagnosis of hypertension that is paradoxically normal in healthcare settings

215
Q

Primary hypertension

A

High blood pressure with no Identifiable, cars; essential, hypertension 

216
Q

Rebound, hypertension

A

Blood pressure in a patient with hypertension that is controlled with medication and becomes abnormally high with the abrupt discontinuation of that medication

217
Q

Resistant, hypertension

A

High blood pressure treated with three or more antihypertensive medication’s of different classes; one of these must be a diarrhetic agent

218
Q

Secondary hypertension

A

High blood pressure from an identified caused such as chronic kidney disease

219
Q

Target organ damage

A

Manifestations of pathos physiologic changes in various organs as a consequence of hypertension

220
Q

White coat, hypertension

A

Blood pressure that increases to hypertensive readings and healthcare, said settings that is paradoxically within normal ranges in other settings

221
Q

Ambulatory surgery

A

Includes outpatient, same day or short stay surgery that does not require an overnight hospital stay

222
Q

Bariatrics

A

Having to do with patients with obesity

223
Q

History and physical

A

Mandatory form completed by the surgeon that gives a comprehensive overview of the patient’s history, current physical status, and plan of care

224
Q

Informed consent

A

The patient’s autonomous decision about whether to undergo a surgical procedure based on the nature of the condition, the treatment options and the risks and benefits involved

225
Q

Intra-operative phase

A

Period of time that begins with the transfer of the patient to the operating room area and continues until the patient is admitted to the post anesthesia care unit

226
Q

Minimally invasive surgery

A

Surgical procedures that you specialized instruments inserted into the body either through natural orifices are through small incisions

227
Q

Perioperative phase

A

Period of time that constitutes a surgical experience; includes the preoperative intraoperative and postoperative phases of nursing care

228
Q

Post operative phase

A

Period of time that begins with the admission of the patient to the post anesthesia care unit and ends after follow up evaluation in the clinical setting our home

229
Q

Pre-admission testing

A

Diagnostic testing performed before admission to the hospital

230
Q

Pre-operative phase

A

Period of time from when the decision for surgical intervention is made to win the patient is transferred to the operating room table

231
Q

Absolute Neutrophil count

A

A calculation of the number of circulating neutrophils derive from the total number of white blood cells, and the percentage of neutrophils counted in a microscope’s visual field

232
Q

Anemia

A

Decreased red blood cell count

233
Q

Aplasia

A

Lack of cellular development, i.e. of cells within the bone marrow

234
Q

Cytokines

A

Proteins produced by leukocytes that are critical for regulation of hematopoiesis, apoptosis and immune responses

235
Q

Erythrocyte

A

A cellular component of blood essential to the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide; red blood cell

236
Q

Erythroid cells

A

Any cell that is our will become a mature red blood cell

237
Q

Erythropoietin 

A

Hormone produced, primarily by the kidneys in response to cellular hypoxia that is necessary for erythropoiesis

238
Q

Heptoglobulin 

A

Blood proteins synthesized by the liver; binds free, hemoglobin, released from erythrocytes, which is then removed by the reticuloendothelial system

239
Q

Hemolysis 

A

Destruction of red blood cells with release of cellular components into the circulation may occur within or outside the vasculature

240
Q

Hemosiderin

A

Iron, containing pigment, derive from the breakdown of hemoglobin

241
Q

Hypochromia

A

Power within the red blood cells caused by decreased hemoglobin Contant

242
Q

Leukemia

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of white blood cells

243
Q

Lymphopenia

A

Olympus account less than 1500

244
Q

Megaloblastic, anemia

A

A type of anemia characterized by abnormally, large, nucleated red blood cells

245
Q

Microcytosis

A

Smaller than normal red blood cells

246
Q

Neutropenia

A

Lower than normal number of neutrophils

247
Q

Normochromatic

A

Normal red blood cell color, indicating normal amount of hemoglobin

248
Q

Normocytic

A

Normal size of red blood cells

249
Q

Pancytopenia

A

Abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets

250
Q

Petechiae

A

Tiny capillary hemorrhages

251
Q

Poikilocytosis

A

Variation and shape of red blood cells

252
Q

Polycythemia

A

Excess red blood cells

253
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Slightly immature, red blood cells usually 1% of total number of circulating red blood cells

254
Q

Spherocytes

A

Small spherically shaped red blood cells

255
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Lower than normal platelet count

256
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

Higher than normal platelet count

257
Q

Missuse

A

Overuse with potentially harmful consequences

258
Q

Addiction

A

Physical, mental and behavioral reliance to alcohol, other CNS depressants, CNS stimulants, opiate, hallucinations, cannibal, cannibal oils, and the non-substance addiction to gambling

259
Q

Core concepts addiction

A

A composite for chronic requirement. They need is so strong as degenerate distress and physical or psychological, if left unfulfilled.

260
Q

Core concept intoxication

A

Estate of disturbance and cognition, perception behavior, level of consciousness, judgment, and other functions that is directly attributable to the effects of a psychoactive drug. It may be marked by a physical and mental state of acceleration and emotional frenzy or lethargy and stupor.

261
Q

Intoxication

A

Development of a reversible syndrome of symptoms, following excessive use of a substance

262
Q

Core concept withdrawal

A

Withdrawal is the physiological and mental readjustment that accompanies the discontinuation of an addictive substance

263
Q

Withdrawal

A

Occurs upon abrupt reduction or discontinuation of a substance that has been used regularly over a prolonged. Period.

264
Q

Opioid

A

Group of compounds that includes opium, opium, derivatives and synthetic substitute. Opioids exert both sedative and analgesic effects and their major medical uses are for the relief of pain treatment of diarrhea and relief of coughing.

265
Q

Bacteriuria

A

Bacteria in the urine

266
Q

Catheter associated urinary tract infection CAUTI

A

Are urinary tract infection associated with indwelling urinary catheter’s

267
Q

Cystectomy

A

Surgical removal of the urinary bladder

268
Q

Cystitis

A

Inflammation of the urinary bladder

269
Q

Functional incontinence

A

Involuntary loss of urine due to physical or cognitive impairment

270
Q

Iatrogenic incontinence

A

Involuntary loss of urine due to extrinsic medical factors

271
Q

Ileal conduit

A

Transplantation of the ureters to an isolated section of the terminal ileum, with one of the ureters brought to the abdominal wall; ilial loop 

272
Q

Interstitial cystitis

A

Inflammation of the bladder wall that eventually causes disintegration of the lining and loss of bladder elasticity

273
Q

Micturition 

A

Voiding or urination

274
Q

Mixed incontinence

A

Involuntary urinary leakage associated with the urgency, and also with exertion, effort, sneezing or coughing

275
Q

Neurogenic bladder

A

Bladder dysfunction that results from a disorder or dysfunction of the nervous system and leads to urinary incontinence

276
Q

Nocturia

A

Awakening at night to urinate

277
Q

Overflow incontinence

A

Involuntary your in-laws associated with overdistention of the bladder

278
Q

Prostatitis

A

Inflammation of the prostate gland

279
Q

Pylonephritis

A

Inflammation of the renal pelvis

280
Q

Peoria

A

White blood cells in the urine

281
Q

Residual urine

A

You’re in that remains in the bladder after voiding

282
Q

Stress incontinence

A

Involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of exertion, sneezing, coughing, or changing position

283
Q

Suprapubic catheter

A

A urinary catheter that is inserted through a suprapubic incision into the bladder

284
Q

Ureterovesical are vesicoureteral reflux

A

Backward flow of urine from the bladder into one or both ureters

285
Q

Urethitis 

A

Inflammation of the urethra

286
Q

Urethrovesical reflux

A

An obstruction to free-flowing urine, leading to the reflux of urine from the urethra into the bladder

287
Q

Urge incontinence

A

Involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong urge to void that cannot be suppressed

288
Q

Urinary frequency

A

Voiding more than every three hours

289
Q

Urinary incontinence

A

Unplanned, involuntary, or uncontrolled loss of urine from the bladder

290
Q

Urosepsis

A

Spread of infection from the urinary tract to the bloodstream that results in a systemic infection

291
Q

Bile

A

Fluid produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder that contains cholesterol and bile salt; essential for the proper breakdown and absorption of fats

292
Q

Chyme

A

Contents of the stomach containing ingested, food and secreted enzymes, water, and mucus

293
Q

Gallstones

A

Hard crystals formed in the gallbladder, when the bile containing many crystalline substances is concentrated

294
Q

Gastrin

A

Substance secreted by the stomach in response to many stimuli; stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid from the Parietal cells, and pepsin from the chief cells; causes histamine release at histamine two receptors to affect the release of acid

295
Q

Acute coronary syndrome

A

A constellation of signs and symptoms due to the rupture of Arthur, scholastic, plaque and resulting partial or complete thrombosis within a diseased Coronary artery

296
Q

After load

A

The amount of resistance to rejection of blood from the ventricle

297
Q

Apical impulse

A

Impulse normally palpated at the fifth intercostal space left midclavicular line caused by contraction of the left ventricle

298
Q

Atrioventricular node

A

Secondary pacemaker of the heart located in the right, atrial wall near the tricuspid valve

299
Q

Baroreceptors

A

Nerve fibers located in the aortic arch and carotid arteries that are responsible for control of the blood pressure

300
Q

Cardiac catheterization

A

An invasive procedure used to measure cardiac chamber pressures, and assess patency of the coronary arteries

301
Q

Cardiac output

A

Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle and liters per minute

302
Q

Cardiac stress test

A

A test used to evaluate the functioning of the heart during a period of increased oxygen demand; test may be initiated by exercise or medication’s

303
Q

Contractility 

A

Ability of the cardiac muscle to shorten in response to an electrical impulse

304
Q

Depolarization

A

Electrical activation of a cell caused by the influx of sodium into the cell while Potassium exits the cell.

305
Q

Diastole 

A

Period of ventricular, relaxation, resulting in ventricular filling

306
Q

Ejection fraction

A

Percentage of the end, diastolic blood volume ejected from the ventricle with each heartbeat

307
Q

Hemodynamic monitoring

A

The use of pressure monitoring devices to directly measure cardiovascular function

308
Q

Hypertension

A

Blood pressure that is persistently greater than 130/80

309
Q

Hypotension

A

A decrease in blood pressure to less than 90/60 that compromises systemic perfusion

310
Q

Murmurs

A

Sounds created by abnormal turbulent flow of blood in the heart

311
Q

Myocardial ischemia

A

Condition in which heart muscle cells receive less oxygen than needed

312
Q

Myocardium

A

Muscle layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action of the heart

313
Q

Normal heart sounds

A

Sounds produced when the valves close; normal heart sounds are S1 (Atrioventricular ) and S2 (Semi lunar)

314
Q

Opening snaps

A

Abnormal diastolic sounds generated during opening of rigid, atrioventricular valve leaflets

315
Q

Preload

A

Degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole 

316
Q

Pulmonary vascular resistance

A

Resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, created by the pulmonary circulatory system

317
Q

Pulse deficit 

A

The difference between the apical and the radial pulse rates

318
Q

Radio isotopes

A

Unstable Adams that give off small amounts of energy in the form of gamma rays as they decay; used in cardiac nuclear medicine studies

319
Q

Repolarization

A

Return of the cell to resting state caused by reentry of potassium into the cell while sodium exits the cell

320
Q

S1

A

The first heart sound produced by closure of the atrioventricular; mitral and tricuspid; valves

321
Q

S2

A

The second heart sound produced by closure of the semi lunar; aortic and pulmonic ; valves

322
Q

S3

A

An abnormal heart sound detected, early in diastole as resistance is met to blood entering, either ventricle; most often due to volume overload associated with heart failure

323
Q

S4

A

An abnormal heart sound detected, late in diastole as resistance is met to blood entering, either ventricle during atrial contraction; most often caused by hypertrophy of the ventricle

324
Q

Sinoatrial node

A

Primary pacemaker of the heart located in the right atrium

325
Q

Stroke, volume

A

Amount of blood ejected from one of the ventricles per heartbeat

326
Q

Summation gallop

A

Abnormal sounds created by the presence of an S3 and S4 during periods of tachycardia

327
Q

Systemic, vascular resistance

A

Resistance to blood flow out of the left ventricle, created by the systemic circulatory system

328
Q

Systole

A

. A ventricular contraction resulting an ejection of blood from the ventricles into the pulmonary artery and aorta 

329
Q

Systolic click

A

Add normal systolic sound, created by the opening of a calcified aorta carpal Malik valve during ventricular contraction

330
Q

Telemetry 

A

The process of continuous electrocardiographic monitoring by the transmission of radio waves from a battery operated transmitter worn by the patient

331
Q

Ablation

A

Purposeful destruction of heart muscle cells, usually in an attempt to correct or eliminate an arrhythmia

332
Q

Arrhythmia

A

Disorder of the formation or conduction, or both of the electrical impulse within the heart, altering the heart rate, heart rhythm, or both, and potentially causing, altered blood flow; also referred to as dysrhythmia

333
Q

Artifact

A

Distorted, irrelevant, and extraneous electrocardiographic waveforms

334
Q

Automaticity 

A

Ability of the cardiac cells to initiate an electrical impulse

335
Q

Cardiac re-synchronization therapy

A

Biventricle pacing, used to correct intrerventricle, intra-ventricle, and atrioventricle conduction disturbances that occur in patients with heart failure

336
Q

Cardioversion

A

Electrical current given and synchrony with the patient’s own QRS complex to stop arrhythmia

337
Q

Chronotropy

A

Rate of impulse formation

338
Q

Conduction

A

Transmission of electrical impulses from one cell to another

339
Q

Defibrillation

A

Electrical current given to stop in arrhythmia not synchronized with the patients QRS complex

340
Q

Depolarization

A

Process by which cardiac muscle cells change them or negatively, charged him more positively charged intracellular, State

341
Q

Dromotropy

A

Conduction velocity

342
Q

Electrocardio gram

A

A record of a test that graphically measures the electrical activity of the heart, including each phase of the cardiac cycle

343
Q

Implantable, cardioverter defibrillator

A

A device implanted into the chest wall to treat arrhythmias

344
Q

Inotropy 

A

Force of myocardial contraction

345
Q

P-wave

A

The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse through the atrium; atrial depolarization

346
Q

Paroxysmal 

A

Arrhythmia that has a sudden onset and terminate spontaneously; usually a short duration, but may reoccur

347
Q

PP interval

A

The duration between the beginning of one P wave, and the beginning of the next P wave; used to calculate atrial rate and rhythm

348
Q

PR interval

A

The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse from the Sino atrial node through the atrioventricular node

349
Q

QRS complex

A

The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse through the ventricles; ventricular depolarization

350
Q

QT interval

A

The part of an ECG, that reflects the time from the ventricular depolarization through repolarization

351
Q

Repolarization

A

Process by which cardiac muscle cells return to a more negatively charged interest cellular condition. Their resting state.

352
Q

RR intervals

A

The duration between the beginning of one QRS complex, and the beginning of the next QRS complex; used to calculate, ventricular rate and rhythm

353
Q

Sinus rhythm

A

Electrical activity of the heart initiated by the sinoatrial node

354
Q

ST segment

A

The part of an ECG that reflects the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave

355
Q

T wave

A

The part of an ECG that reflects repolarization of the ventricles

356
Q

TP. Interval

A

The part of an ECG that reflects the time between the end of the T wave in the beginning of the P-wave; he used to identify the isoelectric line

357
Q

U wave

A

The part of an ECG that may reflect per Purkinje , fiber, repolarization; usually it is not seeing unless a patient serum. Potassium level is low.

358
Q

Annuloplasty

A

Repair of a cardiac valves outer ring

359
Q

Aortic valve

A

Semilunar valve located between the left ventricle, and the aorta

360
Q

Autograft

A

Heart valve replacement made from the patient’s own heart valve

361
Q

Bioprosthesis

A

Heart valve replacement made of tissue from an animal heart; heterograft

362
Q

Cardiomyopathy

A

Disease of the heart muscle

363
Q

Chorde tendineae

A

Nondistensible, fibrous strands, connecting, papillary muscles to atrial ventricle (Mitral and tricuspid ) Valve leaflets 

364
Q

Commissurotomy

A

Splitting or separating fused, cardiac valve leaflets

365
Q

Ejection fraction

A

Percentage of the end, diastolic blood volume ejected from the ventricle with each heartbeat

366
Q

Homograft

A

Heart valve replacement made from a human heart valve

367
Q

Leaflet repair

A

Repair of a cardiac valves, movable flaps

368
Q

Mitral valve

A

Atrioventricular valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle

369
Q

Orthotopic transplantation

A

The recipients hired is removed, and a donor heart is grafted into the same site

370
Q

Prolapse of a valve

A

Stretching of an atrioventricular, heart valve leaflet into the atrium during systole

371
Q

Pulmonic valve

A

Semi lunar valve, located between the right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery

372
Q

Regurgitation

A

Backward flow of blood through a heart valve

373
Q

Stenosis

A

Narrowing obstruction of a cardiac valve orifice

374
Q

Total artificial heart

A

Mechanical device used to add a feeling heart replacing the right, and left ventricles

375
Q

Tri cuspid valve

A

Atrioventricular valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle

376
Q

Valve replacement

A

Insertion of either a mechanical, prosthetic valve, or a bioprosthetic, homeo graft or autographed tissue valve at the site of a malfunctioning heart valve to restore normal blood flow through the heart

377
Q

Valvuloplasty

A

Repair of a stenosed or regurgitant cardiac valve by commissurotomy, annuloplasty, or leaflet repair 

378
Q

Ventricular assist device

A

Mechanical device used to aid a failing right or left ventricle

Nur202 Test 1 (5 decks)

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