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Nur202 Test 1 > Class 1 > Flashcards

Class 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Mental illness

A

Maladaptive responses To stressors from the internal or external environment, evidenced by thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are incongruent with the local and cultural norms, and interfere with the individuals, social, occupational, and or physical functioning

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2
Q

Fight or flight syndrome

A

Alarm reaction stage; during this stage, the response of the flight or flight syndrome are initiated

Stage of resistance; the individual uses the physiological response of the first stage as a defense, in an attempt to adapt to the stressor. If adaption occurred, the third stage is prevented are delayed. Physiological symptoms may disappear.

Stage of exhaustion; the stage occurs when there is a prolonged exposure to the stressor to which the body has become adjusted. The adaptive energy is depleted, and the individual can no longer draw from the resources for adoption described in the first two stages. Diseases of adoption (Headaches, mental disorders, coronary artery, disease, ulcers, colitis ) May occur. Without intervention for reversal, exhaustion, or even death ensues 

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3
Q

Anxiety

A

Anxiety is a feeling of discomfort and apprehension related to fear of impending danger. Individuals may be unaware of the source of their anxiety, which is often accompanied by feelings of uncertainty and helplessness.

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4
Q

Grief

A

Grief is a subjective feeling of sorrow and sadness, accompanied by emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a loved person or thing

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5
Q

Mental health

A

Need successful adoption to stressors from internal or external environment, evidenced by thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age, appropriate and congruent with local and cultural norms

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6
Q

Coping skills

A

Coping behaviors that enhance one’s adaption

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7
Q

Ego defense mechanisms

A

Used either consciously or unconsciously as protective devices for the ego in an effort to relieve mild to moderate anxiety. They become maladaptive when an individual uses them to such a degree that the defense mechanism interferes with the ability to deal with reality, with interpersonal relations, or with occupational performance

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8
Q

Neurosis

A

Is psychiatric disturbance characterized by excessive anxiety that is expressed directly or altered through defense mechanisms. Although there is no gross distortion of reality or severe personality, disorganization, the symptoms are significant enough to impair a persons functioning.

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9
Q

Psychosis

A

Significant thought disturbance, in which reality testing is impaired, resulting in delusions, hallucinations, disorganized, speech, or catatonic behavior

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10
Q

Therapeutic relationship

A

An interaction between two people in which input from both participants contributes to a climate of healing, growth, promotion, and/or illness prevention

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11
Q

Rapport

A

Implies special feelings on the part of both the patient and the nurse based on acceptance, warmth, friendliness, common interest, a sense of trust, and a nonjudgmental attitude

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12
Q

Unconditional positive regard

A

The attitude is nonjudgmental, and the respect is unconditional, and that it does not depend on the behavior of the patient to meet certain standards

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13
Q

Genuineness

A

The nurses ability to be open, honest, and real and interactions with the patient

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14
Q

Empathy

A

The ability to see beyond outward behavior and understand the situation from the patient’s point of view 

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15
Q

Transference

A

When the patient unconsciously displaces to the nurse feelings, formed toward a person from their past

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16
Q

Counter transference

A

The nurses, behavioral and emotional responses to the patient

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17
Q

Communication

A

An interactive process of transmitting information between two or more entities

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18
Q

Territoriality

A

The innate tendency to own space

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19
Q

Density

A

The number of people within a given environmental space, and it has been shown to influence interpersonal interaction

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20
Q

Paralanguage

A

Vocal component of the spoken word. It consists of pitch, tone, and loudness of spoken messages, the rate of speaking, expressively placed positive, and emphasis assigned to certain words.

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21
Q

Therapeutic communication

A

Caregiver verbal and nonverbal techniques that focus on the Care receivers, needs and advance, the promotion of healing and change. Therapeutic communication encourages exploration of feelings and fosters understanding of behavioral motivation. It is nonjudgmental, discourages, defensiveness, and promotes trust.

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22
Q

Nursing process

A

Provides a systematic framework for the delivery of nursing care
ADPIE
Assessment
Diagnosis
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation 

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23
Q

Assessment

A

A systematic, dynamic process by which the registered nurse, through interaction with the patient, family, groups, communities, populations, and healthcare providers, Collects and analyzes data. Assessment may include the following dimensions, physical, psychological, social, cultural, spiritual, cognitive, functional abilities, developmental, economic, and lifestyle.

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24
Q

Nursing diagnosis

A

A nursing diagnosis involves clinical judgments concerning human responses to health conditions and life processes, or susceptibility to responses, that are recognized, in an individual, caregiver, family, group, or community. It also provides a basis for selection of nursing interventions to achieve outcomes, for which the nurse has accountability.

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25
Q

Outcomes

A

Outcomes are patient behaviors, and responses that are collaboratively agreed upon, measurable, desired results of nursing interventions

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26
Q

Planning

A

Planning involves selection of nursing interventions, directed toward helping the patient achieve identified outcomes

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27
Q

Implementation

A

Implementation is the execution of identified nursing interventions

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28
Q

Evaluation

A

The process of determining the patient’s progress toward attainment of expected outcomes and the effectiveness of the registered nurses interventions

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29
Q

Ethics

A

Branch of philosophy, that deals with systematic approaches to distinguishing right from wrong behavior

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30
Q

Bioethics

A

The term applied to these principles when they refer to concepts within the scope of medicine, Nursing, and allied health

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31
Q

Morals

A

Fundamental standards of right and wrong that are learned and internalized

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32
Q

Moral behavior

A

Conduct that result from serious critical, thinking about how individuals are to treat others

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33
Q

Values

A

Personal beliefs, and ideas about what is important and desirable

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34
Q

Values clarification

A

Process of self exploration through which individuals identify and rank their own personal values

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35
Q

Rights

A

Expectations to which an individual is entitled either by establish laws, policies, or ethical principles. A right is absolute when there is no restriction whatsoever on the individuals entitlement.

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36
Q

Utilitarianism

A

This principal holds that actions are right to the degree that They tend to promote happiness and wrong, if they tend to produce the reverse of happiness.

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37
Q

Kantianism

A

Directly opposed to utilitarianism. It is not the consequences or results that make an action right or wrong rather, it is the principal or motivation on which the action is best. That is the Morley decisive factor.

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38
Q

Divine command, ethics

A

Decision making is focused on what is commanded by God

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39
Q

Christian ethics

A

Ethical decisions are based in the way of life and teachings of Jesus Christ

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40
Q

Natural law theory

A

Based on the writings of Saint Thomas Aquinas, and advances the idea that decisions about right versus wrong or self evident, and determined by human nature

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41
Q

Ethical egoism

A

What is right and good is what is best for the individual making a decision

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42
Q

Ethical dilemma

A

A situation that requires an individual to make a choice between two equally balanced alternatives

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43
Q

Autonomy

A

Individuals are capable of making independent choices for themselves

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44
Q

Beneficence 

A

One’s duty to benefit or promote the good of others

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45
Q

Advocacy

A

Acting on another’s behalf, being a supporter or defender

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46
Q

Non-malfeasance

A

Requirement that healthcare providers do no harm to their patients, either intentionally or unintentionally

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47
Q

Justice

A

The right of individuals to be treated equally and fairly regardless of race, gender, sexual orientation, marital status, medical diagnosis, social, standing, economic, level, or religious beliefs

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48
Q

Veracity

A

One’s duty to always be truthful

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49
Q

Statutory law

A

A law that has been enacted by legislative body, such as a county or city council

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50
Q

Common-law

A

Drive from decisions made in previous cases

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51
Q

Civil law

A

Protects the private and property, rights of individuals and businesses

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52
Q

Tort

A

Violation of a civil on which an individual has been wrong

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53
Q

Criminal law

A

Provides protection from conduct deemed interest to the public welfare

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54
Q

Informed consent

A

Preservation and protection of individual autonomy, and determining what well, and will not happen to the persons body

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55
Q

False imprisonment

A

Deliberate and unauthorized confinement of a competent person with the intent to prevent them from leaving the hospital; this include use of threats or medication’s that interfere with the clients ability to leave the facility

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56
Q

Negligence

A

Failure to exercise the care toward others that are reasonable or prudent person would do in the circumstances, or taking action at such a reasonable person, would not

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57
Q

Malpractice

A

An act or continuing conduct of a professional that does not meet the standard of professional competence and results and provable damages to their client or patient

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58
Q

Acculturate

A

Give up, cultural practices are values as a result of contact with another group

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59
Q

Assimilate

A

Incorporating practices and values of the majority culture

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60
Q

Distance

A

The means by which various cultures use space to communicate

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61
Q

Enculturation or socialization

A

Cultural behavior socially acquired 

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62
Q

Individualistic culture

A

Believe that people should take responsibility for themselves and do what they want to do independent of the opinions of family and community

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63
Q

Collectivist culture

A

Input from family and friends is highly valued

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64
Q

Cultural syndromes

A

Specific to a cultural group, and do not share an exact correlation to any diagnostic categories, listed in the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders, fifth edition

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65
Q

Milieu Therapy

A

The scientific structuring of the environment, in order to affect behavioral changes, and improve the psychological health and functioning of the individual

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66
Q

Group

A

A group is a collection of individuals, whose association is founded on shared interest, values, norms, or purpose. Membership in a group is generally by chance, by choice, or by circumstance.

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67
Q

Group therapy

A

Group therapy is a form of psychological treatment in which a number of clients meet together with a therapist for purposes of sharing, getting personal insight, and improving interpersonal coping strategies

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68
Q

Autocratic leaders

A

Have personal goals for the group, they withhold information from group members, particularly issues that may interfere with achievement of their own objectives

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69
Q

Democratic leaders

A

Focus on the members of the group, information is shared with members in an effort to allow them to make decisions regarding achieving the goals for the group

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70
Q

Laissez-faire, Leader

A

Non-involvement, goals for this group are undefined, no decisions are made. No problems are solved, and no action is taken.

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71
Q

Psychodrama

A

Clients become actors in life situation scenarios

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72
Q

Family

A

Two or more individuals who depend on one another for emotional, physical and economical support. The members of the family are self defined.

A treatment modality that identifies the family, rather than any one individual, as the client. The family is assisted to solve identified problems within the context of the family group. 

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73
Q

Genogram

A

A visual presentation of the members, the relationships, and sometimes their health issues, across several generations. It provides a convenient way to visualize and summarize a great deal of information in a concise format.

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74
Q

Crisis

A

A crisis is an acute event perceived by the individual as distressing, and in which coping mechanisms and support systems, are inadequate to manage associated anxiety

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75
Q

Dispositional crisis

A

An acute response to an external situational stressor

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76
Q

Crisis of anticipated, life transitions

A

Normal lifecycle transitions may be anticipated, but the individual may feel a lack of control over them

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77
Q

Crisis resulting from traumatic stress

A

Crisis, precipitated by an unexpected external stressor, over which the individual has little or no control, resulting in feelings of being emotionally, overwhelmed, and defeated

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78
Q

Maturational and developmental crisis

A

Crisis that occur in response to failed attempts to master, developmental task, associated with transitions in the lifecycle

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79
Q

Crisis, reflecting psychopathology

A

A crisis that is influenced or triggered by pre-existing psychopathology. Examples of psychopathology that may precipitate crisis, include personality, disorders, anxiety, disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizophrenia.

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80
Q

Psychiatric emergencies

A

Crisis situation’s, in which general functioning has been severely impaired, and the individual rendered incompetent or unable to assume personal responsibility for their behavior. Examples include acutely, suicidal individuals, drug overdoses, reactions to hallucinogenic, drugs, acute psychosis, uncontrollable, anger, and alcohol intoxication.l

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81
Q

Anger

A

Is often described as a secondary emotion. For example, it may be a response to unresolved, grief, depression, fear, anxiety, or unresolved post traumatic stress. 

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82
Q

Aggression

A

Includes verbal and physical attacks that intend harm to another, and often reflect a desire for dominance and control

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83
Q

Prodromal Syndrome 

A

Characterized by anxiety and tension, verbal abuse and profanity and increasing hyper activity. These escalating behavior usually do not occur in stages, but most often overlap, and sometimes occur simultaneously.

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84
Q

Recovery

A

Recovery is an ongoing process of movement toward improvement in health and quality of life

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85
Q

Hope

A

Is internalized, and can be fostered by peers, families, providers, allies, and others. Hope is the catalyst of the recovery process.

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86
Q

Suicide

A

Not a diagnosis or a disorder; it is a behavior

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87
Q

Suicide risk factors

A

Identified as factors that have statistically been correlated with higher incidence of suicide

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88
Q

Suicide, warning, signs

A

Identified as factor suggesting a more immediate concern

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89
Q

Primary prevention

A

Services aimed at reducing the incidence of mental disorders within the population

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90
Q

Secondary prevention

A

Interventions aimed at minimizing early symptoms of psychiatric illnesses, and directed toward reducing the prevalence and duration of the illness

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91
Q

Tertiary prevention

A

Services aimed at reducing the residual challenges that are associated with severe and persistent mental illness

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92
Q

Community

A

A group, population or cluster of people with at least one common characteristic, such as geographic location, occupation, ethnicity, or health concerns

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93
Q

Social skills training

A

Training in verbal and nonverbal skills needed for effective interpersonal relationships, Rehabilitation and recovery, and family therapy 

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94
Q

Psychosis

A

A severe mental condition in which there is disorganization of the personality, deterioration of social functioning, and lots of contact with or distortion of reality. There may be evidence of hallucinations and delusions. Psychosis can occur with or without the presence of organic impairment.

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95
Q

Schizophrenia

A

Disabling mental disorder. In untreated clients or those not responsive to treatment the disturbances and thought processes, perception affect, and behavior invariably result in severe deterioration of social and occupational functioning.

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96
Q

Positive symptoms

A

Referred to as positive symptoms because they are added to the clinical picture. Examples are delusions and hallucinations. Respond with greater empathy to dopamine reducing drugs Than those with negative symptoms

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97
Q

Negative symptoms

A

Deficits, such as apathy, poverty of ideas and loss of drive

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98
Q

Delusions

A

Fixed false beliefs that are irrational, and that the individual maintains her as true, despite evidence to the contrary. These police are not explainable as part of the persons, usual, religious, or cultural precepts.

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99
Q

Loose associations

A

Characterized by speech in which ideas shift form one unrelated subject to another. Typically the individual with loose associations is unaware that the topics are unconnected. When the condition is severe speech may be incoherent.

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100
Q

Antipsychotic

A

Drug used to treat disorders involving thought processes; dopamine, receptor blocker that helps affected people to organize their thoughts and respond appropriately to stimuli

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101
Q

Attention deficit disorder

A

Behavioral syndrome characterized by an inability to concentrate for longer than a few minutes and excessive activity

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102
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Behavioral disorder that involves extremes of depression, alternating with hyperactivity and excitement

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103
Q

Major tranquilizer

A

Former name of antipsychotic drugs; the name is no longer used, because it implies that the primary effect of these drugs is sedation, which is no longer thought to be the desired therapeutic action

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104
Q

Mania

A

State of hyperexcitability; one phase of bipolar disorder, which alternate between periods of, severe depression, and mania

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105
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Mental disorder, characterized by daytime, sleepiness, and periods of sudden loss of wakefulness

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106
Q

Narcoleptic

A

A drug with many associated neurological adverse effects that is used to treat disorders that involve thought processes i.e. schizophrenia

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107
Q

Schizophrenia

A

The most common type of psychosis; characteristics include hallucinations, paranoia, delusions, speech, abnormalities, and affective problems

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108
Q

Anti-colinergic

A

Drugs that oppose the effects of acetylcholine at acetylcholine receptor sites

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109
Q

Belladonna

A

A plant that contains atropine as an alkaloid; used to dilate pupils in a fashion statement in the past; used in herbal medicines, such as atropine is used today

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110
Q

Cycloplegia

A

Inability of the lens in the eye to accommodate near vision, causing blurring and inability to see near objects

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111
Q

Mydriasis

A

Relaxation of the muscles around the pupil, leading to pupil dilation

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112
Q

Parasympatholytic

A

Lysing, or preventing parasympathetic effects

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113
Q

Bradykinesia

A

Difficulty in performing intentional movements and extreme slowness and sluggishness; characteristic of Parkinson’s disease

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114
Q

Corpus striatum

A

Part of the brain that reacts with the substantia nigra, to maintain a balance of suppression and stimulation

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115
Q

Dopaminergic

A

Drug that increases the effects of dopamine at receptor sites

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116
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Debilitating disease characterized by progressive loss of coordination and function, which results from the degeneration of dopamine producing cells in the substantia nigra

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117
Q

Parkinsonism

A

Parkinson’s disease like extrapyramidal symptoms that are adverse effects associated with particular drugs or brain injuries

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118
Q

Substantia nigra

A

A part of the brain region dopamine and dopamine receptors; sight of the generating neurons in Parkinson disease

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119
Q

Air trapping

A

Incomplete emptying of alveoli during expiration due to loss of lung tissue expiration ( Emphysema ), Bronchospasm (Asthma ), or Airway obstruction 

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120
Q

Alpha one antitrypsin deficiency

A

Genetic disorder resulting from deficiency of alpha-1, anti-trypsin, a protective agent for the lungs; increases patient’s risk for developing panacinar emphysema, even in the absence of smoking

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121
Q

Asthma

A

A heterogeneous disease, usually characterized by chronic airway inflammation; defined by history of symptoms, such as wheezes, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and cough that vary over time and in intensity

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122
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Chronic, irreversible, dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles that result from the destruction of muscles and elastic connective tissue; dilated airways become saccular and are a medium for chronic infection

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123
Q

Chest percussion

A

Manually cupping hands over the chest wall and using vibration to mobilize secretions, by mechanically dislodging, viscous or adherent secretions in the lungs

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124
Q

Chest physiotherapy CPT

A

Therapy used to remove bronchial, secretions, improve, ventilation, and increase the efficiency of the respiratory muscles; types include postural, drainage, chest, percussion, and vibration, and breathing retraining

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125
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

A disease of the airway is defined as the presence of cough and sputum production, for at least a combined total of three months in each of the two consecutive years

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126
Q

Chronic obstructive, pulmonary disease, COPD

A

Disease state characterized by airflow, limitation, that is not fully reversible; sometimes referred to as chronic airway obstruction or chronic obstructive lung disease

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127
Q

Desaturate

A

A precipitous drop in the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen

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128
Q

Dry powder, inhaler dpi

A

A compact, portable, inspiratory flow driven inhaler that delivers dry powder medication’s into the patient’s lungs

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129
Q

Emphysema

A

A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of over distended alveoli

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130
Q

Flutter valve

A

Portable, handheld mucus clearance device, consisting of a tube with an osculating steel ball inside; upon expiration high frequency, escalations, facilitate mucous expectoration 

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131
Q

Fraction of inspired oxygen, FiO2

A

Concentration of oxygen delivered

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132
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Decrease in arterial oxygen tension in the blood

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133
Q

Hypoxia

A

Decrease in oxygen supply to the tissues and cells

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134
Q

Polycythemia

A

Increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood; in COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen, carrying capacity by producing increasing amounts of red blood cells

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135
Q

Postural drainage

A

Positioning the patient to allow drainage from all lobes of the lungs and airways

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136
Q

Pressurized metered dose inhaler PMDI

A

A compact, portable patient activated, pressurized Medication canister that provides aerosolized medication that the patient inhales into the lungs

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137
Q

Small volume nebulizer, SVN

A

A handheld generator driven medication delivery system that provides aerosolized liquid medication that the patient inhales into the lungs

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138
Q

Spirometry

A

Pulmonary function test that measures specific lung volumes, and rates may be measured before and after bronchodilator administration

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139
Q

Vibration 

A

A type of massage given by quickly, tapping the chest with fingertips, or alternating the fingers in a rhythmic manner, or by using a mechanical device to assist and mobilizing lung secretions

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140
Q

Acute coronary syndrome

A

A constellation of signs and symptoms due to the rupture of atherosclerotic , plaque and result in partial or complete thrombosis within a diseased Coronary artery

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141
Q

Afterload

A

The amount of resistance to ejection of blood from the ventricle

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142
Q

Apical impulse

A

Impulse normally palpated, at the fifth intercostal space, left ventricular line; caused by contraction of the left ventricle; also known as point of maximal impulse

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143
Q

Atrial ventricular node, AV

A

Secondary pacemaker of the heart, located in the right, atrial wall near the tricuspid valve

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144
Q

Baroreceptors

A

Nerve fibers located in the aortic arch and Carotid arteries that are responsible for control of blood pressure

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145
Q

Cardiac catheterization

A

An invasive procedure used to measure cardiac chamber pressures, and assess patency of the coronary arteries

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146
Q

Cardiac conduction system

A

Specialized heart cells strategically located throughout the heart that are responsible for methodically generating and coordinating the transmission of electrical impulses to the myocardial cells

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147
Q

Cardiac output

A

Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in liters per minute

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148
Q

Cardiac stress test

A

A test used to evaluate the functioning of the heart during a period of increased oxygen demand; test may be initiated by exercise or medication’s.

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149
Q

Contractility 

A

Ability of the cardiac muscle to shorten in response to an electrical impulse

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150
Q

Depolarization

A

Electrical activation of a cell caused by the influx of sodium into the cell wall while Potassium exits the cell.

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151
Q

Diastole 

A

Period of ventricular relaxation resulting in ventricular filling.

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152
Q

Ejection fraction

A

Percentage of the end, diastolic blood volume ejected from the ventricle with each heartbeat

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153
Q

Hemodynamic monitoring

A

The use of pressure monitoring devices to directly measure cardiovascular function

154
Q

Hypertension

A

Blood pressure that is persistently greater than 130/80

155
Q

Hypotension

A

A decrease in blood pressure to less than 90/60 that compromises systematic perfusion

156
Q

Murmurs

A

Sounds created by abnormal, turbulent flow of blood in the heart

157
Q

Myocardial ischemia

A

Condition in which heart muscle cells receive less oxygen than needed

158
Q

Myocardium

A

Muscle layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action of the heart

159
Q

Normal heart sounds

A

Sounds produced when the valves close; normal heart sounds are S1 atrioventricular valves, and S2 semilunar valves

160
Q

Opening snaps

A

Abnormal diastolic sounds generated during opening of Rigid atrioventricular valve leaflets

161
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

A significant drop in blood pressure (20 systolic or more than 10 diastolic or more ), After an upright posture is assumed 

162
Q

Preload

A

Degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle fibers at the end of Diastole 

163
Q

Pulmonary vascular resistance

A

Resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, created by the pulmonary circulatory system

164
Q

Pulse deficit

A

The difference between the apical and radial pulse rates

165
Q

Radio isotopes

A

Unstable atoms that give a small amount of energy in the form of gamma rays as they DK; used in cardiac nuclear medicine, studies

166
Q

Repolarization

A

Return of the cell to the resting state, caused by reentry of potassium into the cell wall, sodium exits, the cell

167
Q

S1

A

The first heart sound produced by closure of the atrialventricular (Mitral and tricuspid ) Valves 

168
Q

S2

A

The second heart sound produced by closure of the semi lunar (aortic and polemic) Valves 

169
Q

S3

A

An abnormal heart sound detected early and diastole as resistance is met to blood entering, either ventricle; most often due to volume overload associated with heart failure

170
Q

S4

A

An abnormal heart sound detected late and diastole as resistance is Met to blood entering either ventricle during atrial contraction; most often caused by hyper trophy of the ventricle

171
Q

Sino atrial node SA

A

Primary pacemaker of the heart, located in the right atrium

172
Q

Stroke, volume

A

Amount of blood ejected from one of the ventricles per heartbeat

173
Q

Summation gallop

A

Abnormal sounds created by the presence of an S3 and S4 during periods of tachycardia

174
Q

Systemic, vascular resistance

A

Resistance to blood flow out of the left ventricle, created by the systemic circulatory system

175
Q

Systole

A

Period of ventricular contraction resulting in ejection of blood from the ventricles into the pulmonary artery and aorta

176
Q

Systolic click

A

Abnormal systolic sound created by the opening of a calcified, aortic or pulmonic valve during ventricular contraction

177
Q

Telemetry 

A

The process of continuous electrocardiographic monitoring by the transmission of radio waves from a battery operated transmitter worn by the patient

178
Q

Ablation

A

Purposeful destruction of heart muscle cells, usually in an attempt to correct or eliminate an arrhythmia

179
Q

Arrhythmia

A

Disorder of the formation or conduction, or both of the electrical impulse within the heart, altering the heart rate, rhythm, or both, and potentially causing, altered blood flow; also referred to as dysrhythmia

180
Q

Artifact

A

Distorted, irrelevant, and extraneous electrocardiographic waveforms

181
Q

Automaticity

A

Ability of the cardiac cells to initiate an electrical impulse

182
Q

Cardiac re-synchronization therapy CRT

A

Biventricular pacing used to correct interventricular, intra-ventricular, and atrioventricular conduction disturbances that occur in patients with heart failure

183
Q

Cardioversion

A

Electrical current given in synchrony with patients on QRS complex to stop an arrhythmia

184
Q

Chronotrophy

A

Rate of impulse formation

185
Q

Conduction

A

 Conduction transmission of electrical impulses from one cell to another

186
Q

Defibrillation

A

Electrical current given to stop an arrhythmia, not synchronized with the patient QRS complex

187
Q

Depolarization

A

Process by which cardiac muscle cells change from a more negatively charged to a more positively charged intracellular, State 

188
Q

Dromotropy

A

Conduction velocity

189
Q

Electrocardiogram ECG

A

A record of a test, that graphically measures the electrical activity of the heart, including each phase of the cardiac cycle

190
Q

Implantable cardioverter Defibrillator ICD

A

A device implanted into the chest wall to treat arrhythmias

191
Q

Inotropy

A

Force of myocardial contraction

192
Q

P-wave

A

The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse through the atrium; atrial depolarization

193
Q

Paroxysmal

A

Arrhythmia that has a sudden onset and terminate spontaneously; usually of short duration, but may reoccur

194
Q

PP interval

A

The duration between the beginning of one P wave and the beginning of the next P wave; used to calculate atrial rate and rhythm

195
Q

PR interval

A

The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse from the Sino atrial node through the atrial ventricular node

196
Q

QRS complex

A

The part of an ECG, that reflects conduction of an electrical impulse through the ventricles; ventricular depolarization

197
Q

QT interval

A

Apart of an ECG, that reflects the time from ventricular depolarization through repolarization

198
Q

Repolarization

A

Process by which cardiac muscle cells return to a more negatively charged intracellular conduction, they’re resting state

199
Q

RR intervals

A

The duration between the beginning of one QRS complex, in the beginning of the next QRS complex; used to calculate, ventricular, rhythm, and rate

200
Q

Sinus rhythm

A

Electrical activity of the heart initiated by the Sino atrial node

201
Q

ST segment

A

The part of an ECG that reflects the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave

202
Q

TP. Interval

A

The part of an ECG that reflects the time between the end of the T wave in the beginning of the next P-wave semicolon used to identify the isoelectric line

203
Q

U wave

A

The part of an ECG that may reflect for purkinje fibers repolarization; usually, it is not seen unless the patient’s serum potassium level is low

204
Q

Alveoli

A

The respiratory sac, the smallest unit of the lungs were gas exchange occurs

205
Q

Asthma

A

Disorder characterized by recurrent and reversible episodes of bronchospasm; i.e. bronchial, muscle spasms, leading to narrow or obstructed airways

206
Q

Atelectasis 

A

Collapse of once expanded alveoli

207
Q

Bronchial tree

A

The conducting airways leading into the alveoli; they branch, smaller, and smaller, appearing much like a tree

208
Q

Chronic obstructive, pulmonary disease, COPD Chronic condition that occurs over time; often the result of chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and/or refractory asthma; obstruction is not fully reversible

A

Chronic obstructive, pulmonary disease, COPD Chronic condition that occurs over time; often the result of chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and/or refractory asthma; obstruction is not fully reversible

209
Q

Cilia

A

Microscopic, hair-like projections of the epithelial cell membrane, lining the upper respiratory tract, which are constantly moving and directing the mucus and any trapped substance toward the throat

210
Q

Common cold

A

Viral infection of the upper respiratory tract that initiates the release of histamine and prostaglandins and causes an inflammatory response

211
Q

Cough

A

 Reflexive response to irritation in the conducting airways, results, and expelling a forced air through the mouth

212
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

Hereditary disease, that results in the accumulation of copious amounts of thick secretions in the lungs, which will eventually lead to obstruction of the airways and destruction of the lung tissue

213
Q

Larynx 

A

The vocal cords, and the epiglottis, which closes, during swallowing to protect the lower respiratory tract from any foreign particles

214
Q

Lower respiratory tract

A

The bronchi, and the alveoli that make up the lungs; the area where gas exchange takes place

215
Q

Pharynx

A

The membrane lined cavity that is behind the mouth and nose, and before the esophagus and larynx 

216
Q

Pneumonia

A

Inflammation of the lungs that can be caused by bacterial or viral invasion of the tissue or by aspiration of foreign substances

217
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Air in the plural space, exerting high pressure against the alveoli

218
Q

Respiration

A

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the alveoli and capillary

219
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome, RDS

A

Disorder found in premature neonate. Whose lungs have not had time to mature, and who are lacking sufficient surfactant to maintain open airway, to allow for respiration.

220
Q

Respiratory membrane

A

Area through which gas exchange must be made; made up of the capillary endothelium, the capillary, basement membrane, the interstitial space, the alveolar, basement membrane, the alveolar, endothelium, and the surfactant layer

221
Q

Seasonal rhinitis

A

Inflammation of the nasal cavity, commonly called hayfever; caused by reaction to a specific antigen

222
Q

Sinuses

A

Air filled passages through the skull that open into the nasal passage

223
Q

Sinusitis 

A

Inflammation of the epithelial lining of the sinus cavities

224
Q

Sneeze

A

Reflex response to irritation to receptors in the nares, resulting in expelling a forced air through the nose

225
Q

Surfactant

A

Lipo proteins that reduces surface tension in the alveoli, allowing them to stay open to allow gas exchange

226
Q

Trachea

A

The main conducting airway leading into the lungs

227
Q

Upper respiratory tract

A

The nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, and trachea. The conducting airways were no gas exchange occurs.

228
Q

Ventilation

A

The movement of gases in and out of the lungs

229
Q

Bronchodilator

A

Medication used to facilitate respirations by dilating the airways; helpful in symptomatic relief or prevention of bronchial asthma, and bronchospasm associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

230
Q

Cheyne-Stokes, respiration

A

Abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by apneic periods Followed by periods of tachypnea ; may reflect delayed blood flow through the brain.

231
Q

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

A

Drugs at selectively and competitively blocker antagonize receptors for the production of leukotrienes, D4 and E for, components of slow, reacting, substances of anaphylaxis, SRSA

232
Q

Mast cell stabilizer

A

Drug that worked at the cellular level to inhibit the release of histamine (Released from mast cells in response to inflammation or irritation ) And the release of slow acting substances of anaphylaxis SRSA

233
Q

Sympathomimetics

A

Drugs that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

234
Q

Xanthines

A

Naturally occurring substances, including caffeine and Theophylline , that have a direct effect on the smooth muscle of the respiratory tract, both in the bronchi, and in the blood vessels

235
Q

Acute coronary syndrome, ACS

A

Signs and symptoms that indicate unstable angina or acute myocardial infraction

236
Q

Angina pectoris

A

Chest pain brought about by Myocardial ischemia

237
Q

Arheroma

A

Fibrous cap, composed of smooth muscle cells that forms over lipid deposits within arterial, vesicles, and protrudes into the lumen of the vessel, narrowing the lumen and obstructing bloodflow; also called plaque

238
Q

Arthrosclerosis

A

Abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits, and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and the lumen

239
Q

Contractility

A

Ability of the cardiac muscle to shorten in response to an electrical impulse

240
Q

Coronary artery bypass graft, CABG

A

A surgical procedure in which a blood vessel, from another part of the body is grafted onto the included coronary artery below the inclusion in such a way that blood flow bypasses the blockage

241
Q

High density lipoprotein HDL

A

A protein-bound, lipid that transports cholesterol to the liver for excretion in the bile; composed of a higher proportion of proteins or lipids than low density lipoprotein; exerts a beneficial effect on the arterial wall

242
Q

Ischemia

A

Insufficient tissue oxygenation

243
Q

Low density lipoprotein LDL

A

A protein bound, lipid that transports cholesterol to tissues in the body; composed of a lower proportion of proteins, lipids, than high density lipoprotein exerts a harmful effect on the arterial wall

244
Q

Metabolic syndrome

A

A cluster of metabolic abnormalities, including insulin resistance, obesity, dyslipidemia, and hypertension that increase the risk of cardiovascular disease

245
Q

Myocardial infarction MI

A

Death of heart tissue caused by lack of oxygenated blood

246
Q

Percutaneous, coronary intervention Angioplasty PTCA

A

A type of percutaneous coronary intervention in which a balloon is inflated with an a coronary artery to break an atheroma and open the vessel lumen, improving coronary artery bloodflow

247
Q

Percutaneous, coronary intervention, PCI

A

A procedure in which a catheter was placed in a coronary artery, and one of several methods employed to reduce blockage within the artery

248
Q

Stent

A

A metal mesh that provide structural support to a coronary vessel, preventing its closure

249
Q

Sudden, cardiac death

A

Abrupt cessation of effective heart activity

250
Q

Thrombolytic

A

An agent that breaks down blood clots, alternatively, referred to as a fibrinolytic

251
Q

Troponin

A

A cardiac muscle biomarker; measurement is used as an indicator of heart muscle injury

252
Q

A fibers

A

Large diameter, nerve fibers that carry peripheral impulses associated with touch and temperature to the spinal cord

253
Q

A delta fibers

A

Small diameter, nerve fibers that carry peripheral impulses associated with pain to the spinal cord

254
Q

C fibers

A

Unmyelinated, slow conducting fibers that carry peripheral impulses associated with pain to the spinal cord

255
Q

Ergot derivative

A

Drug that causes a vascular constriction in the brain and the periphery; relieves, or prevent migraines headaches, but is associated with many adverse effects

256
Q

Gate control theory

A

Theory that states that the transmission of a nerve impulse can be modulated at various points along its path by descending fibers from the brain that close the gate and block transmission of pain information, and by A fibers that are able to block transmission in the dorsal horn by closing the gate for the transmission for the A Delta and C fibers

257
Q

Migraine, headache

A

Headache, characterized by severe, unilateral, pulsating head, pain associated with systemic effects, including gastrointestinal, upset, and sensitization to light and sound; related to hyper perfusion of the brain from arterial dilation

258
Q

Opioids

A

Drugs originally derived from opium that react with specific opioid receptors throughout the body

259
Q

Opioid Agonist 

A

Drugs that reacted opioid receptor sites to stimulate the effects of the receptor

260
Q

Opioid agonist antagonist

A

Drugs that reacted, some opioid receptor sites to simulate their activity, and it other opioid receptor sites to block activity

261
Q

Opioid antagonist

A

Drugs that block, the opioid receptor sites; used to counteract. The effects of opioids or to treat an overdose of opioid.

262
Q

Opioid receptors

A

Receptor sites on nerves that react with endorphins, and enkephalins , which are receptive to opioid drugs

263
Q

Pain

A

A sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

264
Q

Spinothalamic tract

A

Nerve pathway from the spine to the thalamus, along which pain impulses are carried to the brain

265
Q

Triptan

A

Selective serotonin, receptor blocker that causes a vascular constriction of cranial vessels; used to treat acute migraine attacks

266
Q

Antihistamines

A

Drugs that block, the release or action of histamine, a chemical released during inflammation that increases secretions and Narrows airways

267
Q

Antitussives

A

Drugs that block the cough reflux

268
Q

Decongestant

A

Drugs that decrease the blood flow to the upper respiratory tract, and decrease the overproduction of secretions

269
Q

Expectorants

A

Drugs that increase productive, cough to clear the airways

270
Q

Mucolytics

A

Drugs that increase or liquefy respiratory secretions to aid the clearing of the airways

271
Q

Rebound congestion

A

A process that occurs when the nasal passages become congested as the effect of decongestant drug wears off; patients tend to use more drug to decrease the congestion, and a vicious circle of congestion, drugs, and congestion develops, leading to the abuse of decongestant; also called Rhinitis medicamentosa

272
Q

Apnea

A

Temporary cessation of breathing

273
Q

Broncophony

A

Abnormal increase in clarity of transmitted, voice sounds heard when osculating the lungs

274
Q

Bronchoscopy

A

Direct examination of the larynx, trachea and bronchi using an endoscope 

275
Q

Cilia

A

Short fine hair that provide a constant whipping motion that serves to propel mucus and foreign substances away from the lung toward the larynx

276
Q

Compliance

A

Measure of the force required to expand or inflate the lungs

277
Q

Crackles

A

Non-musical discontinuous popping sounds during inspiration caused by delayed reopening of the airways heard on chest auscultation

278
Q

Dyspnea 

A

Subjective experience that describes an uncomfortable or painful, breathing sensation when either at rest, or while walking or climbing stairs; also commonly referred to a shortness of breath

279
Q

Egophony

A

Abnormal change in tone of voice that is heard when osculating the lungs

280
Q

Fremitus

A

Vibrations of speech felt as tremors of the chest wall during palpation

281
Q

Hemoptysis 

A

Expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract

282
Q

Hypoxemia 

A

Decrease in arterial oxygen tension in the blood

283
Q

Hypoxia

A

Decrease in oxygen supply to the tissues and cells

284
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea

A

Temporary absence of breathing during sleep, secondary to transient upper airway obstruction

285
Q

Orthopnea

A

Shortness of breath, when lying flat; relieved by sitting or standing

286
Q

Oxygen saturation

A

Percentage of hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen

287
Q

Physiologic dead space

A

Portion of the tracheobronchial tree that does not participate in gas exchange

288
Q

Pulmonary diffusion

A

Exchange of gas molecules from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

289
Q

Pulmonary perfusion

A

Blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature

290
Q

Respiration

A

Gas exchange between atmospheric air, and the blood, and between the blood and cells of the body

291
Q

Rhonchi

A

Deep low pitch snoring sound associated with partial airway obstruction heard on chest auscultation

292
Q

Strider

A

Continuous, high-pitched, musical sound heard on inspiration. Best heard over the neck may be heard without use of a stethoscope secondary to upper airway obstruction.

293
Q

Tachypnea

A

Abnormally, rapid, respirations

294
Q

Tidal volume

A

Volume of air inspired an expired with each breath during normal breathing

295
Q

Ventilation

A

Movement of air in and out of the airways

296
Q

Wheezes

A

Continuous musical sounds associated with airway narrowing or partial obstruction

297
Q

Whispered pectoriloquy

A

Whispered sounds, heard loudly, and clearly upon thoracic auscultation 

298
Q

Alaryngel Communication

A

Alternative motive, speaking that do not involve the normal larynx ; used by patients whose larynx has been surgically removed

299
Q

Aphonia

A

Impaired ability to use one’s voice due to disease or injury to the larynx 

300
Q

Apnea

A

Cessation of breathing

301
Q

Dysphasia

A

Difficulty swallowing

302
Q

Epistaxis

A

How much from the nose due to a rupture of tiny, distended vessels, and the mucus membrane of any area of the nose

303
Q

Herpes simplex

A

A cutaneous, viral infection with painful vesicles and erosions on the tongue, palette gingiva buccal membranes or lips; cold sore

304
Q

Laryngectomy

A

Surgical, removal of all, or part of the larynx and surrounding structures

305
Q

Laryngitis

A

Inflammation of the larynx; may be caused by voice abuse exposure to irritants or infectious organisms

306
Q

Nuchal rigidity

A

Stiffness of the neck or inability to bend the neck

307
Q

Pharyngitis 

A

Inflammation of the throat

308
Q

Rhinitis

A

Inflammation of the mucous membranes of the nose

309
Q

Rhinitis Medicamentosa 

A

Rebound nasal congestion, commonly associated with overuse of over-the-counter nasal decongestants

310
Q

Rhinorrhea

A

Drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose

311
Q

Rhinosinusitis 

A

Inflammation of the nares and paranasal sinuses, including frontal, ethmoid, maxillary, and sphenoid sinuses; replaces the terms sinusitis

312
Q

Tonsillitis

A

Inflammation of the tonsils

313
Q

Xerostoma

A

Dryness of the mouth

314
Q

Acute lung injury

A

An umbrella term for hypoxemic respiratory failure; equivalent to mild acute respiratory distress syndrome

315
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome ARDS

A

Nonspecific pulmonary response to a variety of pulmonary and non-pulmonary insults to the lungs; characterized by interstitial, infiltrates, alveolar hemorrhage, atelectasis , refractory hypoxemia, and with the exception of some patients with coronavirus disease, 2019 and a RDS decreased compliance

316
Q

Airway, pressure, release, ventilation, AP RV

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation that allows unrestricted spontaneous breath throughout the ventilatory cycle; on inspiration, the patient receives a preset level of continuous positive airway, pressure and pressure is periodically released to aid expiration

317
Q

Aspiration

A

Inhalation of either oropharyngeal or gastric contents into the lower airways

318
Q

Atelectasis 

A

Collapse or airless condition of the alveoli caused by hypoventilation obstruction to the airways or compression

319
Q

Bilevel, positive airway pressure, BIPAP

A

Noninvasive, spontaneous breath mode of mechanical ventilation that allows for separate control of the inspiratory and expiratory pressure; given via a mask

320
Q

Central cyanosis

A

Bluish discoloration of the skin, or mucous membranes, due to hemoglobin, carrying reduced amounts of oxygen

321
Q

Chest drainage system

A

The use of a chest tube and closed drainage system to re-expand the lung and to remove excess air fluid or blood

322
Q

Consolidation

A

Lung tissue that has become more solid in nature due to collapse of alveoli or infectious processes

323
Q

Continuous, mandatory ventilation, CMV

A

Referred to, as assist control, ventilation; mode of mechanical ventilation, in which the patient’s breathing pattern may trigger the ventilator to deliver a preset tidal, volume or set pressure; in the absence of spontaneous breathing machine delivers a controlled breath at a preset, minimum rate and tidal volume or set pressure

324
Q

Cor pulmonale

A

Heart of the lungs; enlargement of the right ventricle from hypertrophy, or dilation as a secondary response to disorders that affect the lungs

325
Q

Empyema 

A

Accumulation of purulent material in the pleural space

326
Q

Endotracheal intubation

A

Insertion of a breathing tube through the nose or mouth into the trachea

327
Q

Hemoptysis 

A

The coughing up of blood from the lower respiratory tract

328
Q

Hemothorax

A

Partial or complete collapse of the lung due to blood accumulating in the pleural space; may occur after surgery our trauma

329
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Decrease in oxygen tension in the arterial blood

330
Q

Hypoxia

A

Decrease in oxygen supply to the tissues and cells

331
Q

Incentive spirometry

A

Method of deep breathing that provides visual feedback to help the patient inhale deeply, and slowly and achieve maximum long inflation

332
Q

Induration

A

An abnormally heart lesion or reaction as in a positive tuberculin skin test

333
Q

Intermittent, mandatory ventilation IMV

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation that provides a combination of mechanically assisted breaths at a preset volume of pressure and rate in spontaneous brass

334
Q

Mechanical ventilator

A

A positive or negative pressure, breathing device that supports ventilation and oxygenation

335
Q

Orthopnea

A

Shortness of breath, when reclining, or in the supine position

336
Q

Pleural effusion

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

337
Q

Pleural friction rub

A

Localize grading a creaking sound, caused by the rubbing together of inflamed, parietal and visceral pleura

338
Q

Pleural space

A

The area between the parietal and visceral pleura; a potential space

339
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Partial or complete collapse of the long due to positive pressure in the pleural space

340
Q

Positive end, expiratory pressure, PEEP

A

Positive pressure maintained at the end of exhalation to increase functional residual capacity and open collapsed alveoli

341
Q

Pressure support ventilation PSV

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation, in which preset positive pressure is delivered with spontaneous breaths to decrease work of breathing

342
Q

Proportional assist ventilation PAV

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation that provides partial ventilator support in proportion to the patient’s inspiratory efforts; decreases the work of breathing

343
Q

Purulent

A

Consisting of containing or discharging pus

344
Q

Respiratory weaning

A

Process of gradual, systematic withdrawal, or removal of ventilator, breathing tube and oxygen

345
Q

Restrictive lung disease

A

Disease of the lungs that causes a decrease in lung volumes

346
Q

Synchronized Edmonton mandatory ventilation, SIMV

A

Mode of mechanical ventilation, in which the ventilator allows the patient to breathe spontaneously, while providing a preset number of breast to ensure adequate ventilation; ventilated, brass, or synchronized with spontaneous breathing

347
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

Pneumothorax characterized by increasing positive pressure in the plural space with each breath; this is an emergency situation, and the positive pressure needs to be decompressed or released immediately

348
Q

Thoracentesis

A

Insertion of a needle or catheter into the pleural space to remove fluid that has accumulated and decrease pressure on the lung tissue; may also be used diagnostically to identify potential causes of plural fusion

349
Q

Thoracotomy

A

Surgical opening into the chest cavity

350
Q

Tidal volume

A

Volume of air inspired an expired with each breath

351
Q

Tracheostomy tube

A

Indwelling tube inserted directly into the trachea to assist with ventilation 

352
Q

Tracheostomy

A

Surgical opening into the trachea

353
Q

Transbronchial

A

Through the bronchial wall as an a trans bronchial lung biopsy

354
Q

Ventilation perfusion

A

Refers to the ratio between ventilation and perfusion in the lungs; matching a ventilation to perfusion optimize gas exchange

355
Q

Air trapping

A

Incomplete emptying of alveoli during expiration due to loss of lung, tissue, elasticities, emphysema, bronchospasm, asthma, or airway obstruction

356
Q

Alpha, one antitrypsin deficiency

A

Genetic disorder resulting from deficiency of out of a one antitrypsin, a protective agent for the lungs; increases patient’s risk for developing panacinar emphysema, even in the absence of smoking

357
Q

Asthma

A

Heterogeneous disease usually characterized by chronic airway inflammation; define by a history of symptoms, such as wheezes, shortness of breath, chest tightness and cough that vary over time and an intensity

358
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Chronic irreversible dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles that results from the destruction of muscle and elastic connective tissue; dilated airways become saccular and are medium for chronic infection

359
Q

Chest percussion

A

Manually, cupping hands over the chest wall, and using vibration to mobilize secretions by mechanically dislodging, viscous, or adherent secretions in the lungs

360
Q

Chest physiotherapy

A

Therapy used to remove bronchial, secretions, improve, ventilation, and increase the Efficiency of the respiratory muscles; types include postural drainage, chest percussion, and vibration and breathing retraining

361
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

A disease of the airways defined as the presence of cough and sputum production, for at least a combined total of three months, and each of two consecutive years

362
Q

Chronic obstructive, pulmonary disease, COPD

A

The state characterized by airflow, limitation, that is not fully reversible; sometimes referred to as chronic airway obstruction or chronic obstructive lung disease

363
Q

Desaturate

A

A precipitous drop in the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen

364
Q

Dry powder inhaler

A

A compact, portable inspiratory flow driven inhaler that delivers dry powder medication’s into the patient’s lungs

365
Q

Emphysema

A

A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of over distended alveoli

366
Q

Flutter valve

A

Portable, handheld mucus clearance device, consisting of a tube with an osculating steel ball inside; upon expiration high frequency, oscillation, facilitate mucus expectations 

367
Q

Fraction of inspired oxygen

A

Concentration of oxygen delivered

368
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Decrease in arterial oxygen tension in the blood

369
Q

Hypoxia

A

Decrease in oxygen supply to the tissues and cells

370
Q

Polycythemia

A

Increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood; and COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen, carrying capacity by producing increasing amounts of red blood cells

371
Q

Postural drainage

A

Positioning the patient to allow drainage from all lobes of the lungs and airways

372
Q

Pressurized meter dose inhaler

A

A compact, portable patient activated pressurize medication container that provides aerosolized medication that the patient inhales into the lungs

373
Q

Small volume nebulizer

A

A handheld generator driven medication delivery system that provides aerosolized liquid medication that the patient inhales into the Long’s

374
Q

Spirometry

A

Pulmonary function test that measures specific lung volumes may be measured before and after bronchodilator administration

375
Q

Vibration

A

A type of massage given by quickly, tapping the chest with fingertips are alternating the fingers in a rhythmic manner or by using a mechanical device to assist in mobilizing lung secretions

376
Q

Schizophrenia symptoms

A
377
Q

Positive symptoms, excess of normal functions

A
378
Q

Schizophrenia associated features

A
379
Q

Schizophrenia, patient/family education

A
380
Q

Neurotransmitter norepinephrine

A
381
Q

Neurotransmitter dopamine

A
382
Q

Neurotransmitter serotonin

A

Nur202 Test 1 (5 decks)

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