CL605 recurrent practice Flashcards

1
Q

Emergency exit type

A

Plug-type exit, unlocked by retracting pins on the upper edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Nosewheel steering, minimum taxiway width for a 180 degree turn with 3 ft margin

A

61 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AC Pack operation is enhanced on the ground by what?

A

A bleed air ejector valve, drawing ambient air from the rear eqpt bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pack high mode operation

A

Airborne when single pack, or on the ground using APU bleed air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Disabling a DCU on the audio warning panel does what?

A

Disables and silences the related DCU aural warnings only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Failure of DCU 1 is indicated by?

A

DCU 1 INOP EICAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GPS FMS approach: what PFD annunciation must be in view before FAF?

A

GPS APPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ventilation of APU enclosure is by?

A

Spring loaded flapper door - venturi action by APU exhaust passing through muffler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What flight controls does the autopilot have trim for?

A

Horizontal stab only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The APU shuts down for which faults?

A
  • Fire
  • overspeed, underspeed
  • overtemp
  • APU oil: low oil pressure, high oil temp
  • generator adaptor oil: low oil pressure/ high oil temp
  • loss of EGT sensor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a FAIL caption in the left AUTOXFER switch light means?

A

The auto transfer control circuits failed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AC ESS XFER light indicates

A

Alternate power supply to AC essential bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pressure for OXY LO PRESS message to display?

A

System pressure to drop below 825psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cabin pressure for passenger oxy masks to deploy

A

Auto when cabin altitude exceeds 14500 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Purpose of emer setting on oxy masks

A

Provides a constant flow of positive pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LH/RH ENG FIRE PUSH switch light function

A
  • Closes the following SOVs:
  1. Fuel SOV
  2. 10th Stage SOV
  3. 14th Stage SOV
  4. Hydraulic SOV
  • Disables ignition
  • Arms squibs on both engine fire bottles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Correct response to JETPIPE OVERHEAT

A

Reduce engine power or engine shutdown if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EICAS - AILERON MON OK indicates?

A

With hydraulics shut down, all aileron PCU failure sensing devices detect low pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Flight spoiler detent mechanism does what?

A

Limits asymmetrical spoiler retraction to 20 degrees if the spoiler linkage fails

20
Q

The left PFD and MFD are electrically supplied from?

A

Left PFD - DC essentialLeft MFD - Battery Bus

21
Q

What source sensor drives the low speed cue on both PFDs?

A

Auxillary AOA vane

22
Q

During refuelling, Main and Aux fuel tanks and protected from overpressure by?

A

Tank relief valves on underside of wing and aux tank

23
Q

Max fuel quantity with gravity refuelling?

A

93% Mains and Aux only

24
Q

GEN 2 fails in flight. Which hydraulic pump is auto-inhibited?

A

1B

25
Q

What indicates hydraulic filter clogging?

A

Red differential pressure indicator protruding from filter housing (rear equipment bay)

26
Q

Wing anti-ice shut-off valves description

A

Electrically controlled, pneumatically operated, failsafe closed

27
Q

Wing anti-ice standby mode description

A

Heating of each wing is independently controlled by its onside standby thermal switch

28
Q

Gear down locking is by?

A

Internal locking mechanisms within the main gear actuators.

29
Q

Anti skid is functional down to what speed?

A

10 knots

30
Q

If both PASS SIGNS are selected to auto:

A

The SEAT BELTS sign illuminates when flaps are extended.Both SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING signs illuminate when the gear is extended.Both signs illuminate when cabin alt exceeds 10,000 ft

31
Q

With EMER LTS selected to ARM, emer lights activate automatically if power is lost on which bus(es)?

A

Either AC essential busorDC essential bus

32
Q

IRS alignment (605)

A

Automatic on power-up using a GPS input

33
Q

How are simultaneous HF transmissions prevented?

A

When one HF radio transmits, the associated antenna coupler inhibits the opposite HF radio from transmitting.

34
Q

How is the aural alert “Too Low Flaps” inhibited

A

605: By pressing the guarded FLAPS switch switch light on the TAWS WARNING panel.
604: By lifting the guard and switching it off (by the flaps lever)

35
Q

What does the MFD TUNE INHIBIT button do?

A

Both MFDs are inhibited from tuning the radios

36
Q

During cold weather ops, the max depth of contaminants for take off is?

A
  1. Standing water or slush >6.4mm (0.25”)2. Wet snow >12.7mm (0.5”)3. Dry snow >30.5mm (1.20”)
37
Q

10th stage bleed air duct manifold leaks are detected by?

A

Dual loops (A and B) for the left and right manifolds

38
Q

ANTI-ICE DUCT EICAS message is shown for?

A

14th stage bleed-air duct leaks in the wing anti-icing lines or failure of either piccolo tubes in the wing leading edges

39
Q

Selecting a thrust lever to SHUT OFF does what mechanically?

A

Shuts off the fuel supply to the engine at the FCU

40
Q

Pushing an EMER STOW switch light does what?

A

Directs 14th stage bleed air to the PDU to stow the unlocked reverser

41
Q

APU Hung start definition

A

RPM doesn’t reach 30% within 1 minute

42
Q

Minimum oil pressure for take-off?

A

45 psi

43
Q

Maximum altitude for attempting an engine start

A

21,000 ft (why specifically 21,000? No idea! Test pilots, I guess)

44
Q

Minimum altitudes for autopilot operation?

A

Precision approach: 80 ft (glideslope 3.5 degrees or less)Precision approach: 160 ft (Steep approaches 3.6-4.49 degrees)Non precision approach: 320 ft (same as on take-off)

45
Q

Max alt for flap extension?

A

15,500 ft