Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Challenger CL604/605 renamed > Checkride > Flashcards

Checkride Flashcards

1
Q

Cabin Inspection

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Door Operation

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

EMER Equipment

A

a. FIRE EXTINGUISHER
b. CRASH AXE
c. LIFE VESTS
d. O2 Masks
e. SMOKE GOGGLES
f. O2 WALKAROUND Bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the wingspan of the CL-604?

A

64 ft 4 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many occupants can the CL-604 Carry?

A

19 PAX + 3 CREW (22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is the avionics bay located?

A

Under the floor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can the cargo bay door be opened from inside, outside or both?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is the aft equipment bay pressurized

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Overwing emergency exit can be opened from both inside & outside?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to the eye-locators balls, when are you sitting in the right position in the seat?

A

White ball is in the center of the orange ball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Minimum taxi strip width required for a 180-Deree turn?

A

61 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What cabin altitude triggers the amber “CABIN PRESS” EICAS message?

A

8500 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does the flight compartment exhaust air get routed?

A

Under floor area and the avionics bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does the temperature controller operate in normal mode?

A

Input from fan sensor, temp selector & duct sensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the distribution of conditioned air from the packs?

A

Left Pack: 60% Cockpit / 40% Cabin

Right Pack: 1005 Cabin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is the pressure normally controlled inside the aircraft?

A

Automatically by the cabin pressure controller (CPC).

Electrically controls the outflow valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Does a CPAM FAIL indicate a loss of automatic pressure control?

What have you lost?

A

No.

Auto mode for the SEAT BELT and NO SMOKING Signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where do the Air Conditioning Packs get their cooling air?

A

RAM Air Intake at bottom of vertical tail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When will the packs automatically go to high mode in flight?

A

Overpressure or Overtemperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is set on the CABIN PRESSURE CONTROLLER with the “A” KNOB?

A

Landing Airfield elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you have to return to the departure field after takeoff, is it necessary to reset the “A” KNKOB?

A

No. The CPC “remembers” the takeoff field elevation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which messages on the EICAS can be cleared from view? How?

A

605 is all but warnings with CAS key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens when ED1 Fails?

A

Immediately moves over to ED2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the five items that can cause a T / O CONFIG warning?

A 
B - Brakes
F - FLAPS
A - AUTOPILOT
S - SPOILERS
T - TRIM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are caution messages displayed on the EICAS?

A

Top down: Warning, Caution, Advisory, Status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When are Caution messages inhibited.

A

During Take-off with thrust >79% and > 80 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Can advisory messages ever be hidden?

A

Yes. With CAS, and during TO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the primary purpose of the altitude pre-selector?

A

Command the aircraft to capture and maintain an altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What happens when you press the XFR button on the FCP?

A

Couples the autopilot and flight director to the right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If you press the XFR button, what should you also change?

A

ATC SEL to 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When your press the “SYNC” button do you disconnect the autopilot?

A

No (you just release the autopilot servo clutches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What happens if you engage A/P without first selecting a lateral and vertical mode?

A

A/P engages in pitch and roll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does changing the “AFCS SEL” switch from 1 to 2 change the FD?

A

No. You get the same FD but the back-up FCC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many flight control surfaces does the autopilot trim?

A

One (Horizontal Stab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How many IRS sources are needed to engage the A/P?

A

Two (independent heading sources)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What happens when you push in the PWR / FUEL button

A

Starts APU fuel pump
Opens FUEL SOV & Neg G SOV
Displays APU RPM & EGT on EICAS Status page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do we determine if the APU start sequence has hung up?

A

20 seconds to 60% (-100)

60 sec to 30% (-150)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When will the green “AVAIL” light come on?

A

95% + 4 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Except for fire, how do you determine why the APU Auto-SHUTDOWN?

A

APU trip indicators on the APU Fault Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why do we wait 5 seconds to push the APU Fire Bottle?

A

To give the flapper valve on the apu enclosure time to close.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the function of the “R/T” - “I/C switch?

A

Cold or hot mike respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How would you select 8.33 KHZ spacing on the COMM radios?

A

Double tap active comm line select key (L-1)
Select R-2 to toggle to 8.33
Select L-4 to return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Could you find the frequency of a VOR if you only knew the ident?

A

Yes, type the ident into the “tune” page on the CDU and press the VOR 1 or 2 line select key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you “Squawk Ident”

A

Ident Key on the RTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do you tune the other radio from your own RTU?

A

Yes, use the 1/2 key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Can you hold another DME frequency without change the active?

A

Yes, use the 1/2 key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Can you “HOLD” another DME frequency without changing the active?

A

Yes; Select “DME H”; Double TAP L-2,; select l-2 again (To “Box” DME); Tune desired freq; select “return” (L-4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the Five Sources of AC Power for the Cll-604?

A

Gen 1&2, APU Gen, ADG, Ext Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the AC power priority for the main AC busses (1 & 2) on the ground with all AC Power Sources available?

A

On-side, apu, cross-side, external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When will the ADG deploy automatically?

A

The ADG will deploy immediately if there is a loss of both generators in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The ADG supplies AC power to

A

3B hydraulic pump and AC ESS Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The sources of 28 VDC power are

A

4 TRU’s, 2 Batteries and External Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the purpose of the main bus tie switch

A

Will allow both DC Busses to be powered by a single TRU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Is there an eicas message for a TRU failure?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which bus is powered when the Battery Master switch is turned on?

A

Battery Bus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do you look for during the firex monitor test

A

6X “Squib OK”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the normal pressure of the engine and apu fire bottles

A

600-625 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does pushing a “FIRE PUSH” switchlight arm?

A

The FIREX bottles

59
Q

Which electrical bus powers the fire protection equipment?

A 
DC Emergency (extinguishing)
DC Battery (DETECTION)
60
Q

What does the “ENG SOV” mean if you pushed the engine fire push switch?

A

The engine fuel SOV failed to close

61
Q

What does “BOTTLE LOW” mean after you push (“push to DISCH” switch?

A

Bottle has emptied.

62
Q

Can the fire detection system discriminate between a fire and a short circuit

A

Yes

63
Q

What is the immediate action response to a “MLG BAY OVHT” warning?

A

Airspeed 197 kts; LDG GEAR LEVER DN

64
Q

Which hydraulic systems operates the ground spoilers

A

The no. 1 system

65
Q

ON which side is the aileron autopilot servo located?

A

Right side (same side as the “Pull and Turn” handle)

66
Q

When does the auto-ignition come on during the stall sequence?

A

When the needle on the SPS test guage enters the blue area

67
Q

How is an aileron PCU Jam Depicted on the Flt CTL synoptic page?

A

A “half-moon” symbol on the affected aileron

68
Q

What is the purpose of the flight spoiler detent mechanism?

A

To ensure a maxiumum “Split” of 20 degress between sides.

69
Q

What is the significance of a “Flap Motor Overheat” status message?

A

Flaps will move at half speed

70
Q

Which stab trim channel is powered during emer pwr only

A

2 Channel

71
Q

Which busses power stab trim channel #2?

A

AC (HSTCA) & DC (HSTCU) Essential Busses

72
Q

What is the source for the low speed cue?

A

Aux AOA Vane

73
Q

What color displays pilot selected data on the flight instruments?

A

Magenta

74
Q

How can the takeoff reference page be displayed?

A

Selecting the “MFD DATA” key on the CDU

75
Q

How can the takeoff reference page be displayed?

A

Selecting the “MFD DATA” Key on the CDU

76
Q

How does the EFIS Display a failed source (E.G. Altitude)?

A

The failed information is removed and replaced by a red flag.

77
Q

What is the static source for the standby instruments?

A

The S3 Ports (Below the pilot’s windows)

78
Q

What is the DCP?

Name one thing it controls.

A

Display Control Panel

BRG Pointers; TERR/WX/TFC overlays; MFD FRMT / RNG; NAV SRC

79
Q

How do you change the baro-setting scale from IN HG to HPA

A

HPA / IN TILE on ADRP

80
Q

What does the airspeed trend vector indicate?

A

What the airspeed will be in 10 Sec at present acceleration

81
Q

What fuel system information is displayed on EICAS?

A

Total and individual fuel tank quantities
Engine and bulk fuel temperature
Fuel Flow per Engine

82
Q

Which Fuel Tanks Directly Feed the engines

A

Collector Tanks

83
Q

What is the purpose of the 2 Electric Boost Pumps?

A

Back up the two main Ejector Pumps

84
Q

What is the maximum fuel quantity in each of the tank systems

A

Each wing 4860
Aux: 7168
Tail: 3112

85
Q

What is the sequence of fuel transfer in flight

A

Mains to 93%
Aux to mains
Tail to AUX

86
Q

What does an “AUTO TAIL XFER INHIBIT” EICAS Caution Message indicate?

A

Rotor Burst Protection cylinder nitrogen pressure low

Automatic fuel transfer has been disabled.

87
Q

Can the tail tank be refueled by gravity

A

No

88
Q

From which tanks can fuel be dumped?

A

Tail Tank System Only

89
Q

How many Hydraulic Pumps are there on the Challenger?

A

6

90
Q

What is the normal IRS align time?

A

7 Minutes

91
Q

Will the IRS Align if the present position is not entered?

A

No

92
Q

What does an amber return indicate on the weather radar display?

A

Moderate Precipitation

93
Q

What color is a TA (Traffic Alert) TCAS Traffic symbol?

A

Yellow

94
Q

What is the naviagional accuracy with “GPS ApPR” indicated?

A

0.3 NM

95
Q

What is the purpose of the CRS Knob on the FCP?

A

Manually set VOR or LOC Course

96
Q

How does the EGPWS differentiate between increasing and decreasing performance windshears?

A 
Increasing = Amber
Decreasing = Red
97
Q

What does “LOC WILL BE TUNED Mean?

A

LOC will be auto-tuned within 30 NM of Airport; and

VOR Tune is in MAN MODE

98
Q

What is 145h stage bleed air used for?

A

Wing and Cowl Anti-Ice

Thrust Reversers

99
Q

What is the Fail-Safe position of the 14th Stage SOV’s

A

Open

100
Q

What is the purpose of the ApU LCV Interlock?

A

Protect the APU

101
Q

When is the interlock activated?

A

APU LCV Open and
Left 10th Switch/Light is pushed in, or
APU LCV Open and Right 10th is pushed in with ISOL Valve Open

102
Q

Where is the 10th stage bleed pressure indicated?

A

604 ED2

605 Summary Page

103
Q

What is the minimum air pressure needed from an external air cart?

A

45 psi

104
Q

Engine fails to start on IGN A, is there MEL relief? What powers IGN B?

A

Yes. Both engines must start on IGN B.

Battery Bus.

105
Q

Which valves open when the left engine start switch is pressed in?

A

L & R Engine SOV’s; 10th Stage Izszol Valve & L Start Valve

106
Q

At power setting below 79% N1, is engine in N1 or N2 speed control?

A

N2 Control.

107
Q

How much does the APR system command following an engine failure?

A

2%

108
Q

What does the reverser unlock EICAS message indicate?

A

Reverser has moved more than 1 1/4” out of stowed position

109
Q

How is an abnormal N2 Vibration indicated?

A

Amber VIB ICON in N2 Gauge

110
Q

What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?

A

15th Stage Bleed Air

111
Q

What is the maximum difference in N2 between the two engines at idel?

A

2%

112
Q

Is it possible to program an arc around a fix or navaid in the FMS?

A

No

113
Q

What (three things) do you need to fly a GPS approach using VGP?

A

RWY on the Legs Page; APPR; VNAV

114
Q

What order of priority does the FMS use the available NAV sensors?

A

GPS; DME-DME / VOR-DME; IRS

115
Q

On a LOC Only Approach, why do we first select “APPR” then “NAV”?

A

“APPR” Enables Nav to Nav transfer

“NAV” prevents GS Capture

116
Q

What will the FMS prompt during a “HOLD TO” course reversal

A

Cancel Exit

117
Q

Where must the altitude pre-selector be to enable a VNAV descent?

A

Below the current aircraft altitude

118
Q

Where must the altitude pre selector be on a visual approach?

A

Field Elevation

119
Q

How can you incercept the 200 deg. R of the IGN VOR and track it inbound using the FMS?

A

Select DIR; type “IGN” in the scratch pad; Line Select

120
Q

With B pumps switches in auto, when will the pumps operate?

A

Flaps not at zero

121
Q

If the left engine fails, can you restore No. 1 HYD System Pressure?

A

Turn 1B pump on

122
Q

Which Hydraulic systems power the left aileron and elevator?

A

1 and #3 Systems

123
Q

What is the nominal pressure for each of the hydraulic systems?

A

3000psi

124
Q

Which Hydraulic System is used to retract the landing Gear

A

3

125
Q

What is the function of the priority valve on system 3?

A

To give priorit to the flight controls and inboard brakes.

126
Q

What do the L& R HEAT lights indicate

A

Sufficient heat for wing anti-ice (29 deg C)

127
Q

What changes when the WSHLD Switches are set from low to high?

A

The windshields go high; The windows remain in low.

128
Q

What happens to the wing and cowl anti ice during T/R operation?

A

Anti ice functions are inhibitied

129
Q

ADSHC Fail Safe MODE? Is there MEL relief if windshield heaters fail?

A

On

Yes, for all but the left window

130
Q

How does the wing anti ice system operate in normal mode? Standby?

A

NORM MODE: Regulates valves to maintain L.E. Temp (88 deg C)

STBY: Valves fully open or closed - Temp Varies (49 to 82 deg)

131
Q

How does the ice detector work and what is the heating cycle?

A

Ice accumulation changes the probe vibration frequency

5 seconds of heat followed by 55 seconds no heat

132
Q

WRT an ANTI ICE DUCT warning. Where are the ANTI-ICE Ducts located?

A

Aft equipment Bay; Under the CABIN; Along the wings.

133
Q

What sensor triggers a WING OVERHEAT warning?

A

Sufficient heat / overheat sensor (Endo of Wing Leading Edge)

134
Q

Where are the brake accumulators? What is minimum pressure?

A

The nose wheel well;

750 PSI

135
Q

Where is brake pressure displayed?

A

On EICAS Hydraulic synoptic page

136
Q

During manual gear lowering, what lowers the gear? What assists the gear downlocks?

A

Gravity
Nose: Downlock Springs;
Mains: #2 system downlock assist actuator.

137
Q

Will the nose doors close after a manual gear lowering?

A

No.

138
Q

What is required before the parking brake will hold?

A

Number 3 Hydraulic Pressure

139
Q

When does the anti-skid take effect on landing?

A

35 kts wheel speed or WOW

140
Q

What is the purpose of the WOW switches on the nose wheel?

A

Enable nose steering

141
Q

What is the purpose of the WING INSP switch?

A

Illuminate the wing to see if ICE is accumulating.

142
Q

Which lights do the L / R landing lights control?

A

Both the landing and the TAXI / Recognition Lights

143
Q

Is there a 10-minute limit on the Nose Landing Light?

A

No

144
Q

What do you have to do if you forget to turn off the EMER LIGHTS?

A

Restart APU; Turn on APU Gen; Turn off EMER LIGHT

Challenger CL604/605 renamed (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions