Checkride Flashcards
1
Q
Cabin Inspection
A
?
2
Q
Door Operation
A
?
3
Q
EMER Equipment
A
a. FIRE EXTINGUISHER
b. CRASH AXE
c. LIFE VESTS
d. O2 Masks
e. SMOKE GOGGLES
f. O2 WALKAROUND Bottle
4
Q
What is the wingspan of the CL-604?
A
64 ft 4 in
5
Q
How many occupants can the CL-604 Carry?
A
19 PAX + 3 CREW (22)
6
Q
Where is the avionics bay located?
A
Under the floor.
7
Q
Can the cargo bay door be opened from inside, outside or both?
A
Both
8
Q
Is the aft equipment bay pressurized
A
No
9
Q
Overwing emergency exit can be opened from both inside & outside?
A
True
10
Q
According to the eye-locators balls, when are you sitting in the right position in the seat?
A
White ball is in the center of the orange ball
11
Q
Minimum taxi strip width required for a 180-Deree turn?
A
61 ft.
12
Q
What cabin altitude triggers the amber “CABIN PRESS” EICAS message?
A
8500 ft.
13
Q
Where does the flight compartment exhaust air get routed?
A
Under floor area and the avionics bay
14
Q
How does the temperature controller operate in normal mode?
A
Input from fan sensor, temp selector & duct sensor
15
Q
What is the distribution of conditioned air from the packs?
A
Left Pack: 60% Cockpit / 40% Cabin
Right Pack: 1005 Cabin
16
Q
How is the pressure normally controlled inside the aircraft?
A
Automatically by the cabin pressure controller (CPC).
Electrically controls the outflow valves.
17
Q
Does a CPAM FAIL indicate a loss of automatic pressure control?
What have you lost?
A
No.
Auto mode for the SEAT BELT and NO SMOKING Signs
18
Q
Where do the Air Conditioning Packs get their cooling air?
A
RAM Air Intake at bottom of vertical tail.
19
Q
When will the packs automatically go to high mode in flight?
A
Overpressure or Overtemperature
20
Q
What is set on the CABIN PRESSURE CONTROLLER with the “A” KNOB?
A
Landing Airfield elevation
21
Q
If you have to return to the departure field after takeoff, is it necessary to reset the “A” KNKOB?
A
No. The CPC “remembers” the takeoff field elevation.
22
Q
Which messages on the EICAS can be cleared from view? How?
A
605 is all but warnings with CAS key
23
Q
What happens when ED1 Fails?
A
Immediately moves over to ED2.
24
Q
What are the five items that can cause a T / O CONFIG warning?
A
B - Brakes F - FLAPS A - AUTOPILOT S - SPOILERS T - TRIM
25
How are caution messages displayed on the EICAS?
Top down: Warning, Caution, Advisory, Status
26
When are Caution messages inhibited.
During Take-off with thrust >79% and > 80 kts.
27
Can advisory messages ever be hidden?
Yes. With CAS, and during TO
28
What is the primary purpose of the altitude pre-selector?
Command the aircraft to capture and maintain an altitude
29
What happens when you press the XFR button on the FCP?
Couples the autopilot and flight director to the right side
30
If you press the XFR button, what should you also change?
ATC SEL to 2
31
When your press the "SYNC" button do you disconnect the autopilot?
No (you just release the autopilot servo clutches)
32
What happens if you engage A/P without first selecting a lateral and vertical mode?
A/P engages in pitch and roll
33
Does changing the "AFCS SEL" switch from 1 to 2 change the FD?
No. You get the same FD but the back-up FCC.
34
How many flight control surfaces does the autopilot trim?
One (Horizontal Stab)
35
How many IRS sources are needed to engage the A/P?
Two (independent heading sources)
36
What happens when you push in the PWR / FUEL button
Starts APU fuel pump
Opens FUEL SOV & Neg G SOV
Displays APU RPM & EGT on EICAS Status page
37
How do we determine if the APU start sequence has hung up?
20 seconds to 60% (-100)
| 60 sec to 30% (-150)
38
When will the green "AVAIL" light come on?
95% + 4 seconds
39
Except for fire, how do you determine why the APU Auto-SHUTDOWN?
APU trip indicators on the APU Fault Panel
40
Why do we wait 5 seconds to push the APU Fire Bottle?
To give the flapper valve on the apu enclosure time to close.
41
What is the function of the "R/T" - "I/C switch?
Cold or hot mike respectively
42
How would you select 8.33 KHZ spacing on the COMM radios?
Double tap active comm line select key (L-1)
Select R-2 to toggle to 8.33
Select L-4 to return
43
Could you find the frequency of a VOR if you only knew the ident?
Yes, type the ident into the "tune" page on the CDU and press the VOR 1 or 2 line select key
44
How do you "Squawk Ident"
Ident Key on the RTU
45
How do you tune the other radio from your own RTU?
Yes, use the 1/2 key
46
Can you hold another DME frequency without change the active?
Yes, use the 1/2 key
47
Can you "HOLD" another DME frequency without changing the active?
Yes; Select "DME H"; Double TAP L-2,; select l-2 again (To "Box" DME); Tune desired freq; select "return" (L-4)
48
What are the Five Sources of AC Power for the Cll-604?
Gen 1&2, APU Gen, ADG, Ext Power
49
What is the AC power priority for the main AC busses (1 & 2) on the ground with all AC Power Sources available?
On-side, apu, cross-side, external
50
When will the ADG deploy automatically?
The ADG will deploy immediately if there is a loss of both generators in flight
51
The ADG supplies AC power to
3B hydraulic pump and AC ESS Bus
52
The sources of 28 VDC power are
4 TRU's, 2 Batteries and External Power
53
What is the purpose of the main bus tie switch
Will allow both DC Busses to be powered by a single TRU.
54
Is there an eicas message for a TRU failure?
No
55
Which bus is powered when the Battery Master switch is turned on?
Battery Bus.
56
What do you look for during the firex monitor test
6X "Squib OK"
57
What is the normal pressure of the engine and apu fire bottles
600-625 psi
58
What does pushing a "FIRE PUSH" switchlight arm?
The FIREX bottles
59
Which electrical bus powers the fire protection equipment?
```
DC Emergency (extinguishing)
DC Battery (DETECTION)
```
60
What does the "ENG SOV" mean if you pushed the engine fire push switch?
The engine fuel SOV failed to close
61
What does "BOTTLE LOW" mean after you push ("push to DISCH" switch?
Bottle has emptied.
62
Can the fire detection system discriminate between a fire and a short circuit
Yes
63
What is the immediate action response to a "MLG BAY OVHT" warning?
Airspeed 197 kts; LDG GEAR LEVER DN
64
Which hydraulic systems operates the ground spoilers
The no. 1 system
65
ON which side is the aileron autopilot servo located?
Right side (same side as the "Pull and Turn" handle)
66
When does the auto-ignition come on during the stall sequence?
When the needle on the SPS test guage enters the blue area
67
How is an aileron PCU Jam Depicted on the Flt CTL synoptic page?
A "half-moon" symbol on the affected aileron
68
What is the purpose of the flight spoiler detent mechanism?
To ensure a maxiumum "Split" of 20 degress between sides.
69
What is the significance of a "Flap Motor Overheat" status message?
Flaps will move at half speed
70
Which stab trim channel is powered during emer pwr only
#2 Channel
71
Which busses power stab trim channel #2?
AC (HSTCA) & DC (HSTCU) Essential Busses
72
What is the source for the low speed cue?
Aux AOA Vane
73
What color displays pilot selected data on the flight instruments?
Magenta
74
How can the takeoff reference page be displayed?
Selecting the "MFD DATA" key on the CDU
75
How can the takeoff reference page be displayed?
Selecting the "MFD DATA" Key on the CDU
76
How does the EFIS Display a failed source (E.G. Altitude)?
The failed information is removed and replaced by a red flag.
77
What is the static source for the standby instruments?
The S3 Ports (Below the pilot's windows)
78
What is the DCP?
| Name one thing it controls.
Display Control Panel
| BRG Pointers; TERR/WX/TFC overlays; MFD FRMT / RNG; NAV SRC
79
How do you change the baro-setting scale from IN HG to HPA
HPA / IN TILE on ADRP
80
What does the airspeed trend vector indicate?
What the airspeed will be in 10 Sec at present acceleration
81
What fuel system information is displayed on EICAS?
Total and individual fuel tank quantities
Engine and bulk fuel temperature
Fuel Flow per Engine
82
Which Fuel Tanks Directly Feed the engines
Collector Tanks
83
What is the purpose of the 2 Electric Boost Pumps?
Back up the two main Ejector Pumps
84
What is the maximum fuel quantity in each of the tank systems
Each wing 4860
Aux: 7168
Tail: 3112
85
What is the sequence of fuel transfer in flight
Mains to 93%
Aux to mains
Tail to AUX
86
What does an "AUTO TAIL XFER INHIBIT" EICAS Caution Message indicate?
Rotor Burst Protection cylinder nitrogen pressure low
| Automatic fuel transfer has been disabled.
87
Can the tail tank be refueled by gravity
No
88
From which tanks can fuel be dumped?
Tail Tank System Only
89
How many Hydraulic Pumps are there on the Challenger?
6
90
What is the normal IRS align time?
7 Minutes
91
Will the IRS Align if the present position is not entered?
No
92
What does an amber return indicate on the weather radar display?
Moderate Precipitation
93
What color is a TA (Traffic Alert) TCAS Traffic symbol?
Yellow
94
What is the naviagional accuracy with "GPS ApPR" indicated?
0.3 NM
95
What is the purpose of the CRS Knob on the FCP?
Manually set VOR or LOC Course
96
How does the EGPWS differentiate between increasing and decreasing performance windshears?
```
Increasing = Amber
Decreasing = Red
```
97
What does "LOC WILL BE TUNED Mean?
LOC will be auto-tuned within 30 NM of Airport; and
| VOR Tune is in MAN MODE
98
What is 145h stage bleed air used for?
Wing and Cowl Anti-Ice
| Thrust Reversers
99
What is the Fail-Safe position of the 14th Stage SOV's
Open
100
What is the purpose of the ApU LCV Interlock?
Protect the APU
101
When is the interlock activated?
APU LCV Open and
Left 10th Switch/Light is pushed in, or
APU LCV Open and Right 10th is pushed in with ISOL Valve Open
102
Where is the 10th stage bleed pressure indicated?
604 ED2
| 605 Summary Page
103
What is the minimum air pressure needed from an external air cart?
45 psi
104
Engine fails to start on IGN A, is there MEL relief? What powers IGN B?
Yes. Both engines must start on IGN B.
| Battery Bus.
105
Which valves open when the left engine start switch is pressed in?
L & R Engine SOV's; 10th Stage Izszol Valve & L Start Valve
106
At power setting below 79% N1, is engine in N1 or N2 speed control?
N2 Control.
107
How much does the APR system command following an engine failure?
2%
108
What does the reverser unlock EICAS message indicate?
Reverser has moved more than 1 1/4" out of stowed position
109
How is an abnormal N2 Vibration indicated?
Amber VIB ICON in N2 Gauge
110
What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?
15th Stage Bleed Air
111
What is the maximum difference in N2 between the two engines at idel?
2%
112
Is it possible to program an arc around a fix or navaid in the FMS?
No
113
What (three things) do you need to fly a GPS approach using VGP?
RWY on the Legs Page; APPR; VNAV
114
What order of priority does the FMS use the available NAV sensors?
GPS; DME-DME / VOR-DME; IRS
115
On a LOC Only Approach, why do we first select "APPR" then "NAV"?
"APPR" Enables Nav to Nav transfer
| "NAV" prevents GS Capture
116
What will the FMS prompt during a "HOLD TO" course reversal
Cancel Exit
117
Where must the altitude pre-selector be to enable a VNAV descent?
Below the current aircraft altitude
118
Where must the altitude pre selector be on a visual approach?
Field Elevation
119
How can you incercept the 200 deg. R of the IGN VOR and track it inbound using the FMS?
Select DIR; type "IGN" in the scratch pad; Line Select
120
With B pumps switches in auto, when will the pumps operate?
Flaps not at zero
121
If the left engine fails, can you restore No. 1 HYD System Pressure?
Turn 1B pump on
122
Which Hydraulic systems power the left aileron and elevator?
#1 and #3 Systems
123
What is the nominal pressure for each of the hydraulic systems?
3000psi
124
Which Hydraulic System is used to retract the landing Gear
#3
125
What is the function of the priority valve on system 3?
To give priorit to the flight controls and inboard brakes.
126
What do the L& R HEAT lights indicate
Sufficient heat for wing anti-ice (29 deg C)
127
What changes when the WSHLD Switches are set from low to high?
The windshields go high; The windows remain in low.
128
What happens to the wing and cowl anti ice during T/R operation?
Anti ice functions are inhibitied
129
ADSHC Fail Safe MODE? Is there MEL relief if windshield heaters fail?
On
| Yes, for all but the left window
130
How does the wing anti ice system operate in normal mode? Standby?
NORM MODE: Regulates valves to maintain L.E. Temp (88 deg C)
| STBY: Valves fully open or closed - Temp Varies (49 to 82 deg)
131
How does the ice detector work and what is the heating cycle?
Ice accumulation changes the probe vibration frequency
5 seconds of heat followed by 55 seconds no heat
132
WRT an ANTI ICE DUCT warning. Where are the ANTI-ICE Ducts located?
Aft equipment Bay; Under the CABIN; Along the wings.
133
What sensor triggers a WING OVERHEAT warning?
Sufficient heat / overheat sensor (Endo of Wing Leading Edge)
134
Where are the brake accumulators? What is minimum pressure?
The nose wheel well;
| 750 PSI
135
Where is brake pressure displayed?
On EICAS Hydraulic synoptic page
136
During manual gear lowering, what lowers the gear? What assists the gear downlocks?
Gravity
Nose: Downlock Springs;
Mains: #2 system downlock assist actuator.
137
Will the nose doors close after a manual gear lowering?
No.
138
What is required before the parking brake will hold?
Number 3 Hydraulic Pressure
139
When does the anti-skid take effect on landing?
35 kts wheel speed or WOW
140
What is the purpose of the WOW switches on the nose wheel?
Enable nose steering
141
What is the purpose of the WING INSP switch?
Illuminate the wing to see if ICE is accumulating.
142
Which lights do the L / R landing lights control?
Both the landing and the TAXI / Recognition Lights
143
Is there a 10-minute limit on the Nose Landing Light?
No
144
What do you have to do if you forget to turn off the EMER LIGHTS?
Restart APU; Turn on APU Gen; Turn off EMER LIGHT
