Civil Procedure - General Flashcards

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1
Q

Personal Jurisdiction Essay Question

A

1) Personal Jurisdiction is about the court’s power over the parties.
2) The question is, can π sue ∆ in this state?
3) To have PJ, both a state statute and the Constitution must be satisfied.
4) Often, state statutes will simply require that PJ comply with constitutional due process.
5) Constitutional analysis: Does ∆ have such “minimum contacts with the forum such that jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice?
6) PJ clearly constitutional when: ∆ is domiciled in forum, ∆ consents, or ∆ is voluntarily present in forum when served w/ process.
7) Factors for analyzing constitutionality: contact, relatedness, and fairness (for specific PJ only)
8) Contact: purposeful availment & foreseeability
9) Relatedness: Does π’s claim “arise from” ∆’s contact with the forum?
10) If yes, there is specific PJ. If no, does court have general PJ over ∆?
11) Court has General PJ if ∆ is “at home” in forum.
12) Human is “at home” in state of domicile. Corporation is “at home” 1) where it is incorporated, and 2) where its PPB is located.
13) Fairness: If specific PJ situation, fairness balances burden on ∆ & witnesses (“severe disadvantage in litigation” test), state’s interests, π’s interests.

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2
Q

Subject Matter Jurisdiction Essay Outline

A

1) Subject matter jurisdiction is the court’s power to hear this case.
2) Federal Courts are courts of limited jurisdiction, meaning they can only hear certain cases.
3) Three ways to have SMJ over claim: diversity & federal question, then supplemental (possible only if one of the other methods is fulfilled)

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3
Q

Diversity Jurisdiction Outline

A

1) Diversity = citizens of diff states, or citizen vs. alien & over $75,000 (cannot be green card alien domiciled in same state)
2) “citizen” = state of domicile; Corporations are citizens of both incorporation state & PPB (PPB = nerve center); for partnership, citizenship of ALL members
3) “Domicile” = physical presence + intent to make permanent home
4) Test for diversity @ time of filing
5) $75,000 threshold: includes damages, but not costs & interest; cannot aggregate claims of multiple πs to reach $75k; Equitable relief, look decrease in value for π or cost of compliance for ∆
6: Exclusions: divorce, alimony, child custody, probate & estate

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4
Q

Federal Question Jurisdiction Outline

A

1) Federal courts have jurisdiction over claims that arise under federal law.
2) “Arise under” = π is enforcing a federal right; π’s claim itself comes from federal law.

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5
Q

Supplemental Jurisdiction Outline

A

1) Supplemental jurisdiction gets non-federal, non-diversity claims into federal court.
2) To invoke supplemental jurisdiction, the case itself must already be properly in federal court via FQ or Diversity.
3) Test: claim comes from same “transaction or occurrence as underlying claim”
4) Court still has discretion to decline jurisdiction if: state law claim is complex, state law claims predominate the case, or if the underlying claim is dismissed early

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6
Q

Removal Outline

A

1) ∆ has right to remove to Federal Court within 30 days w/in service of the paper that shows the case is removable (30 days starts anew w/ each ∆ that is served)
2) ALL ∆s must unanimously agree to remove.
3) Removal is proper if the case could have originally been filed in Federal Court EXCEPT: no removal if any ∆ is a citizen of forum AND no removal more than 1 year after case filed
4) ∆ removes to the federal district “embracing” the state court where case was filed
5) ∆ must file “notice of removal” w/ federal court, stating grounds for removal
6) If π thinks removal was improper, can move to remand to state court w/in 30 days of notice of removal

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7
Q

Erie Doctrine Outline (Three Steps)

A

Step 1) Is there a federal law on point that directly conflicts w/ state law? (Supremacy Clause)
Step 2) If no, judge must apply state law if issue is “substantive”: a) elements of claim/defense b) SOL c) rules for tolling SOL d) conflict/choice of law rules
Step 3) If not on list above, court must determine whether issue is “substantive” by weighing: a) outcome determinative b) balance of interest between state/federal c) avoid forum shopping

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8
Q

Venue Outline

A

1) Venue rules determine in which federal district a claim may be brought.
2) π may lay venue in any district where a) all ∆s reside, or b) a substantial part of the claim arose
3) Special Rule: if all ∆’s reside in same state, venue proper in any district where any ∆ resides
4) Venue proper for a Business ∆ in any place w/ PJ over ∆
5) Transfer: If original district was proper, court has discretion to transfer for convenience of parties & witnesses; if original district was improper, Court may transfer or dismiss
6) In deciding whether to transfer, court will weigh public (applicable law, desire to keep local) and private (access to evidence, convenience) factors showing that transferee is the “center of gravity”
7) Forum non conveniens - another available and “adequate” forum is way better; “adequate” = π gets day in court, even if remedies are different

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9
Q

Who can serve process?

A

Any nonparty who is at least 18 years old.

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10
Q

How is Process Served?

A

There are FIVE methods: (120 days from filing complaint to serve ∆)

1) Personal service, anywhere
2) Home service: serve someone of suitable & and discretion who lives at ∆’s usual abode
3) Serve ∆’s agent
4) Follow service laws of State
5) Waiver by mail: Mail copy of complain + 1 copies of waiver, w/ prepaid means of returning form
* If ∆ fails to return waiver w/o good cause, ∆ must pay costs of service.

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11
Q

What is “Process”?

A

Process consists of two documents: summons (formal court notice of suit & time for response) AND the complain

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12
Q

How long to respond to interrogatories?

A

30 days, or 33 if interrogatories were mailed to you.

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13
Q

What are the requirements for a Complaint?

A

1) Statement of grounds for SMJ
2) Short & plain statement of the claim, showing entitled to relief
3) Demand for relief sought (e.g. damages, injunction, declaratory judgment)

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14
Q

What three matters must be pleaded w/ a heightened level of detail?

A

With particularity and specificity:

1) fraud
2) mistake
3) special damages

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15
Q

How long does ∆ have to respond to Complaint?

A

60 days if ∆ waived service.

21 days if ∆ did not waive service.

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16
Q

How can a ∆ respond to the Complaint?

A

1) Motions (Rule 12)

2) Answer

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17
Q

What are the 12(b) defenses?

A

(1) lack of SMJ
(2) lack of PJ
(3) Improper venue
(4) improper process (papers)
(5) improper service of process
(6) failure to state a claim
(7) failure to join an indispensable party

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18
Q

Which 12(b) defenses can be waived, and how?

A

Lack of PJ, improper venue, improper process, improper service of process;
Waived if not asserted in first response to Complaint.

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19
Q

What does a ∆’s answer do?

A

Two Things:

1) Respond to allegations in complaint (admit, EXPLICITLY deny, or lack sufficient information)
2) Raise affirmative defenses (SOL, res judicata, etc.)
* Duty to investigate things in your control*

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20
Q

Counterclaims

A

Counterclaim = against opposing party

TWO KINDS: Compulsory & Permissive
Compulsory = arises from same T/O as π’s claim
Permissive = does not arise from same T/O as π’s claim

Also, counterclaims must have SMJ

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21
Q

Crossclaims

A

Crossclaim = claim against co-party.
Crossclaim MUST arise from same T/O as underlying action.
Never compulsory; must have SMJ, of course.

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22
Q

Amending Pleadings

A

Four Fact Patterns:

1) RIGHT to Amend: π has right to amend ONCE, w/in 21 days after ∆ files first Rule 12 motion; ∆ has right to amend w/in 21 days of serving answer
2) Leave of Court: court may give leave to amend if “justice so requires” (weigh delay, prejudice, futility)
3) Variance: evidence at trial not matching pleadings? Amend.
4) Amendment after SOL: Amended pleadings “relate back” if they concern same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original pleading

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23
Q

When is π allowed to change the ∆ in Complaint after the SOL has run?

A

Complaint “relates back” when:

(1) Concerns same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as original complaint,
(2) The new ∆ knew of this case w/in 120 days of its filing, and
(3) New ∆ also knew that, but for mistake, she would have been named originally.

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24
Q

Supplemental pleadings: what are they are when are they allowed?

A

Lay forth occurrences that happened after original pleading was filed.

Allowing supplemental pleadings is always at the Court’s discretion - but will often allow unless would cause delay/prejudice.

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25
Q

Which documents does Rule 11 apply to?

A

All documents except discovery

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26
Q

What is Rule 11 certification?

A

When lawyer/pro se party signs documents, she certifies that to the best of her knowledge after reasonable inquiry:

(1) the paper is not for an improper purpose, and
(2) the legal contentions are warranted by law, and
(3) the factual contentions and denials of factual contentions have evidentiary support (or likely will after further investigation.

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27
Q

What is a continuing (Rule 11) certification?

A

Each time the attorney/pro se presents a position to the court (in further documents or trial presentations) this is a continuing Rule 11 certification.

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28
Q

Who may receive Rule 11 sanctions?

A

If there is a Rule 11 violation, the Court may sanction the party, the attorney, or the law firm.

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29
Q

What is the process of Rule 11 Sanctions?

A

If party violates Rule 11, other party must serve a motion for sanctions on the parties, but cannot file it. The violating party has 21 days to fix the problem and avoid sanctions. If the violating party does not fix the problem, the motion for sanctions may be filed.

The Court may raise Rule 11 problems sua sponte.

Court will usually issue an order to show cause why sanctions should not be imposed.

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30
Q

What are the initial disclosures during discovery?

A

Within 14 days of the Rule 26(f) Discovery Conference, each party must disclose:

(1) identities of persons who have discoverable info that the party may use to SUPPORT its claims or defenses, and
(2) documents and things that part may use to SUPPORT claims or defenses that are in your control
(3) Computation of requested monetary relief
(4) Existence of relevant insurance coverage

Failure to make the proper disclosures means material may not be used in the case.

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31
Q

What discovery disclosures are required regarding expert witnesses?

A

At a time directed by the Court, each party must identify expert witnesses who may be used at trial.

Also, party must submit the expert’s written report that includes:

(1) Opinion EW will express
(2) bases for those opinions
(3) facts used to form opinions
(4) EW’s qualifications, and
(5) how much EW is getting paid

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32
Q

Who counts as an “expert witness?”

A

An EW is someone who, because of special skill or training, may give opinion testimony. The EW is hired specifically to render an opinion in this case.

For example, a doctor who treated an injured patient and is later asked to testify at trial is NOT an EW.

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33
Q

Is a deponent required to review all relevant files and notes before being deposed?

A

No, testimony comes from present recollection.

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34
Q

Can party take deposition of a party or nonparty?

A

Yes to both, but should subpoena the nonparty to compel attendance.

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35
Q

What does a subpoena “duces tecum” require a deponent to do?

A

If a deponent receives a subpoena “duces tecum,” the deponent must bring all requested materials with her.

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36
Q

Unless a nonparty agrees, what is the longest distance she can be required to travel for a deposition?

A

100 miles from where she resides or is employed.

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37
Q

What are the limits on the use of depositions?

A

(1) Party cannot take more than 10 depositions without court approval or stipulation.
(2) Party cannot depose same person twice w/o court approval or stipulation.
(3) Deposition cannot exceed one day of seven hours unless court orders or parties stipulate.

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38
Q

To whom can you sent interrogatories?

A

Interrogatories can be sent to parties only!

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39
Q

How long does a party have to respond to an interrogatory?

A

A party must answer or object to an interrogatory within 30 days of service.

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40
Q

What investigatory duties are imposed when answering an interrogatory?

A

In answering an interrogatory, a party must answer from all information reasonably available to him or her.

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41
Q

What is the maximum number of interrogatories a party may send?

A

A party may send the opposing party a total of 25 questions in the interrogatory, including subparts.

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42
Q

May a party request nonparties to produce discovery materials?

A

Yes, but should get a subpoena to compel compliance.

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43
Q

What is unique about requesting a medical examination during discovery?

A

A medical examination (physical or mental) is the only discovery method that requires a court order to request.

To get a court order, requesting party must show that person’s health is in actual controversy and “good cause” exists. (usually means no other way to get information)

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44
Q

Who can be ordered to undergo a medical examination for the purpose of discovery?

A

A party or someone in the party’s custody or legal control.

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45
Q

Who chooses the licensed person to perform a medical examination during discovery?

A

The party seeking the court order chooses the licensed person to perform a medical examination during discovery.

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46
Q

Following a properly ordered medical examination during discovery, does the examined party have a right to view the exam report?

A

Yes, examinee may request the report. However, if the examinee obtains the report, he waives any privilege he might have concerning testimony about all examinations of that particular medical condition. The examinee would then have to produce reports of his own doctors concerning the condition.

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47
Q

On whom may a request for admission be served?

A

A request for admission may be served on parties only.

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48
Q

What if a party fails to specifically deny an allegation in response to a request for admission?

A

If the party fails to specifically deny an allegation, the allegation will be deemed admitted.

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49
Q

Can a party respond to a request for admission by stating that he or she does not know the answer?

A

A party may only respond that they do not know the answer if she states that she made reasonably inquiry and cannot find enough information to admit or deny.

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50
Q

Is there a duty to supplement responses to discovery requests?

A

If a prior response to a discovery request is now incomplete in light of new circumstances, there is a duty to supplement the prior response.

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51
Q

What is within the scope of discovery?

A

Anything relevant to a claim or defense is within the scope of discovery?

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52
Q

Must a material be admissible in court to be discoverable?

A

No, admissibility is not the test for whether something is discoverable.

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53
Q

What counts as “relevant” to a claim or defense?

A

Relevant includes things that are “reasonably calculated to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence.”

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54
Q

Is a party’s net worth relevant to a claim for compensatory damages?

A

No, a party’s net worth is not relevant to compensating the π.

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55
Q

Is a party’s net worth relevant to a claim for punitive damages?

A

Yes, because punitive damages are intended to punish ∆, ∆’s net worth may be relevant and thus discoverable.

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56
Q

What is the doctrine of “proportionality” when it comes to discovery?

A

The court has authority to limit discovery if the request is cumulative or if the burden outweighs the importance of the issue. This is called “proportionality.”

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57
Q

Is privilege a valid objection to discovery requests?

A

Yes, a party may object to discovery on the basis of evidentiary privilege. (attorney-client, spousal, doctor-patient)

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58
Q

What are the steps in analyzing the Work Product Doctrine?

A

Step 1:
Generally, work product is protected from discovery.
Step 2:
Requesting party may still be able to discover work product if it shows: (a) substantial need (b) material not otherwise available.
Step 3:
Absolute Work Product can never be discovered, and it covers: (a) mental impressions (b) opinions (3) conclusions (4) legal theories

59
Q

What is a Privilege Log?

A

A privilege log is a log that that lists out any withholdings during discovery due to privilege or work product. The reason for withholding must be expressly claimed. The log must be detailed enough for the judge to determine whether the material is protected.

60
Q

What are discovery motions a party may bring during a discovery dispute?

A

(1) Protective order - court may limit discovery
(2) Motion to Compel - requesting party asking to compel answers
(3) Motion for sanctions

61
Q

What is the process for moving for sanctions during discovery?

A

Partial Response Problems:

(1) move for order compelling answer + costs of bringing motion
(2) If party violates order compelling answer, RAMBO sanctions + costs & could be held in contempt

No Response Problem:
(1) RAMBO sanctions + Costs

62
Q

What are the Judge’s options with RAMBO Sanctions?

A

(1) establishment order, establishing facts as true
(2) strike pleadings of the disobedient party
(3) disallow evidence from the disobedient party
(4) dismiss π’s case (if bad faith shown)
(5) enter default judgment against ∆ (if bad faith)

63
Q

What are the requirements for being co-plaintiffs?

A

(1) Claims arise from same transaction or occurrence, and

(2) Claims raise at least one common question

64
Q

Who is a “necessary” party to litigation?

A

An absentee (A) who meets any of these tests:

(1) Without A, the court cannot accord complete relief among existing parties (focused on π)
(2) A’s interest may be harmed if he is not joined (focused on A)
(3) A claims in interest that subjects a party (usually ∆) to the risk of multiple obligations (focused on ∆)

65
Q

Are joint tortfeasors necessary parties to litigation?

A

No, joint tortfeasors are never necessary parties to litigation.

66
Q

What is the next step if there is a necessary absentee party?

A

See if joinder is “feasible”:
(1) is there PJ over A?
(2) Will joining A mess up Diversity Jurisdiction?
If feasible, Court will order joinder.

67
Q

What if there is a necessary absentee that cannot be feasibly joined to the suit?

A

If necessary A cannot be joined, court must either proceed or dismiss.
Factors for the decision include:
(1) available alternative forums
(2) actual likelihood of harm to A
(3) Can the court shape relief to avoid harm to A

68
Q

What is an indispensable party?

A

If the court chooses to dismiss an action for failure to join a necessary party, the absent party is referred to as “indispensable”

69
Q

What is “impleader?”

A

Impleader is the method of the ∆ adding another party, a third-party ∆.

Impleader is usually for indemnity or contribution, for 3P∆ to pay all or part of ∆’s liability to π.

70
Q

How does a ∆ implead?

A

∆ has a right to implead w/in 14 days of serving answer.
To implead, ∆:
(1) Files a third-party complaint against 3P∆
(2) Serves process on 3P∆ (Court must have PJ over 3P∆)
Remember, SMJ analysis

71
Q

Can a π file a claim against an impleaded 3P∆?

A

Yes, a π can file a claim against an impleaded 3P∆ so long as: (1) same T/O, and (2) doesn’t violate Diversity jurisdiction

72
Q

What is intervention?

A

Intervention is the process of a nonparty entering litigation, either as a π or as a ∆. Application to intervene must be “timely.”

Party has right to intervene under the “Necessary Party” tests.

At court’s discretion, nonparties that are not necessary may intervene if there is at least one common question.

73
Q

What is the process for certifying a Class Action lawsuit? (4 initial, then categorization)

A

Initial Requirements:

(1) numerosity - too many for practicable joinder
(2) commonality - issue in common to all class members
(3) typicality - representative’s claims are typical of the class
(4) Adequate representation - class rep will fairly & adequately represent class

Categorization: (must fit in 1)
(Type 1) "prejudice" - class treatment necessary to avod harm to class members or to the non-class party
(Type 2) Injunction/Declaratory judgment sought because ∆ treated class alike
(Type 3) "Damages" - common questions predominate over individual questions AND class action is superior method to handle dispute
74
Q

What is included in the Court’s “certification” of a class action?

A

(1) Definition of class and claims/issues
(2) Appoint class counsel
(3) For Type 3 actions, requirements for notifying class members stating that: (a) can opt out (b) will be bound if they don’t opt out (c) they can enter a separate appearance through counsel

75
Q

Who pays for notice of class members in a Type 3 class action?

A

The Representative pays for the cost of giving notice to all class members in a Type 3 class action.

76
Q

How is a class action settled?

A

There must be court approval for settling a class action lawsuit.

77
Q

How is citizenship analyzed for bringing a class action to federal court under Diversity Jurisdiction?

A

Only the class Representative’s citizenship is used for Diversity analysis.

78
Q

What is effect of the Class Action Fairness Act (CAFA)?

A

CAFA grants SMJ to federal courts to hear a class action if ANY class member is diverse from ANY ∆ if the aggregate claims of the class exceed $5,000,000.

79
Q

What can a π do to maintain the status quo while waiting for a hearing on a Preliminary Injunction?

A

Get a Temporary Restraining Order (TRO)

Ex parte TRO is proper only if:

(1) applicant files paper under oath showing that w/o TRO he will “suffer immediate and irreparable harm if he must wait until the other side is heard,” AND
(2) Applicant’s lawyer certifies in writing his efforts to give oral/written notice to ∆ or ∆’s lawyer (or why such notice should not be required under the circumstances.)

80
Q

If a TRO is granted, what must the applicant do for the TRO to be effective?

A

The applicant must post a bond to cover the other side’s costs and damages caused if it turns out the restraint is wrongful.

The TRO must be served on ∆ as soon as possible.

81
Q

What must be included in the TRO?

A

The TRO must state its terms in specificity, detailing what ∆ must do/not do, state why it was issued and why the threatened harm to π was irreparable.

82
Q

What can ∆ do in response to TRO?

A

In response to a TRO, a ∆ may move to dissolve or modify the TRO.

83
Q

How long does a TRO last?

A

A TRO is effective no more than 14 days (or less if stated by court).

If applicant shows good cause, TRO can be extended for up to another 14 days, but that is it.

84
Q

Can a preliminary injunction be granted ex parte?

A

No, a preliminary injunction can never be granted ex parte.

85
Q

How is a preliminary injunction imposed?

A

To get a preliminary injunction, an applicant must show:

(1) likely to suffer irreparable harm if injunction not issued
(2) likely to win on the merits of underlying case
(3) balance of hardship favors him, AND
(4) the injunction is in the public interest

86
Q

Is there ever a right to a preliminary injunction?

A

No, granting a preliminary injunction is always up to the discretion of the court.

87
Q

If the court grants a preliminary injunction, what must the applicant do?

A

If a preliminary injunction is granted, the applicant must post a bond to cover costs and damages of the other side in the event that the preliminary injunction ends up being wrongful.

88
Q

In granting or denying a motion for a preliminary injunction, what must the court do?

A

In granting or denying a motion for a preliminary injunction, the court must make specific findings of fact and separate conclusions of law. If granting, the court must describe in detail what the ∆ must do/not do and state why the order was issued.

89
Q

Can π voluntarily dismiss the case without prejudice?

A

π may voluntarily dismiss the case ONCE without prejudice if the notice of dismissal is filed before ∆ files an answer or motion for summary judgment.

90
Q

How does the π get a default judgment?

A

If ∆ does not respond to complaint w/in 21 (or 60 if ∆ mailed waiver), court clerk will note default on docket.

Court clerk can enter default judgment IF:

(1) ∆ made no response at all,
(2) claim itself is for sum certain in money,
(3) claimant gives affidavit of sum owed, AND
(4) ∆ is not minor/incompetent.

If any of above is NOT true, then π applies for default judgment with the Court. The Court will hold a hearing, and ∆ will receive notice if he has appeared in the case.

91
Q

After default judgment has been entered, is there anything ∆ can do?

A

∆ may file motion to have the court set aside a default judgment by showing good cause AND a viable defense.

92
Q

How does the Court analyze a 12(b)(6) motion to dismiss for failure to state a claim?

A

Looking only at the face of the complaint, the court asks, “If these facts were true, would π win a judgment?”

93
Q

What must a party moving for Summary Judgment show?

A

A party moving for Summary Judgment must show:

(1) there is no genuine dispute on a material fact and
(2) she is entitled to judgment as a matter of law

94
Q

If the party moving for Summary Judgement has illustrated the two SJ requirements, must the court enter SJ?

A

No, a court always has discretion whether to grant a motion for Summary Judgement.

95
Q

Who can move for Summary judgment?

A

Any party may move for Summary Judgment.

96
Q

When can a party move for Summary Judgment?

A

A party can move for summary judgment no later than 30 days after the close of discovery.

97
Q

In summary judgment, can the court look at evidence?

A

Yes, a court usually looks at evidence in determining whether to grant a motion for summary judgment.

98
Q

How does the Court view evidence while determining whether to grant a Summary Judgment motion?

A

The court will view the evidence most favorable to the nonmoving party.

99
Q

Are pleadings evidence?

A

No, pleadings are not evidence unless verified (under oath).

Affidavits, declarations, deposition testimony, and interrogatory answers ARE evidence and should be used for motions and responses to motions.

100
Q

What is a Rule 26(f) Conference?

A

Unless court says otherwise, at least 21 days before scheduling conference, parties “meet and confer.” Discuss production of required initial disclosures, claims, defenses, settlement, and issue about preservation of discoverable evidence.

Afterward, must present a detailed discovery plan to the court.

101
Q

What is the pretrial conference order?

A

The pretrial conference order is a document that lays out the issues to be tried and evidence to be proffered at trial. It supersedes the pleadings.

102
Q

What is a motion in limine?

A

A motion in limine is a motion to decide whether the jury should hear certain evidence.

103
Q

Do parties have a right to a jury trial?

A

The 7th Amendment preserves the right to jury in “civil actions at law,” but not in suits at equity.

If both types of claims are present, the jury will decide the damages claim, but not the equitable claim.

104
Q

How does a party invoke right to jury trial for civil actions at law?

A

To invoke this right, the party must demand the jury in writing, no later than 14 days after service of the last pleading raising jury triable issue.

105
Q

How are jury members chosen?

A

The jury selection process is called voir dire.

Each side might ask the court to strike potential jurors.

106
Q

What are the two kinds of challenges to jurors that parties may make?

A

(1) For cause challenges - no limit on how many can be made.

(2) Peremptory challenges - each side gets 3, and can’t be based on race or gender

107
Q

How many jurors are there in a federal civil action case?

A

There is a minimum of 6 and maximum of 12 jurors in federal civil actions.

108
Q

Unless parties agree otherwise, what jury vote is required for a verdict?

A

Unless parties agree otherwise, a unanimous jury vote is required for a verdict.

109
Q

How are jury instructions developed and submitted?

A

First, parties submit proposed jury instructions at the close of all evidence.

Before final arguments & instruction, court informs parties of intended instructions.

Parties are allowed to make specific objections both before final arguments AND before instructions are given.

If party does not object before jury is “charged,” can’t object on appeal.

Exception: Court can consider an untimely objection to jury instructions if it was a plain error that affects substantial rights.

110
Q

What are the three types of verdict forms the judge may require the jury to use?

A

1) General: who wins & what relief
2) Special: jury answers specific questions of fact, then judge reaches legal conclusions
3) General w/ special interrogatories: jury gives general verdict w/ specific answers to questions to ensure jury considered important issues

111
Q

Once the jury returns a general verdict, who enters judgment?

A

The clerk of the court enters the judgment.

112
Q

What happens once jury returns consistent answers with a special verdict or general verdict with special interrogatories?

A

The court approves a judgement and the clerk of court enters the judgment.

113
Q

What happens if the verdict shows that the jury did not follow instructions or it is internally inconsistent?

A

Judge can ask jury to reconsider, or can order a new trial.

114
Q

How can a verdict be “impeached?”

A

Based on EXTERNAL matters (bribery, outside investigations), a new trial can be ordered.

115
Q

What are the requirements for the conclusion of a bench trial?

A

Judge must state findings of facts on the record or in writing.

Judge must state conclusions of law.

The judgment must be entered.

116
Q

What is a motion for Judgment as Matter of Law?

A

After the other side has been heard, a party may move for JMOL. Viewing the evidence in the light most favorable to the non-moving party, the court may grant a motion for JMOL if reasonable people could not disagree on the result.

117
Q

What is a Renewed motion for Judgment as a Matter of Law?

A

RJMOL is the same as JMOL but comes up AFTER trial has ended.

118
Q

When can a party file a motion for RJMOL?

A

Motion for RJMOL must be filed w/in 28 days after entry of judgment.

119
Q

What is the absolute prerequisite for filing a motion for RJMOL?

A

To file RJMOL, a party MUST have filed for JMOL during trial.

120
Q

When can a party move for a new trial?

A

A party may move for a new trial within 28 days after entry of judgment.

121
Q

What are some examples of reasons for granting a motion for new trial?

A

Any non-harmless error, for example:

(1) erroneous jury instruction
(2) new evidence that could not have been gotten before w/ due diligence
(3) misconduct by juror or party or lawyer, etc.
(4) judgment is against the weight of the evidence
(5) inadequate or excessive damages

122
Q

What are remittitur or additur?

A

Remittitur = court thinks damages are too high, gives π option of lowering damages or new trial. Allowed in Fed Courts.

Additutr = court thinks damages are too low, gives ∆ option of increasing damages or new trial. NOT allowed in Fed Courts (unconstitutional)

123
Q

How is a case appealed?

A

Generally, the losing party can file a notice of appeal in the Trial Court within 30 days after entry of FINAL judgment.

124
Q

What is “Final Judgment?”

A

To determine if a ruling is a final judgment ask, “Does the trial court have anything left to do on the merits of this case?”

125
Q

What interlocutory orders are immediately reviewable as of right?

A

Orders granting, modifying, or refusing preliminary or permanent injunctions are immediately appealable.

126
Q

What does the Interlocutory Appeals Act allow?

A

The Interlocutory Appeals Act allows appeal of a nonfinal order IF:

(1) trial judge certifies that it involves a controlling issue of law,
(2) as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion, AND
(3) the Court of Appeals agrees to hear it.

127
Q

What is the “collateral order” exception?

A

The collateral order exception is an exception to the Final Judgment Rule.
It states that Appellate Courts have discretion to hear a ruling on an issue IF it:
(1) is distinct from the merits of the case,
(2) involves an important legal question, AND
(3) is essentially unreviewable if parties must await a final judgment

128
Q

How does party appeal an order granting or denying class certification?

A

Court of Appeals has discretion to review an order granting/denying certification. The appealing party must seek review at the court of appeals w/in 14 days of the order.

129
Q

What standard of review does the Appellate Court apply to questions of law?

A

Appellate judges apply de novo review to questions of law.

130
Q

What standard of review does the Appellate Court apply to questions of fact?

A

Appellate judges apply a “clearly erroneous” review standard to questions of fact when a judge found facts.

Will affirm jury’s findings unless reasonable people could not have made that finding.

131
Q

Is analyzing whether jury instructions were proper a question of fact or law?

A

Proper content of jury instructions is a question of law.

132
Q

What standard of review do Appellate Courts apply to discretionary matters?

A

Appellate Courts review discretionary matters for “abuse of discretion.”

133
Q

Does every error require reversal on appeal?

A

No, harmless errors do not require reversal on appeal.

134
Q

Which preclusion law does the Court apply?

A

If Case 1 and Case 2 are in different judicial SYSTEMS, then apply the preclusion law of judicial system that decided Case 1.

135
Q

What are the requirements of res judicata claim preclusion?

A

(1) Case 1 & Case 2 were brought by SAME π against SAME ∆. (if former ∆ is now π, no preclusion
(2) Case 1 ended in valid final judgment on the merits.

(3) Case 1 and Case 2 asserted the same “claim”
[Majority, “claim” = right to relief from T/O;
Minority, “claim” = primary rights, so property & personal injury are NOT the same “claim”]

136
Q

What are the requirements for collateral estoppel issue preclusion?

A

(1) Case 1 ended in a valid final judgment on the merits.
(2) The same issue was actually LITIGATED and determined in Case 1.
(3) The issue was essential to the judgment in Case 1, meaning the finding on the issue was the basis for the judgment.
(4) Used against someone who was a party in Case 1 or represented by a party in Case 1.

137
Q

Who can assert collateral estoppel issue preclusion?

A

Someone who was a party (or represented by a party) in Case 1.

Nonmutual defensive issue preclusion:
∆ who was not a party to Case 1.
Okay to use collateral estoppel, so long as person that preclusion is begin asserted AGAINST had full chance to litigate the issue in Case 1.

Nonmutual offensive issue preclusion:
π who was not a party to Case 1.
Most courts don’t allow, but trend toward allowing if “fair.,” especially in Federal Courts.

138
Q

What are the three requirements for a party to be granted a TRO?

A

The party must:

(1) show that there will be immediate and irreparable harm without the TRO
(2) certify in writing all efforts made to give notice to adverse party & why notice should not be required, AND
(3) post a bond to cover costs and damages for adverse party in case TRO was wrongful

139
Q

What information about Expert Witnesses is discoverable?

A

Must hand over ID and EW Report, and adverse party may depose EW.

Communications between attorney & EW are protected by Work Product Doctrine.

140
Q

Can costs and fees be recovered for motions to compel during discovery?

A

A prevailing party on a discovery motion ordinarily will recover the costs and fees incurred in dealing with that motion. But, Rule 37 requires that the moving party certify that they have attempted to confer with the other party to obtain discovery materials w/o court intervention. If the movant does not properly attempt to confer, it cannot recover costs and fees, and cannot have sanctions imposed.

141
Q

Can a deposition be used as evidence at trial?

A

Depositions can be used as evidence at federal trials in certain instances, like if deponent is unavailable.

142
Q

If an error is not objected to during the deposition, is the objection waived?

A

Yes, any objection that can be cured at a deposition is waived if not asserted during the deposition.

143
Q

When may a π voluntarily dismiss without a court order or stipulation of all parties?

A

A plaintiff may voluntarily dismiss w/o a court order before the ∆ has filed an answer or if the parties file a stipulation signed by all parties agreeing to dismissal.

144
Q

When is a claim precluded under the doctrine of res judicata?

A

Claim preclusion bars a party from asserting an action barred from a past judgment.
Claim is precluded if:
(1) Final judgment on the merits
(2) Same π and same ∆
(3) Involved the same claim (same transaction or occurrence)