Civil Procedure Flashcards

1
Q

The issue is whether the court has subject-matter jurisdiction over the defendant such that it should deny the defendant’s motion to dismiss.

A

In order to present a claim in federal court, a plaintiff must establish both subject-matter jurisdiction over the controversy and personal jurisdiction over the defendant.

Federal courts may obtain subject-matter jurisdiction through diversity or federal question jurisdiction. If the claim is not based on a question of federal law or a federal statute giving rise to a cause of action, then the court may only obtain jurisdiction through diversity.

Diversity jurisdiction requires complete diversity of citizenship of the parties and an amount in controversy over $75,000. Citizenship of a corporation is in the state in which it is incorporated, and the state from which it controls its business (the “nerve center”). Thus, a corporation may be a citizen of more than one state. An individual is a citizen of the state in which they are domiciled. Generally, a person’s domicile is decided by factors such as where they currently live, where they intend to remain indefinitely, where they vote, and where they consider their residence. A person may only be a citizen of one state. Citizenship is determined at the time the claim is filed. If complete diversity of citizenship of the parties is met, the amount in controversy must also be over $75,000. Generally, the court accepts the plaintiff’s claim of damages unless they are directly contradicted by statute or other incontrovertible evidence.

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2
Q

The issue is whether the court has personal jurisdiction over the defendant such that it should deny the defendant’s motion to dismiss.

A

In order to present a claim in federal court, a plaintiff must establish both subject-matter jurisdiction over the controversy and personal jurisdiction over the defendant.

To obtain personal jurisdiction over the defendant, a federal court must satisfy both the personal jurisdiction rules of the state in which it sits as well as the constitutional requirements of the 14th Amendment. Because State B’s long-arm statutes permits personal jurisdiction to the maximum extent of the Constitution, only a constitutional analysis is necessary.

A federal court can obtain personal jurisdiction under the Constitution by consent, residency, personal service, or minimum contacts analysis. [Specific Jurix] Minimum contacts requires the defendant have sufficient purposeful minimum contacts with the forum state that some sort of liability is foreseeable, and that those minimum contacts give rise to the claim at hand, and that asserting personal jurisdiction would not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice. If the court cannot find that the contacts with the forum state give rise to the claim, the court can also look to determine whether the defendant had substantial business with the forum state such that it should be subject to general jurisdiction in the state. This requires a strong finding that the business is “essentially at home” in the forum state.

[General Jurix] Assuming minimum contacts fails, the court could look at whether the airline could be considered essentially at home in State B, and therefore subject to personal jurisdiction even for a claim that did not arise in State B. A company is at home in the state where it is incorporated or has its principal place of business.

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3
Q

The issue is whether the court should dismiss the man’s class action claim based on the defendant’s motion ground that the court lacks subject-matter jurisdiction.

A

Federal courts are courts of limited (subject matter) jurisdiction. The main ways to obtain subject-matter jurisdiction in federal court are through federal question jurisdiction or diversity jurisdiction. In federal question jurisdiction, a question involving federal law must arise from the face of the plaintiff’s complaint. In diversity jurisdiction, the ordinary rule requires complete diversity, where no plaintiff is a citizen of the same state as any defendant. Diversity jurisdiction also has an amount in controversy requirement of $75,000.

For class actions, the diversity requirement generally is that all named plaintiffs must be diverse from all defendants. A corporation is considered a citizen of anywhere it is incorporated and the place where it has its principal place of business.

However, the Class Action Fairness Act (CAFA) permits certain class action lawsuits to be brought in federal court so long as there is diversity between the defendant and any plaintiff, and the amount in controversy exceeds $5,000,000. [Diversity in a class aciotn brought pursuant to Rule 23 will generally be determined by the citizenship of the named members of the class bringing the lawsuit. However, for class actions in which the amount at issue totals more than $5,000,000, diversity will be met if any member of the plaintiff class is diverse with any defendant.]

[Also, the State X Privacy Protection Act allows for minimum statutory damages of $500 for individuals who have had their medical information breacahed. The lawsuit is brought as a class action on behalf of the 30,000 individuals who suffered the invasion of privacy. Aggregating these claims together alleges total damages of $15,000,000, which is far above the required $5,000,000 for class actions.]

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4
Q

The issue is whether the motion to dismiss should be granted for the man’s failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted because of the state law barring class actions to recover statutory damages.

A

When an action is commenced in U.S. district court, the court must determine the substantive law and rules of procedure that will govern the action. In a diversity action, the district court is required to apply state substantive law, if there is no federal law on point. With regard to procedure in a diversity action, if a procedural issue is addressed by a valid federal law, such as a statute, then the federal law will be applied, even if a state rule or statute is in conflict.

Class actions can be maintained in federal court, despite a state law barring class actions to enforce statutory damages claims, if the action is authorized by Rule 23. Rule 23(a) establishes four requirements for representative members of a class to sue or be sued on behalf of all members of the class: (i) the class must be so numerous that joinder of all members is impracticable (numerosity); (ii) there must be questions of law or fact that are common to the class (commonality); (iii) the claims or defenses of the representatives must be typical of the class (typicality); and (iv) the representatives must fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class (adequacy).

The fact that State X has a statute barring the award of statutory damages in a class action does not mean that there is no claim for relief to be granted. Here, the class is numerous with potentially 30,000 plaintiffs, there are common questions of law or fact, and the claims appear typical of the class. Finally, it appears that the man adequately and fairly protects the interest of the class and is represented by an attorney with significant experience in similar class actions. Thus, the action is authorized by Rule 23 and therefore it can be maintained in federal court, regardless of State X’s procedural limitations in its own courts. As a result, the motion to dismiss should be denied.

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5
Q

The issue is whether a state providing a statutory damages provision can provide an injury in fact for Article III purposes.

A

A federal court cannot decide a case unless the plaintiff has standing to bring it. To have standing, a plaintiff bears the burden of establishing three elements: (i) injury in fact; (ii) the injury was fairly traceable to the challenged action (causation); and (iii) the relief requested must prevent or redress the injury. Standing requires a concrete and particularized injury, even in the context of a statutory violation. The injury need not be physical or economic. An injury such as the invasion of privacy may be a sufficiently concrete injury in even when extensive damages cannot be proved.

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6
Q

The issue is whether the engineer’s report was prepared in anticipation of litigation and is therefore discoverable.

A

Discovery is generally permitted with regard to any non-privileged matter relevant to any party’s claim or defense in the action. Information within the scope of discovery need not be admissible evidence at trial to be discoverable. Instead, the test is whether the information sought is relevant to any party’s claim or defense. In general, a party may not discover documents and tangible things that are prepared in anticipation of litigation or for trial by or for another party or its representative. Such materials will be subject to discovery, however, if the party shows that it has substantial need for the materials to prepare its case and cannot, without undue hardship, obtain their substantial equivalent by other means.

In addition, if an expert is retained by another party in anticipation of litigation or to prepare for trial but is not expected to be called as a witness, then discovery is permitted only on a showing of exceptional circumstances.

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7
Q

The issue is whether the destruction of the emails is excused when litigation was being contemplated by the builder.

A

A party may request the other party to produce and permit the inspection of any discoverable documents or electronically stored information. Spoliation of evidence is the negligent or intentional destruction or significant alteration of evidence required for discovery. When litigation is reasonably anticipated, even if it has not yet commenced, potential litigants in possession of potentially relevant evidence have a duty to preserve such evidence. Once a duty to preserve evidence is triggered, the party in possession of the evidence must take reasonable measures to preserve it. If a party has a policy in place that results in routine operations that may destroy evidence, such as electronically stored information, that party must affirmatively act to prevent the destruction or alteration of such evidence, even if the destruction would typically occur in the regular course of business.

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8
Q

The issue is whether sanctions can be imposed against the builder for permanently deleting the emails.

A

A party may be subject to sanctions for failing to take reasonable steps to preserve evidence that should have been preserved in the anticipation or conduct of litigation. Sanctions are authorized for spoliation of evidence only if the information cannot be restored or replaced by additional discovery. In determining sanctions, the court should consider the prejudice to another party and the intent of the party that failed to preserve the evidence.

When retrieval of the information is possible, even if typically considered inaccessible due to the cost of retrieval, a court may order it and assign the costs to the party who destroyed the evidence; no further sanctions may be imposed. If a party failed to preserve electronically stored information that should have been preserved and it cannot be restored or replaced, the court may order alternate sanctions against the wrongful party, limited to the court’s discretion of those necessary to cure any prejudice to the other party.

If the court finds that the sanctioned party acted with the purpose of depriving the other party of the evidence’s use in litigation, then the available sanctions include (1) a presumption that the destroyed or lost information was unfavorable to the sanctioned party; (2) a jury instruction that it may or it must presume the information was unfavorable to the party; or (3) an entry of a default judgment against the party.

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9
Q

The issue is whether a federal court has removal jurisdiction when the parties to the state action are diverse, the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000, and the defendant is not from the state where the action was originally filed.

A

Generally, the defendant in any civil action filed in state court has the right to remove it to the district court for the district and division in which the state court action was filed as long as the civil action is within the subject-matter jurisdiction of a U.S. district court. Federal courts may exercise diversity jurisdiction over actions when (1) the opposing parties to an action are citizens of different states and (2) the amount in controversy in the action exceeds $75,000. Generally, a plaintiff’s good-faith assertion in the complaint that the action satisfies the amount-in-controversy requirement is sufficient, unless it appears to a legal certainty that the plaintiff cannot recover the amount alleged. Additionally, if removal is sought solely based on diversity jurisdiction, then the claim may be removed only if no defendant is a citizen of the state in which the action was filed.

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10
Q

The issue is whether a court can properly grant a change of venue motion based on a forum selection clause that is not enforceable under the law of the state where the case was originally filed.

A

For the convenience of the parties and in the interests of justice, a district court in which venue is proper may transfer any civil action to any other district or division where it might have been brought. Venue is proper in a judicial district in which (1) any defendant resides, if all defendants reside in the same state in which the district is located, (2) a substantial part of the events or omissions on which the claim is based occurred, or (3) a substantial part of the proeprty that is the subject of the action is located. Moreover, when transfer is sought on the basis of a forum selection clause in a contract, the clause is accorded respect. If the clause specifies a federal forum, most circuit courts treat the clause as prima facie valid, to be set aside only upon a strong showing that transfer would be unreasonable and unjust or that the clause was invalid for reasons such as fraud or overreaching. Furthermore, the Supreme Court has held that a forum selection clause should be given “controlling weight in all but the most exceptional cases.”

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11
Q

The issue is whether change of venue to the federal court in State B would affect resolution of the rescission issue.

A

Generally, if the venue of an action is transferred when the original venue is proper, then the court to which the action is transferred must apply the law of the state of the transferor court, including that state’s rules regarding conflict of law. However, when venue is transferred based on a valid forum selection clause, the transferee court must apply the law, including the conflict-of-law rules, of the state in which it is located. The transferee court should not apply the law of the transferor court because the parties have contractually waived their right to the application of that law by agreeing to be subject to the laws of the transferee venue.

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12
Q

The issue is whether the judgment in Son v. Driver precludes Mother from suing Driver on a closely related claim when Mother and Son are in a family relationship.

A

The doctrine of claim preclusion (i.e., res judicata) provides that a final judgment on the merits of an action precludes the parties from relitigating an identical claim in a subsequent action. For claim preclusion to apply, the claimant and the defendant must be the same (and in the same roles) in both the original action and the subsequently filed action. Because application of claim preclusion is limited to the parties (or their privies), a similar action by a different party would not be precluded.

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13
Q

The issue is whether the jury’s conclusion in Son v. Driver that Mother, a nonparty, negligently failed to maintain her brake lights precludes Mother from litigating it in Mother’s subsequent suit against Driver.

A

The doctrine of issue preclusion (i.e., collateral estoppel) precludes the relitigation of issues of fact or law that have already been necessarily determined by a judge or jury as part of an earlier claim. Unlike claim preclusion, issue preclusion does not require strict mutuality of parties, but only that the party against whom the issue is to be precluded (or one in privity with that party) was a party to the original action (i.e., offensive collateral estoppel). Other elements necessary for issue preclusion to apply are that: (1) the issue sought to be precluded must be the same as that involved in the prior action; (2) the issue must have been actually litigated in the prior action; (3) the issue must have been determined by a valid and binding final judgment; and (4) the determination of the issue must have been essential to the prior judgment.

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14
Q

The issue is whether the jury’s conclusion in Son v. Driver that Driver was negligent precludes Driver from relitigating that issue in the lawsuit brought by Mother, a nonparty to Son v. Driver.

A

As noted above, the basic elements of issue preclusion have been met: (1) Driver was a party to the first action, (2) Driver’s negligence is the same issue already actually litigated in the Son v. Driver action, and (3) nothing in the facts suggests that there was not a valid and binding final judgment there. Finally, the determination that Driver was negligent was the issue at the core of the action, and therefore, essential to the judgment. As a result, Mother’s offensive use of collateral estoppel would be applicable and Driver might be precluded from relitigating that issue.

However, trial courts have broad discretion to determine when issue preclusion should apply. If a plaintiff could easily have joined in the earlier action, a trial judge may not allow use of offensive collateral estoppel.

Here, Mother could easily have joined in the earlier action, as it was her son who was injured while driving her car. Both his claim for personal injury damages in excess of $75,000 and her claim for property damages to her luxury car in excess of $75,000 arose from the same transaction or occurrence and raised a common question of law or fact (Driver’s negligence). Mother and Son are both citizens of State A and Driver is a citizen of State B, so joinder of her claim would not have destroyed diversity. The federal district court would have diversity jurisdiction over these claims and their joinder in the first action would have promoted judicial efficiency and economy.

Accordingly, in its discretion, the court might choose to deny application of collateral estoppel here.

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15
Q

The issue is whether the FRCP require a plaintiff to file separate actions if the actions involve different legal questions.

A

There is no such limitation in the Federal Rules. A plaintiff has the discretion to assert claims against one or more defendants and it is proper to do so when (1) those claims arise from the same transaction or occurrence, and (2) they raise at least one common question of fact or law.

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16
Q

The issue is whether a defendant may implead a third-party defendant under the belief that the third-party defendant must indemnify the original defendant for liability.

A

A defendant may implead another party when it seeks indemnification or contribution from the other defendant. Their cross-claims must arise out of the same transaction or occurrence. The original defendant becomes a third-party plaintiff and the new defendant becomes the third-party defendant. Cross-claims are not compulsory. Defendants have 14 days after service of their answer to implead a third party. As in the case of joinder of defendants, if the addition of the indemnifying party would destroy diversity, that party cannot be properly added.

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17
Q

The issue is whether the woman and the passenger may join their claims against the man in a single suit.

A

Under the FRCP, a plaintiff is entitled to permissive joinder with another plaintiff if the parties can demonstrate that their claims arose (1) out of the same transaction or occurrence and (2) share common questions of law and fact. A claim may be found to arise from the same transaction or occurrence if it arises from the same event or series of events, relies on the same set of evidence, or where the claims bear a logical relationship to one another.

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18
Q

The issue is whether the woman’s claim against the man is barred by res judicata or due to her waiver of a compulsory counterclaim.

A

Res judicata, or claim preclusion, prevents a party from re-litigating a dispute where (1) the claims in the present proceeding are identical to claims previously litigated in prior litigation; (2) the parties to the new litigation are the same or in privity with the parties in the prior litigation; and (3) the original claim resulted in a final judgment on the merits.

A compulsory counterclaim is any counterclaim which arises from the same transaction or occurrence as the subject of the initial litigation. Typically, if such claims are not raised in the initial litigation, they are deemed waived and cannot be re-litigated.

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19
Q

The issue is whether the federal court has supplemental jurisdiction over the woman’s defamation claim.

A

A federal court can have subject matter jurisdiction over a case through federal question jurisdiction or diversity jurisdiction. Federal question jurisdiction occurs when the claim arises under the laws of the U.S. (constitution, statutes, or treaties). Diversity jurisdiction occurs when there is complete diversity (all plaintiffs are citizens of different states than all defendants) and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.

In addition, federal courts may have supplemental jurisdiction over any other claims arising from a common nucleus of operative fact. This is broader than the same transaction or occurrence standard for other motions. To analyze whether there is a common nucleus of operative fact, courts will ask how much of the evidence will be the same and if the underlying occurrences are largely the same. A court must have an independent ground for jurisdiction over each claim.

20
Q

The issue is whether the state or the federal pleading standard applies.

A

If a federal court finds that there are applicable, contradictory state and federal laws on point, the court must determine which law governs. In the case of a federal statute conflicting with a state law, the federal statute governs under the Supremacy Clause. On the other hand, if the federal law is a rule of procedure or evidence, the court must first determine whether the rule is valid under the Rules Enabling Act. The REA permits the promulgation of federal rules, but to be valid they may not abridge, create, or modify a substantive right. If the federal rule is valid under the REA, the federal court will apply it. If the federal rule does affect a substantive right, the federal court will still apply it if it only incidentally affects the substantive right.

The standard for pleading in federal court, absent a specific federal rule or statute requiring a higher pleading standard, is notice pleading. The plaintiff must allege enough facts to put the defendant on notice of the claims against it and to state a claim for relief that is plausible on its face, but that is the extent of the requirement. The federal standard is set by Fed. R. Civ. P. 8, not a statute, so the Supremacy Clause does not apply. However, the court will apply the federal standard if the rule is valid under the REA. The pleading standard does not affect a substantive right, creating, denying, or modifying any cause of action or other right.

21
Q

The issue is whether the corporation’s contacts with State A are sufficient to warrant personal jurisdiction over the corporation.

A

A federal district court will look to the jurisdictional statutes of the state where it is located to determine whether it can exercise personal jurisdiction over the parties. State long-arm statutes provide a means of exercising jurisdiction over nonresident defendants, provided it complies with due process. In general, due process requirements are satisfied if the nonresident defendant has sufficient minimum contacts with the forum state such that the maintenance of the action does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice. For in personam jurisdiction, a defendant’s contacts with a forum state must be purposeful and substantial, such that the defendant should reasonably anticipate being taken to court there. The scope of contacts necessary depends on the relationship that the cause of action has with the forum state. Specific personal jurisdiction may be warranted even if the contact is the defendant’s only contact with the forum state when a cause of action arises out of or closely relates to that conduct. When a cause of action does not arise out of or relate to the defendant’s contacts with the forum, general personal jurisdiction is warranted only when the defendant is at home in the forum state. A corporation is at home in the state of its incorporation and the state where its principal place of business is located.

[State A’s long-arm statute authorizes personal jurisdiction over nonresident defendants to the same extent allowed under the Due Process Clause of the U.S. Constitution. Because the corporation is incorporated in State B and has its principal place of business in State B, the corporation is not “at home” in State A, and is not subject to general personal jurisdiction. However, the corporation sent representatives to State A who made a presentation on the corporation’s behalf. Because the cause of action arises from statements made in this presentation, this single contact is likely sufficient to establish specific personal jurisdiction. The corporation purposely availed itself of the benefit and protection of State A law by sending those representatives to State A and should have reasonably anticipated a claim arising from the presentation. Finally, the burden is on the defendant to make a compelling case that the fairness considerations outweigh the existence of minimum contacts, which the corporation cannot argue under these facts.

Thus, the court has specific personal jurisdiction over the corporation.]

22
Q

The issue is whether the engineer’s contacts with State A are sufficient to warrant personal jurisdiction over the engineer.

A

As discussed above, the defendant’s contacts with the forum state must be purposeful and substantial in order to exercise in personam jurisdiction. In other words, the defendant must reasonably anticipate that he risks being party to a suit in that particular state.

Here, the engineer’s contacts with State A were neither purposeful nor substantial. He never visited or purposefully directed activity towards State A when creating and preparing the brochures. He conducted no business in State A itself and did nothing to reach out purposefully into that forum. Although the engineer provided sales materials to the corporation that he knew would be distributed to prospective buyers across the country, he only had mere knowledge that the brochures could be distributed in State A. He did not directly or purposefully contact State A in any way. Therefore, the brochures are likely insufficient to establish personal jurisdiction over him.

Thus, the court lacks personal jurisdiction over the engineer.

23
Q

The issue is whether the court has federal question jurisdiction over the woman’s claim.

A

Federal courts have original jurisdiction of all civil actions arising under the laws of the United States. In general, if the cause of action is expressly created by federal law, and federal law provides the underlying right, then federal question jurisdiction will exist. Under the well-pleaded complaint rule, the federal law issue must be presented in the plaintiff’s complaint.

24
Q

The issue is whether the court has supplemental jurisdiciton over the engineer’s cross-claim.

A

When the district court’s subject-matter jurisdiction for a claim is based on the existence of a federal question, additional claims against the same party can be heard by the court through the exercise of supplemental jurisdiction if the common-nucleus-of-operative-fact test is met. Claims arise out of the same nucleus of operative fact if they are part of the same case or controversy and should be tried together. However, a district court has discretion to decline to exercise supplemental jurisdiction (1) over claims that raise new or complex state law issues or that substantially predominate over claims within original federal jurisdiction; (2) when the claims within the court’s original jurisdiction are dismissed; or (3) if there are other compelling reasons for declining jurisdiction in exceptional circumstances.

25
Q

The issue is whether e-mail service would be consistent with the FRCP under these circumstances.

A

The FRCP allow service of process on a corporation outside the U.S. to be made using any methods available for service of an individual outside the United States, except personal delivery. These methods include service in any manner, internationally agreed upon, which is reasonably calculated to give notice. If no international agreement exists, service may be effected by any method ordered by the court that is not prohibited by the law of the foreign country.

Here, the facts indicate that no treaty applies, so the court can likely authorize service by email, so long as laws of Country X do not specifically prohibit such service. Given the fact that the defendant’s street address cannot be determined and the defendant’s business conduct shows a preference for internet communication, service by email would seem reasonably calculated to give notice in this case.

26
Q

The issue is whether email service would be consistent with the U.S. Constitution under these circumstances.

A

Even if the FRCP allow a certain method of service, the method must be constitutional to be employed. To meet the Constitution’s due process requirements, a litigant must be given reasonable notice of the action, under all the circumstances, so as to apprise him of the pendency of the action and allow an opportunity to object. Copyco does not list a street address or post office box and only lists its email address on its website. Under these facts, service by email may be the most likely to reach Copyco and would therefore comport with due process.

27
Q

The issue is what law the federal court should apply to determine the unfair competition claim.

A

SCOTUS has held that a federal court exercising diversity jurisdiction over non-federal claims must apply the choice of law rule of the state in which it sits. Thus, here the U.S. District Court sitting in State A should apply the choice of law rules followed by the courts of State A. THe facts indicate that State A applies the 2d Restatement’s most significant relationship approach to conflicts of law. Under that approach, tort issues are governed by the law of the state that has the most significant relationship to the occurence and the parties, based on several principles. Courts will consider several contacts with the state, including (1) the place where the injury occurred, (2) the place where the conduct causing the injury occurred, (3) the place of incorporation, and the place of business of the parties, and (4) the place where the relationship, if any, between the parties is centered. In tort matters, the default rule is that the place of the injury controls, unless another state has a more significant relationship to the parties or to the occurence of the tort.

[State A wins]

But if the court finds that Country X also has a significant interest in having its laws applied, the court must closely scrutinize the foreign law and the forum state’s public policy. If the foreign law violates the public policy of the forum state, then the forum court may refuse to apply that law.

28
Q

The issue is whether the federal district court in State Y erred in denying Executor’s motion to dismiss for lack of subject matter jurisdiction.

A

Under federal law, a U.S. district court has diversity jurisdiction over a matter if (1) no plaintiff is a citizen of the same state as any defendant and (2) the amount in controversy in the case exceeds $75,000 based on a good-faith assertion. In general, an individual who is a named party in a suit is a citizen of the state in which the individual is domiciled–i.e., the state in which the individual is present and intends to reside for an indefinite period. However, a legal representative of a decedent’s estate will be deemed a citizen of the same state as the decedent–not the state where the legal representative is domiciled. Further, the defense of lack of subject matter jurisdiction may be raised at any time throughout litigation and even on appeal, as it is not waivable.

29
Q

The issue is whether the state court in State X must enforce the federal judgment.

A

A party who obtains a judgment in one state may petition a court in another state to enforce the judgment. Under the U.S. Constitution, state courts are required to give full faith and credit to valid judgments issued by state courts in other states. State courts are likewise required to honor valid judgments issued by federal courts as those judgments would be treated by other federal courts. This means that issues decided in one court cannot be relitigated in another court, and the court in the state in which enforcement is sought must honor the judgment of the federal court. However, a party against whom enforcement of a judgment is sought may collaterally challenge the original judgment based on lack of subject matter jurisdiction if that jurisdictional issue was not litigated in the original action.

[Fed court didn’t have SMJ, but executor didn’t appeal, judgment became final, state court must enforce the federal judgment]

30
Q

The issue is whether the motion to dismiss should be granted for insufficient service of process.

A

Pursuant to the FRCP, service on a U.S. corporation may be effected either by delivering the summons and complaint to an officer, managing agent, general agent, or agent appointed or authorized by law to receive process, or by following state law in the state where the district court is located or where service is made. If a procedural issue in a diversity action is addressed by a valid federal law, then the federal law will be applied, even if a state rule or statute is in conflict.

Here, the federal rule applies because this is a diversity action. Although MedForms’ service did not comply with State A law, where the district court is located, or with the law of State B, where service was made, it did comply with federal rules because it did serve the company’s CEO. Therefore, service was proper and the court should deny the motion to dismiss on these grounds.

31
Q

The issue is whether two corporations are considered diverse when they are incorporated and headquartered in different states but their main facilities are located in the same state.

A

A third-party claim must fall within the federal court’s subject matter jurisdiction. Here, MedForms’ claim against the company is a breach of contract action and does not involve a federal question claim. Therefore, MedForms must establish either diversity or supplemental jurisdiction over the claim.

U.S. district courts have diversity jurisdiction over civil actions when the parties are citizens of different states and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000. A corporation may be a party to a diversity action. A corporation is a citizen of every state where it has been incorporated and of the state where it has its principal place of business. In general, a plaintiff’s good-faith assertion in the complaint that the action satisfies the amount in controversy requirement is sufficient, unless it appears to a legal certainty that the plaintiff cannot recover the amount alleged.

[Did not matter that the woman filed the claim against MedForms and MedForms was suing the company for an unrelated claim. MedForms and the company were diverse even though the woman was a citizen of the same state as MedForms.]

32
Q

The issue is whether joinder of the company as a third party defendant is proper when the claim is factually related to the original cause of action but does not allege that the third party defendant is liable for the original cause of action.

A

Third-party claims (impleader) are claims made by a defending party against a nonparty for all or part of the defending party’s liability on an original claim. The impleaded claim must relate to the original claim against the defending party. In judging whether the claims are related, the test is whether they arise out of a common nucleus of operative fact such that all claims should be tried together in a single judicial proceeding.

[MedForms alleged breach of K but does not allege that any part of its liability on the sexual harassment claim is shared by the company. No common nucleus, joinder of the company as a third-party defendant is improper, even if diversity jurisdiction would be proper over the claim as an independent action.]

[Many examinees may discuss this issue in terms of the joinder standards of Rule 18 (Joinder of Claims) or Rule 19 (Required Joinder of Parties). These examinees fail to recognize that the standards for Rule 14 impleader are different. Those who take this approach might be given some credit if they recognize that it is proper to strike MedForms’s claim against the company because that claim is only tangentially related to the claim of the original plaintiff (the woman) against MedForms. However, full credit is appropriate only if the examinee also recognizes that a third- party complaint is not appropriate merely because the claims are related or arise out of the same transaction. A third-party claim must be based on some legal theory of derivative liability (e.g., that the third-party defendant has a legal obligation to indemnify the original defendant in the event of the original defendant’s liability).]

33
Q

The issue is whether the court should grant the plaintiff’s motion for sanctions.

A

Rule 11 establishes the standards that attorneys and individual parties must meet when filing pleadings, motions, or other papers, and provides sanctions for violations of the rule. Under Rule 11(a), every pleading, written motion, and other paper filed with the court must be signed by at least one attorney of record, or by a party personally if unrepresented. Under Rule 11(b), by presenting to the court a pleading, written motion, or other paper, the signing attorney or unrepresented party certifies that to the best of her knowledge, information, and belief, formed after an inquiry reasonable under the circumstances (i) the paper is not being presented for any improper purpose; (ii) the claims, defenses, and other legal contentions are warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for extending, modifying, or reversing existing law or for establishing new law; (iii) the factual contentions have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, will likely have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; and (iv) the denials of factual contentions are warranted on the evidence or, if specifically so identified, are reasonably based on belief or a lack of information.

A motion for sanctions must be made separately from any other motion and must describe the specific conduct alleged to violate Rule 11. The motion must first be served on the opposing party under Rule 5. The opposing party must then be given 21 days to withdraw or correct the challenged pleading. If this 21-day “safe harbor” period passes, and the opposing party fails to correct the pleading, the party seeking sanctions may file the motion with the court.

34
Q

The issue is whether the court may impose nonmonetary directives, payment of penalties to the court, or attorney’s fees as appropriate sanctions.

A

Under certain circumstances, after notice and a reasonable opportunity to respond, the court may, in its discretion, impose sanctions on attorneys, law firms, and parties for violations of Rule 11. These sanctions are limited to what will deter the misconduct in the future. Sanctions may include nonmonetary directives or an order to pay a penalty into court. If sanctions are imposed on motion and warranted for effective deterrence, an order directing payment to the movant for reasonable attorney’s fees and other expenses directly resulting from the violation may be appropriate.

35
Q

The issue is whether the attorney’s law firm and the defendants are jointly responsible for the attorney’s violation and subject to sanctions.

A

Absent exceptional circumstances, a law firm must be held jointly responsible for a violation committed by its partner, associate, or employee. The court also is not permitted to impose a monetary sanction against a represented party for violating the requirement that the legal contentions of the paper be warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument, although there is some authority for imposing such sanctions on a represented party who knew, or should have known that the claim he asked his lawyer to pursue was legally and factually baseless.

36
Q

The issue is whether the JMOL motion should be granted because the movant’s evidence was more persuasive and more credible.

A

A motion for JMOL at the close of all evidence, or a renewed motion after the return of the verdict, can be granted only if there is no legally sufficient evidentiary basis for a reasonable jury to find for the party opposing the movant. In ruling on such a motion, the trial judge is not authorized to weigh the evidence, pass on credibility of witnesses, or otherwise substitute the judge’s view of the evidence for the jury’s view. The verdict may be overturned only if, on the basis of the evidence, no reasonable jury could have found that Plaintiff had met her burden of proof.

37
Q

The issue is whether a new trial motion should be granted because the movant’s evidence was stronger and mroe credible.

A

Unlike a JMOL motion, no pre-verdict motions are required in order to move for a new trial post-verdict. The trial judge has great power and discretion to prevent a miscarriage of justice. Because an order for a new trial is not a final judgment, such motions are more freely granted than are motions for JMOL. In general, the grounds for a new trial are that the verdict is against the weight of the evidence, thatt he damages are excessive, or that for other reasons–such as errors of law–the trial was not fair. Where the court is convinced that a mistake has been made, such as where the prevailing party’s witnesses were wholly lacking in credibility, a new trial may be ordered. On a motion for new trial, unlike a motion for JMOL, the court is not required to view the evidence in the light most favorable to the verdict winner. It is not proper for a court to grant a new trial on the ground that the verdict is against the great weight of the evidence unless the record shows that the jury’s verdict resulted in a miscarriage of justice.

38
Q

The issue is whether the new trial motion should be granted if a juror improperly failed to reveal information that would bias that juror against Corporation.

A

By showing that a juror improperly failed to disclose information that would bias the juror against Corporation, Corporation has identified an error that could have influenced the verdict. Through questions during voir dire, jurors are screened for potential bias. Although motions for a new trial based on juror nondisclosures during voir dire are often unsuccessful, if the withheld information would have justified a disqualification for cause, a new trial should be granted. The fact that ajuror has potential biases, however, is not enough to warrant striking the juror from the jury for cause. The question is whether those potential biases are also actual biases. If the court concludes the juror’s bias fundamentally undermined the fairness of the trial, the court should grant the motion for a new trial.

39
Q

Temporary Restraining Order

A

A temporary restraining order (TRO) preserves the status quo of the parties until there is an opportunity to hold a full hearing on whether to grant a preliminary injunction. A TRO has immediate effect and lasts no longer than 14 days unless good cause exists. A TRO can be issued without notice to the adverse party if the moving party can show (1) that immediate and irreparable injury will result prior to hearing the adverse party’s arguments and (2) the efforts made at giving notice and the reason why notice should not be required. Additionally, the party seeking a TRO usually must give security (typically by posting a bond) to cover the costs and damages sustained by a party that is ultimately found to have been wrongfully restrained.

40
Q

Preliminary Injunction

A

A preliminary injunction can be issued if the opponent is given notice and the court holds a hearing on the issue. A party seeking a preliminary injunction must establish that: (1) the party is likely to succeed on the merits; (2) the party is likely to suffer irreparable harm in the absence of relief; (3) the balance of equities is in the party’s favor; and (4) the injunction is in the public’s best interest. Additionally, the party seeking the preliminary injunction usually must provide security like it would for a TRO.

41
Q

The issue is what actions the district court could take to allow the woman to immediately appeal the court’s dismissal of her complaint against the insurance company, and whether the court should take those actions.

A

To immediately appeal the dismissal of her complaint, the court could make a finding that there is no just reason for delay and direct the entry of a final judgment.

Generally, under the FRCP, a party may only appeal a case when the district court has dispensed with all the claims and parties in a case and has entered a final judgment on the case. Interlocutory orders, such as dismissal of a third party complaint, are generally not appealable until the main case is dispensed with.

However, where there are multiple claims and parties in a case, it is possible for the district court judge to make a decision with regard to one of the claims, and make an explicit finding that there is no just reason for delay and that a final order be entered. In these cases, a party may appeal the decision immediately. A court may make this finding in the interests of justice.

42
Q

The issue is whether the woman may bring the company into the action as a third-party defendant.

A

Under the FRCP, a defendant may implead a third party defendant if the defendant claims that such party is responsible for indemnifying or is otherwise vicariously liable for any liability the defendant owes to the plaintiff in the main action. For joinder of third parties generally, the claims must be based on the same transaction or occurrence at issue in the main action, and there must be at least one common question of law or fact.

43
Q

The issue is whether Developer is a necessary party.

A

Under FRCP 19(a), a party is necessary for just adjudication if (1) complete relief cannot be provided to existing parties in absence of that person; (2) disposition in their absence may impair the ability of that party to protect its interest; and (3) that party’s absence would leave existing parties subject to substantial risk of multiple or inconsistent obligations. A court must join such a party if it is feasible to do so, meaning the court has jurisdiction over that party.

Here, b/c Builder has not received final payment from Developer, the court cannot adequately award relief without determining whether Developer must pay Builder. Builder is claiming to be an intended beneficiary under the contract between Lender and Developer. A court cannot determine the rights and obligations under this K without including Developer in the action. Developer’s interests are arguably represented b/c Lender has an interest in defending the suit, but the interests of Lender and Developer could easily diverge since each believes the other is responsible for paying Builder. A resolution of the lawsuit in Lender’s favor would likely subject Developer to liability. Thus, Developer is a necessary party and must be joined if feasible.

44
Q

The issue is whether Developer is indispensable.

A

If a necessary party under Rule 19(a) cannot be joined because of jurisdiction or venue, the court may dismiss the action after considering several factors, including (1) the extent to which judgment without the party would prejudice them or existing parties; (2) the extent to which protective measures could prevent prejudice; (3) whether judgment rendered in necessary party’s absence would be adequate; and (4) whether the plaintiff would have an adequate remedy if the action were dismissed.

45
Q

The issue is whether, under the Federal Rules, a defendant may amend its answer after the close of discovery to add a well-established affirmative defense.

A

Generally, the defendant’s answer must state any avoidance or affirmative defense that the defendant has, or that defense is deemed waived. However, the Rules also provide that pleadings can and should be amended by leave of the court when justice so requires. Courts will generally permit the amendment unless it would result in undue prejudice to the opposing party.