civ pro Flashcards

1
Q

At issue is whether the engineer’s report was prepared in anticipation of litigation.

A

Discovery is generally permitted with regard to any non-privileged matter relevant to any party’s claim or defense in the action. Information within the scope of discovery need not be admissible in evidence to be discoverable. The test is whether the information sought is relevant to any party’s claim or defense. In general, a party may not discover documents and tangible things that are prepared in anticipation of litigation or for trial by or for another party or its representative. Such materials will be subject to discovery, however, if the party shows that it has substantial need for the materials to prepare its case and cannot, without undue hardship, obtain their substantial equivalent by other means.

In this case, the engineer’s report is discoverable because it is relevant to the builder’s defense in the action. The customer cannot claim that the report is “work product” because it was not made in anticipation of litigation. The customer hired the engineer to evaluate the foundation as part of ongoing negotiations with the builder. When the engineer completed the report on June 30, the parties were merely trying to discover the reason for the flooding. There is no indication that either party was preparing for litigation at that time. Thus, the structural engineer’s report is discoverable and the court should order the customer to turn it over.

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2
Q

he issue is whether the destruction of the emails is excused when litigation was being contemplated by the builder.

A

A party may request the other party to produce and permit the inspection of any discoverable documents or electronically stored information. Here, the emails are discoverable because they relate to the foundation and may be relevant to the litigation. A party may be subject to sanctions for failing to take reasonable steps to preserve electronically stored information that should have been preserved in the anticipation or conduct of litigation.

Although the builder hoped to avoid litigation, it clearly anticipated that litigation was possible when it hired an attorney on July 10. The builder knew the litigation involved the foundation and that the emails may be relevant to either the customer’s claim or its own defense. Nevertheless, the builder failed to preserve the emails when they were destroyed on August 2. Thus, the builder failed to preserve information that should have been preserved and may be subject to sanctions.

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3
Q

n determining sanctions, the court should consider the prejudice to another party and the intent of the party that failed to preserve the evidence.

A

If a party failed to preserve electronically stored information that should have been preserved and it cannot be restored or replaced, the court may order sanctions against the wrongful party. The court may: (i) upon finding prejudice to another party, order measures no greater than necessary to cure the prejudice, or (ii) upon finding that the party acted with the intent to deprive another party of the information, may presume the lost information was unfavorable to the party, instruct the jury that it may or must presume the information was unfavorable, or dismiss the action or enter a default judgment.

In this case, the court is unlikely to impose severe sanctions because there is no prejudice to the customer and there is no evidence that the builder intended to deprive the customer of relevant evidence. The loss of the emails likely will not prejudice the customer’s case because the customer can present other evidence that the foundation of the house was poorly constructed. Further, it is not clear that the emails would be helpful to the customer’s case because their contents are unknown. Additionally, the emails were destroyed pursuant to the builder’s standard document retention plan. There is no evidence that the builder acted deliberately in preventing discovery. Under these circumstances, the court is not likely to impose severe sanctions such as presuming the emails were unfavorable to the builder or entering default judgment. However, the court may impose less severe sanctions such as requiring the builder to reimburse any expenses the customer incurs in collecting evidence to replace the lost emails.

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4
Q

Claim Preclusion

The issue is whether a judgment in a prior action preclude a nonparty from suing the same defendant on a closely related claim when the nonparty and the original plaintiff are in a family relationship.

A

The doctrine of claim preclusion (res judicata) provides that a final judgment on the merits of an action precludes the parties from successive litigation of an identical claim in a subsequent action. For claim preclusion to apply, the claimant and the defendant must be the same (and in the same roles) in both the original action and the subsequently filed action. Because application of claim preclusion is limited to the parties (or their privies), a similar action by a different party would not be precluded. Here, Mother was not a party to the Son v. Driver case. She and her son are both adults and there is no indication that Son was representing Mother’s interests in his case. He brought the claim for his personal injuries, and did not include Mother’s interests in recovering for the total loss of her car.

Therefore, because Mother was neither a party, nor privy to a party, in Son’s suit, she is not barred from bringing a subsequent action.

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5
Q

Issue Preclusion (35%)

The issue is whether a judgment rendered in an earlier action preclude a nonparty from litigating an issue that was actually decided in the first suit.

A

The doctrine of issue preclusion (collateral estoppel) precludes the relitigation of issues of fact or law that have already been necessarily determined by a judge or jury as part of an earlier claim. Unlike claim preclusion, issue preclusion does not require strict mutuality of parties, but only that the party against whom the issue is to be precluded (or one in privity with that party) must have been a party to the original action. Other elements necessary for issue preclusion to apply are that (i) the issue sought to be precluded must be the same as that involved in the prior action; (ii) the issue must have been actually litigated in the prior action; (iii) the issue must have been determined by a valid and binding final judgment; and (iv) the determination of the issue must have been essential to the prior judgment.

Here, though several of the elements are present, not all are. Therefore, the judgment will not preclude Mother from relitigating the issue of her negligence. The issue of her negligence in failing to maintain the brake lights on her car was litigated in the first action and decided by the jury; that judgment was a final one. But, Mother was neither a party nor in privity with a party to the first action in which Son alleged that Driver had been negligent. Further, nothing in the facts suggests that determination of the issue of Mother’s negligence was essential to the prior judgment against Driver. Accordingly, Mother is not precluded from relitigating the issue of her negligence in her subsequent suit against Driver.

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6
Q

Collateral estoppel

The issue is whether a nonparty to an earlier action may invoke the judgment in that action to preclude a party to the prior action from relitigating an issue that the party had a full and fair opportunity to litigate in the earlier action.

A

Mother may seek to use collateral estoppel offensively and preclude Driver from relitigating the issue of Driver’s negligence, which had already been decided against Driver. As noted above, the basic elements of issue preclusion have been met: (1) Driver was a party to the first action, (2) Driver’s negligence is the same issue already actually litigated in the Son v. Driver action—nothing in the facts suggests that there was not a valid and binding final judgment there. Finally, (3) the determination of the issue was at the core of the action, essential to the judgment. Therefore, Mother’s offensive use of collateral estoppel would be applicable and Driver might be precluded from relitigating that issue.

However, trial courts have broad discretion to determine when issue preclusion should apply. If a plaintiff could easily have joined in the earlier action, a trial judge should not allow use of offensive collateral estoppel.

Here, Mother could easily have joined in the earlier action, as it was her son who was injured while driving her car. Both his claim for personal injury damages in excess of $75,000 and her claim for property damages to her luxury car in excess of $75,000 arose from the same transaction or occurrence and raised a common question of law or fact (Driver’s negligence). Mother and Son are both citizens of State A and Driver is a citizen of State B. Joinder of her claim would not have destroyed diversity. The federal district court would have diversity jurisdiction over these claims and their joinder in the first action would have promoted judicial efficiency and economy.

Accordingly, in its discretion, the court might choose to deny application of collateral estoppel here.

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7
Q

The state court in State X must enforce the federal judgment

A

Under the U.S. Constitution, state courts are required to give full faith and credit to the judgments of other states. State courts are likewise required to treat federal judgments as those judgments would be treated by the federal courts. A party against whom enforcement of a judgment is sought may collaterally challenge the original state judgment based on lack subject matter jurisdiction, only if the jurisdictional issues were not litigated or waived in the original action. Here, Executor raised lack of subject matter jurisdiction in the federal court action and the issue was heard and decided by the court. Even though, as explained above, the federal court’s decision on the issue was in error, no appeal was taken, so the court’s judgment became final. If executor had wanted to challenge jurisdiction, he should have filed an appeal. The state court should therefore enforce the federal judgment.

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8
Q

The issue is whether the case was properly removed from state court in State A to federal court in State A.

A

Generally, the defendant in any civil action filed in state court has the right to remove it to the district court for the district in which the state court action was filed as long as the civil action is within the original jurisdiction of a U.S. district court. Federal courts may exercise original diversity jurisdiction over actions when (i) the parties to an action are citizens of different states and (ii) the amount in controversy in the action exceeds $75,000. Here, the facts indicate that Owner is a citizen of State A and Restorer is a citizen of State B. Owner is seeking a return of the $100,000 paid to Restorer and so the amount in controversy exceeds the $75,000 amount required for diversity jurisdiction. Generally, a plaintiff’s good-faith assertion in the complaint that the action satisfies the amount-in-controversy requirement is sufficient, unless it appears to a legal certainty that the plaintiff cannot recover the amount alleged. Here, the facts do not indicate that the alleged amount in controversy is being challenged. Therefore, in light of the above facts, the federal court in State A had removal jurisdiction over the case.

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9
Q

The issue is whether the court can properly grant a change of venue motion based on a forum selection clause that is not enforceable under the law of the state where the case was originally filed.

A

For the convenience of the parties and in the interests of justice, a district court may transfer any civil action to any other district or division where it might have been brought. Venue is proper in a judicial district in which any defendant resides or in a judicial district in which a substantial part of the events or omissions on which the claim is based occurred. Here, the claim might have been originally brought in State B because that is where the defendant Restorer resides. In addition, a substantial part of the events took place in State B as the contract was drafted and signed in State B and the Restorer’s alleged performance occurred in State B. Therefore, the matter might originally have been brought in State B.

Moreover, when transfer is sought on the basis of a forum selection clause in a contract, the clause is accorded respect. If the clause specifies a federal forum, most circuit courts treat the clause as prima facie valid, to be set aside only upon a strong showing that transfer would be unreasonable and unjust or that the clause was invalid for reasons such as fraud or overreaching. Furthermore, the Supreme Court held that a forum selection clause should be given “controlling weight in all but the most exceptional cases,” even if the clause is unenforceable under applicable state law. Here, the contract, which was drafted and signed in State B, contained a forum selection clause. There are no facts to indicate fraud or any other exceptional circumstances that would cause a court to not adhere to the forum selection clause contained in the contract. Although there appear to be valid arguments on both sides of the convenience issue overall, the forum selection clause should be given controlling weight here. Accordingly, the court should grant the motion to transfer the case to the federal court in State B based on the forum selection clause.

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10
Q

The issue is whether change of venue to Court B would affect resolution of the rescission issue.

A

Generally, if the venue of an action is transferred when the original venue is proper (as discussed above), the court to which the action is transferred must apply the law of the state of the transferor court, including that state’s rules regarding conflict of law. However, when venue is transferred based on a valid forum selection clause, the transferee court must apply the law, including the choice-of-law rules, of the state in which it is located. The transferee court should not apply the law of the transferor court because the parties have contractually waived their right to the application of that law by agreeing to be subject to the laws of the transferee venue.

Here, the facts indicate that under State A’s conflict-of-laws rules, State A would apply its own law to resolve the rescission issue. If venue is transferred to State B pursuant to the forum selection clause, the district court there must apply State B’s law, including State B’s conflict-of-laws rules, as the parties have contractually agreed to be subject to the laws of State B. As a result, State B would apply its own law to resolve the rescission issue. Accordingly, change of venue would affect the law to be applied in resolution of the rescission issue.

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11
Q

Nonparty Intervention (50%)

At issue is whether the logging company should be allowed to intervene as a matter of right when it has an interest in the action.

A

Under Rule 24, a nonparty has the right to intervene in an action when, upon timely motion, (1) the nonparty has an interest in the subject matter of the action; (2) the disposition of the action may impair the nonparty’s interests; and (3) the nonparty’s interest is not adequately represented by existing parties. The burden is on the party seeking to intervene.

First, the company has a strong interest in the subject of this action. The USFS accepted the company’s bid and has decided to issue a permit to the company. The nonprofit’s immediate purpose in this lawsuit is to prevent the issuance of that permit. Therefore, the company has a substantial interest in the subject matter of the lawsuit.

Second, the logging company’s interest in receiving the permit may be impaired by the outcome of the lawsuit. If the nonprofit wins the suit, the USFS will have to prepare an environmental impact statement, which might delay or even eliminate the company’s ability to receive the permit. Once the court has decided in favor of the nonprofit, the logging company will be at a clear disadvantage in protecting its interest in the logging permit.

Third, the USFS does not adequately represent the logging company’s interest. Although the interests of the USFS and the logging company might be parallel at present, those interests could easily diverge throughout the litigation. The USFS is ultimately concerned with proper management of national forests and the logging company is ultimately concerned with earning a profit.

Therefore, it is likely that this condition, and all the conditions for intervention have been met and the logging company must be allowed to join the lawsuit.

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12
Q

Temporary Restraining Order

A

A temporary restraining order (TRO) preserves the status quo of the parties until there is an opportunity to hold a full hearing on whether to grant a preliminary injunction. A TRO has immediate effect and lasts no longer than 14 days unless good cause exists. A TRO can be issued without notice to the adverse party if the moving party can show (1) that immediate and irreparable injury will result prior to hearing the adverse party’s arguments and (2) the efforts made at giving notice and the reason why notice should not be required. Additionally, the party seeking a TRO must post a bond to cover the costs in the event the TRO is issued wrongfully.

In this case, the nonprofit can show that the USFS and the logging company are both presently prepared to begin cutting down 5,000 acres of old-growth forest which would have an immediate and irreparable adverse impact on the highest concentration of wildlife in the western U.S. Therefore, the court is likely to grant the TRO preventing USFS from issuing the logging permit until there has been a hearing on the issue.

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13
Q

Preliminary Injunction

A

The issue is whether the nonprofit could obtain a preliminary injunction to stop the USFS from issuing a logging permit.

A preliminary injunction can be issued if the opponent is given notice and the court holds a hearing on the issue. A party seeking a preliminary injunction must establish that: (1) the party is likely to succeed on the merits; (2) the party is likely to suffer irreparable harm in the absence of relief; (3) the balance of equities is in his favor; and (4) the injunction is in the best interest of the public. Additionally, the party seeking the preliminary injunction must provide a bond to cover the costs in the event the preliminary injunction is issued wrongfully.

First, the nonprofit can show it is likely to succeed on the merits in its claim that USFS violated federal law. NEPA requires the USFS to prepare an environmental impact statement before proceeding with the logging project. In this case, USFS not only failed to prepare an impact statement, it failed to conduct any environmental evaluation whatsoever. Thus, the nonprofit is able to show it will likely succeed on the merits.

Second, this logging project has potential to cause significant and permanent harm to 5,000 acres of old-growth forest and the abundance of wildlife living in the logging area. This is a clear example of irreparable harm to the environment, so the nonprofit can show the need for relief.

Third, the nonprofit can show the balance of equities weighs in its favor. The harm to USFS is minimal because issuing the preliminary injunction would merely delay its development. Although the logging company could lose money during the delay, the company could be compensated for these economic losses. These harms are minimal compared with the irreparable harm to the environment.

Finally, the court must consider whether important public policy concerns are at issue. There is a strong public policy in preventing USFS from proceeding without first complying with a federal statute and environmental standards. Therefore, the nonprofit is likely to succeed in its request for a preliminary injunction.

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14
Q

The court did not err in allowing the amendment.

A

The issue is whether, under the Federal Rules, a defendant may amend its answer after the close of discovery to add a well-established affirmative defense.

As provided in the fact pattern, a well-established affirmative defense is available in cases of this sort if the defendant employer proves that (i) the plaintiff employee was not subject to any adverse job action, (ii) the employer exercised reasonable care to prevent and promptly correct any sexually harassing behavior, and (iii) the plaintiff employee unreasonably failed to take advantage of any preventive or corrective opportunities provided by the employer.

Here, Plaintiff admitted that she had not suffered any loss of pay or promotion opportunity, allowing Defendant to claim that Plaintiff was not subject to any adverse job action. Although Plaintiff stated that she had not seen any effort on the part of Defendant to enforce the policies and practices to prevent sex discrimination, Defendant may be able to provide proof of its enforcement. Finally, because Plaintiff stated that she was aware of company policies forbidding sex discrimination and sexual harassment, as well as the procedures that employees could use to complain about perceived discrimination, Defendant can assert that this reason was “unreasonable,” allowing Defendant to meet the final element to claim an affirmative defense.

Generally, the Defendant’s answer must state any avoidance or affirmative defense that the defendant has, or that is deemed waived. However, the Rules also provide that pleadings can and should be amended by leave of the court when justice requires it. Courts will generally permit the amendment unless it would result in undue prejudice to the opposing party.

Defendant has a viable argument that justice requires permission to raise the affirmative defense, so the case can be judged on its merits. Defendant can offer that, as reason for its failure to include the affirmative defense in its answer, it was only able to determine such a defense conformed to the evidence after the deposition of Claimant. For example, particularly the third element needed to raise the affirmative defense, requiring the plaintiff employee to “unreasonably” fail to take advantage of preventive or corrective opportunities provided by the employer, could not be known before discovery. Further, allowing the affirmative defense would cause no undue prejudice to the plaintiff, because she had reason to know better than anyone the facts that would support viability of the affirmative defense. The facts do not provide any other reason that Plaintiff would be unduly prejudiced by the amendment.

Because Defendant did not have the information it needed to make this affirmative defense until after timely filing its answer, the court could validly find that justice requires permission to add the affirmative defense so that the case could best be judged on its merits and that Plaintiff would not be unduly prejudiced by the addition, the court properly granted Defendant’s motion to amend the answer by adding the affirmative defense.

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15
Q

The court erred in granting summary judgment.

A

The issue is whether summary judgment is appropriate when Plaintiff’s response to discovery supports Defendant’s affirmative defense but there might remain issues of material fact.

A motion for summary judgment should be granted if the pleadings, discovery, and disclosure materials on file, and any affidavits show that there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and that the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. A genuine issue of material fact exists when a reasonable jury could return a verdict in favor of the non-moving party. In ruling on a motion for summary judgment, the court is to construe all evidence in the light most favorable to the non-moving party and resolve all doubts in favor of the non-moving party.

Here, Defendant relied on Plaintiff’s deposition testimony to support its affirmative defense. Plaintiff’s deposition testimony was that she suffered no loss of pay or promotion opportunity and was aware of company policy forbidding sex discrimination and harassment, as well as procedures for complaints about policy violations. That part of her testimony supports Defendant’s argument that it had not imposed any adverse job action, exercised reasonable care to prevent and correct sexually harassing behavior, and that plaintiff unreasonably failed to use the corrective measures available to her. However, Plaintiff also testified that she had seen no effort on Defendant’s part to enforce the policies and was afraid that she would suffer retaliation if she made use of the corrective opportunities. That part of her testimony, especially when viewed in the light most favorable to Plaintiff, the non-moving party, would allow a jury to find that Defendant had not exercised reasonable care to prevent and promptly correct any sexually harassing behavior when it relied on the Plaintiff or supervisors to report the behaviors. (Here, it would also be significant that the supervisor was a person allegedly doing a significant amount of harassing.) Further, when viewed in the light most favorable to the Plaintiff as non-moving party, a court could find that there was a genuine issue as to the reasonableness of Plaintiff’s failure to take advantage of the preventive and corrective opportunities because of her fear of retaliation.

Therefore, because there were genuine issues of material facts regarding the employer’s actions to prevent and correct any sexually harassing behavior Plaintiff’s failure to take advantage of those preventive measures, the trial court erred in granting summary judgment.

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16
Q

The issue is whether the defendants have sufficient contacts with State A to warrant personal jurisdiction.

1.a. Personal jurisdiction over the corporation

A

n general, due process requirements are satisfied if the nonresident defendant has sufficient minimum contacts with the forum state such that the maintenance of the action does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice. The scope of the contacts necessary for the assertion of personal jurisdiction depends on the relationship that the cause of action has with the forum state. When a cause of action does not arise out of or relate to the defendant’s contacts with the forum, the court must resort to general jurisdiction. To determine whether a foreign corporation is subject to a state’s general jurisdiction, the proper inquiry is whether a corporation’s affiliations with the forum state are so “continuous and systematic” as to render the corporation essentially “at home” in the forum state. A corporate defendant is always “at home” in the state of the corporation’s place of incorporation and, if different, the state of its principal place of business. In exceptional cases, a corporate defendant’s operations in another forum may be so substantial and of such a nature as to render the corporation “at home” in that state even if the state is not the corporation’s place of incorporation or principle place of business, but such cases are rare. However, even when general jurisdiction is unavailable, the court will have specific jurisdiction over a defendant when the cause of action arises out of or closely relates to a defendant’s contact with the forum state.

Because the corporation is incorporated in State B, has its principal place of business in State B, and lacks the requisite contacts to be deemed “at home” in State A, the corporation is not subject to general personal jurisdiction in State A. However, the corporation sent representatives to State A, and those representatives made a presentation on the corporation’s behalf. Because the cause of action arises from statements made in this presentation, this single contact is likely sufficient to establish specific personal jurisdiction. The corporation purposely availed itself of the benefit and protection of State A law, and should reasonably anticipate a claim arising from the presentation. Finally, the burden is on the defendant to make a compelling case that the fairness considerations outweigh the existence of minimum contacts, which the corporation cannot argue under these facts.

Thus, the court has specific personal jurisdiction over the corporation.

17
Q

Personal jurisdiction over engineer

A

the defendant’s contacts with the forum state must be purposeful and substantial in order to exercise in personam jurisdiction. The Supreme Court has held that merely placing a product in the stream of commerce with awareness that it might reach a particular state is not a sufficient basis to exercise jurisdiction over the manufacturer of the product. Even when foreseeable, unless the state was targeted, jurisdiction is not established.

Here, the engineer provided sales materials to the corporation that he knew would be distributed to prospective buyers across the country and he may reasonably foresee that buyers in State A might rely on those materials. However, the engineer’s conduct took place entirely within State B. He never visited or purposefully directed activity towards State A, and placing the brochures in the stream of commerce is insufficient to establish personal jurisdiction over him.

Thus, the court lacks personal jurisdiction over the engineer

18
Q

At issue is whether the court has subject matter jurisdiction over the claims via federal question, diversity, or supplemental jurisdiction.

A

Federal courts have original jurisdiction of all civil actions arising under the laws of the United States. In general, if the cause of action is expressly created by federal law, and federal law provides the underlying right, then federal question jurisdiction will exist. Under the well-pleaded complaint rule, the federal law issue must be presented in the plaintiff’s complaint. Here, the woman’s cause of action is based on a federal statute prohibiting misstatements in the sale of solar panels and she appears to have stated this issue in her complaint. Thus, the court has federal question jurisdiction over the claim.

2.b. Engineer’s cross-claim (40%)

When the district court’s subject matter jurisdiction for a claim is based on the existence of a federal question, additional claims against the same party can be heard by the court through the exercise of supplemental jurisdiction if the common-nucleus-of-operative-fact test is met. Claims arise out of the same nucleus of operative fact if they are part of the same case or controversy and should be tried together.

In this case, the engineer alleges that the corporation must indemnify him under their contract regarding the brochures he prepared. Because these brochures are part of the woman’s claim, the engineer’s cross-claim likely arises out of a common nucleus of operative fact. Thus, the court has supplemental jurisdiction to hear the cross-claim.

A district court has discretion to decline to exercise supplemental jurisdiction (i) over claims that raise new or complex state law issues or that substantially predominate over claims within original federal jurisdiction; (ii) when the claims within the court’s original jurisdiction are dismissed; or (iii) if there are other compelling reasons for declining jurisdiction in exceptional circumstances. Here, these conditions do not appear to apply, and the court will likely hear the cross-claim.

19
Q

Insufficient service of process

A

Pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP), service on a U.S. corporation may be effected either by delivering the summons and complaint to an officer, managing agent, general agent, or agent appointed or authorized by law to receive process, or by following state law in the state where the district court is located or where service is made. If a procedural issue in a diversity action is addressed by a valid federal law, then the federal law will be applied, even if a state rule or statute is in conflict.

Here, the federal rule applies because this is a diversity action. Although MedForms’ service did not comply with the law of State A, where the district court is located, or with the law of State B, where service was made, it did comply with the federal rule because it did serve the company’s chief executive officer. Therefore, service was proper and the court should dismiss the motion to dismiss on these grounds.

20
Q

Subject-matter jurisdiction

A

At issue is whether two corporations are considered diverse when they are incorporated and headquartered in different states but their main facilities are located in the same state.

A third-party claim must fall within the federal court’s subject matter jurisdiction. Here, MedForms’ claim against the company is a breach of contract action and does not involve a federal question claim. Therefore, MedForms must establish either diversity or supplemental jurisdiction over the claim.

U.S. district courts have diversity jurisdiction over actions when the parties are citizens of different states and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000. A corporation may be a party to a diversity action. A corporation is a citizen of every State where it has been incorporated and of the State where it has its principal place of business. In general, a plaintiff’s good-faith assertion in the complaint that the action satisfies the amount-in-controversy requirement is sufficient, unless it appears to a legal certainty that the plaintiff cannot recover the amount alleged.

MedForms is incorporated in State A, where it also has its headquarters and document processing facilities. MedForms is a citizen of State A. The company’s headquarters are located in State B, where it is incorporated and where its chief executive officer was served with process. Though the company’s only document processing facility is located in State A, this does not affect diversity here. The Supreme Court no longer looks toward where the corporation’s actual physical operations were located. Instead, the Court holds that the principal place of business refers to the “nerve center” of the corporation. The nerve center is generally the location from which the high-level officers direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the corporation. Typically, the nerve center is the corporate headquarters. As its headquarters and CEO are located in State B, the company’s nerve center is in State B. Therefore, diversity of parties is met. MedForms is seeking $500,000 in damages from the company. Nothing in the facts here suggests that MedForms’ damages amount was not made in good faith. Therefore, the amount in controversy requirement has also been met.

Accordingly, the court has diversity jurisdiction over the claim as the parties are citizens of different states and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.

21
Q

Improper joinder

A

The issue is whether joinder of the company as a third party defendant is proper when the claim is factually related to the original cause of action but does not allege that the third-party defendant is liable for the original cause of action.

Third-party claims (impleader) are claims made by a defending party against a nonparty for all or part of the defending party’s liability on an original claim. The impleaded claim must relate to the original claim against the defending party. In judging whether the claims are related, the test is whether they arise out of a “common nucleus of operative fact” such that all claims should be tried together in a single judicial proceeding.

Here, MedForms alleges that the company breached its contract with MedForms but does not allege that any part of its liability on the original sexual harassment and sexual discrimination claims is shared by the company. Instead, it alleges breach of contract. Nothing in the facts suggests the company had any involvement in the situation that forms the basis of the woman’s claims, i.e., her supervisor’s behavior. Nor do the facts reflect that the contract in question included terms on indemnification that may be applicable. Thus, MedForms’ alleged liability on the original claim appears to be unrelated to the company, and these claims appear to have no common-nucleus-of-operative-facts.

Therefore, joinder of the company as a third-party defendant is improper, even if diversity jurisdiction would be proper over the claim as an independent action.

22
Q

Insufficiency of Service of Process – Waiver

A

The issue is whether Bartender waived the defense of insufficiency of service of process by failing to raise it in his first motion to dismiss. A defendant may file a motion under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 12(b) to raise several different defenses, including failure to state a claim on which relief can be granted and insufficient service of process. These defenses must be raised in the first pre-answer motion (or if none, in the answer), or else they are generally waived. Under the “omnibus motion” rule, when a party makes a pre-answer motion raising one of these defenses but omitting the others, the party may not make another pre-answer motion raising one of the omitted defenses that was available to the party when the earlier motion was filed. The party is deemed to have waived the excluded defenses. Rule 12(g)(2), (h)(1)(A). Although not specifically provided for in the Rules, courts have generally allowed a party to amend a motion to dismiss to raise an omitted ground if the party acts promptly and before the court rules on the original motion.

Prior to filing an answer to the complaint, Bartender initially filed a motion to dismiss the complaint for failure to state a cause of action, and failed to amend the motion before the court ruled on it. When that motion was denied, he filed a second motion to dismiss, this time for insufficient service of process. In neglecting to raise certain available defenses together in the initial motion, Bartender waived any such omitted defenses and may not raise another such defense in a later motion. Here, Bartender seems to have had a valid claim that service of process was insufficient. (Service was not personal, nor made on a suitable person at his usual place of abode, nor served on an agent authorized to accept service.) Nevertheless, the court properly denied Bartender’s motion to dismiss because Bartender waived the defense when he failed to include it in his initial motion to dismiss.

23
Q

Cross-Claim

A

The issue is whether Bartender’s cross-claim for battery arises out of the same transaction or occurrence as the original claim. The Rules provide that an answer may state as a cross-claim any claim against a co-defendant, as long as the cross-claim arises out of the same event that is the subject of the original claim. Here, Plaintiff’s battery claim injuries and Bartender’s battery claim injuries occurred in the same place, at approximately the same time, and were allegedly inflicted by the same person, Dave. Further, Bartender’s cross-claim and Plaintiff’s claim involve the same legal and nearly the same factual issues. Both are state law claims of battery and both involve factual questions surrounding the events that occurred nearly simultaneously at the O.K. Bar. Proof of both claims would necessarily involve the same evidence (most likely, witness testimony about the event). Thus, allowing Bartender to join a cross-claim for battery in his answer to Plaintiff’s complaint is appropriate because the cross-claim arises out of the same transaction or occurrence as the original claim, it involves the same factual and legal issues, and it will likely be relevant to present the same eyewitness evidence in support of proof of both claims.

24
Q

Subject Matter Jurisdiction

A

Federal Question Jurisdiction

The issue is whether Bartender’s cross-claim arises under federal law. Federal district courts have original jurisdiction over all civil actions “arising under the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the United States.” Here, Bartender’s cross-claim of battery is brought under state law. His cause of action was not expressly created by federal law but rather by state law. Therefore Bartender’s cross-claim does not arise under federal law and the U.S. District Court does not have original federal question jurisdiction.

Diversity Jurisdiction

Federal district courts have jurisdiction over actions when (i) the parties are citizens of different states and (ii) the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000. In this case, there is no diversity jurisdiction over the cross-claim as Bartender and Dave are both citizens of State A and the amount Bartender is seeking in damages is below the $75,000+ minimum required for diversity actions.

3.(b) Supplemental Jurisdiction (20%)

The issue is whether Bartender’s cross-claim arises out of the same “common nucleus of operative fact” as the original claim. When a federal district court has jurisdiction over a claim, the court can assert supplemental jurisdiction over additional claims over which the court would not independently have subject matter jurisdiction if they arise out of a “common nucleus of operative fact.” The federal district court here has diversity jurisdiction over the original claims brought by Plaintiff against Bartender and Dave. Plaintiff is a citizen of State B, while Bartender and Dave are citizens of State A and Plaintiff is claiming amounts well over the $75,000+ minimum required for diversity jurisdiction. As discussed in the answer to Question 2, both the original claim and the cross-claim arise out of the same occurrence, share common factual and legal issues, and will need to rely to some extent on the same evidence. Bartender’s cross-claim would therefore presumably be seen to arise out of a “common nucleus of operative fact” (the bar fight at the O.K. Bar) and fall within the court’s supplemental jurisdiction.