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SEROLOGY MTAP 1 > Ciulla’s Success in Clinical Laboratory Science (CHAPTER REVIEW) > Flashcards

Ciulla’s Success in Clinical Laboratory Science (CHAPTER REVIEW) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The image below depicts a monomeric immunoglobulin molecule.
    The portion of the molecule indicated by the dotted red circle and the red arrow is called the:

A. Fab fragment
B. Fc fragment
C. Heavy chain
D. Hinge region

A

A. Fab fragment

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2
Q
  1. A hapten is

A. Half of an immunoglobulin molecule
B. An earner molecule for an antigen that is not antigenic alone
C. An immunoglobulin functional only in the presence of complement
D. A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier

A

D. A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of B cells?

A. Phagocytic
B. Participate in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) reactions
C. Contain surface immunoglobulins
D. Secrete the C5 component of complement

A

C. Contain surface immunoglobulins

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4
Q
  1. A lymphokine is:

A. A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes and affecting lymphocytes
B. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes
C. A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells
D. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes

A

B. A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes

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5
Q
  1. Monocytes and macrophages play a major role in the mononuclear phagocytic system. For an antibody-coated antigen to be phagocytized, what part of the antibody molecule fits into a receptor on the phagocytic cell?

A. Fc region
B. Fab region
C. Hinge region
D. Variable region

A

A. Fc region

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6
Q
  1. Cell-mediated immunity is primarily mediated by:

A. B cells
B. T helper cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Dendritic cells

A

B. T helper cells

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7
Q
  1. The HLA complex is located primarily on

A. Chromosomes 3
B. Chromosome 6
C. Chromosome 9
D. Chromosome 17

A

B. Chromosome 6

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is more likely to be diagnostic of an acute infection?

A. A total acute antibody liter of 2 followed by a convalescent titer of 16
B. A total acute antibody titer of 80 followed by a convalescent titer of 40
C. A total antibody titer of 80
D. An IgG antibody titer of 80

A

A. A total acute antibody liter of 2 followed by a convalescent titer of 16

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8
Q
  1. HLA antigens are found on

A. All nucleated cells
B. Red blood cells only
C. Solid tissue only
D. White blood cells only

A

A. All nucleated cells

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9
Q
  1. A young woman shows increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections. Upon assay, she shows a low level of C3. Which of the following statements is probably true?

A. She has an autoimmune disease with continual antigen-antibody activity causing consumption of C3.
B. She has DiGeorge syndrome.
C. She has decreased production of C3.
D. She may produce an inactive form of C2, a precursor of C3.

A

C. She has decreased production of C3.

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10
Q
  1. What is the predominant type of antibody found in the serum of neonates born after full-term gestation?

A. Infant IgA
B. Infant IgG
C. Infant IgM
D. Maternal IgG

A

D. Maternal IgG

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11
Q
  1. An important part of the nonspecific immune response is(are)

A. B cells
B. Basophils
C. Complement cascade
D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

A

C. Complement cascade

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12
Q
  1. The major class of immunoglobulin found in adult human serum is

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

C. IgG

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13
Q
  1. Which class of immunoglobulin possesses delta heavy chains?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG

A

B. IgD

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14
Q
  1. Which class of immunoglobulin possesses 10 antigenic binding sites?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

D. IgM

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15
Q
  1. This represents a dimeric IgA molecule. The structure printed in red
    and indicated by the red arrow is called:

A. J-piece
B. Hinge region
C. Heavy chain
D. Light chain

A

A. J-piece

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16
Q
  1. Which class of immunoglobulin binds to basophils and mast cells to
    mediate immediate hypersensitivity reactions?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG

A

C. IgE

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17
Q
  1. Type I hypersensitivity is:

A. Associated with complement-mediated cell lysis
B. Due to immune complex deposition
C. Mediated by activated macrophages
D. An immediate allergic reaction

A

D. An immediate allergic reaction

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17
Q
  1. When performing the enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT), how is the ligand in the patient’s serum detected?

A. Agglutinates by binding to antibody coated latex beads
B. Binds to enzyme-labeled antibody
C. Competes with enzyme-labeled antigen for binding to a specific antibody
D. Forms antibody-antigen complex and precipitates

A

C. Competes with enzyme-labeled antigen for binding to a specific antibody

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18
Q
  1. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is an

A. Immunodeficiency with decreased B cells and neutrophils
B. Immunodeficiency with lymphocytopenia and eosinophilia
C. Immunodeficiency with decreased or dysfunctional T and B cells
D. Immunodeficiency with decreased lymphocytes and decreased complement concentration

A

C. Immunodeficiency with decreased or dysfunctional T and B cells

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19
Q
  1. An example of immune injury due to the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes is:

A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Bee-sting allergy
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Penicillin allergy

A

A. Acute glomerulonephritis

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20
Q
  1. The serologically detectable antibody produced in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is primarily of the class

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

D. IgM

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21
Q
  1. In bone marrow transplantation, immunocompetent cells in the donor marrow may recognize antigens in the recipient and respond to those antigens. This phenomenon is an example of:

A. Acute rejection
B. Chronic rejection
C. Graft versus host disease
D. Hyperacute rejection

A

C. Graft versus host disease

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22
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma is a:

A. Lymphoproliferative disease of T cells
B. Cancer of plasma cells characterized by increased antibody concentration
C. Lymphoproliferative disease resulting in a decrease in antibody production
D. Cancer of monocytes characterized by increased kappa and lambda chain synthesis

A

B. Cancer of plasma cells characterized by increased antibody concentration

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23
Q
  1. Which one of the following describes a direct immunofluorescence assay?

A. Conjugated reagent antigen reacts with antibodies to form antigen-antibody complexes
B. Antigens react with unlabeled antibody forming
antigen-antibody complexes that attach to labeled antibodies
C. A dye is attached to a molecule and it reacts with an immune complex to produce a color
D. Conjugated reagent antibody reacts with antigen to form antigen-antibody complexes

A

D. Conjugated reagent antibody reacts with antigen to form antigen-antibody complexes

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24
Q
  1. In individuals allergic to pollen, hyposensitization protocols may be
    initiated. These individuals receive injections of

A. Allergen
B. Pooled human antisera
C. Monoclonal antibody directed against human T cells
D. Monoclonal antibody directed against human B cells

A

A. Allergen

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25
Q
  1. After exposure to antigen, the first antibodies that can be detected belong to the class

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

D. IgM

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26
Q
  1. Corneal tissue may be transplanted successfully from one patient to another because:

A. The cornea is nonantigenic
B. Cornea antigens do not activate T cells
C. Anti corneal antibodies are easily suppressed
D. The cornea occupies a privileged site not usually seen by the immune system

A

D. The cornea occupies a privileged site not usually seen by the immune system

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27
Q
  1. A kidney transplant from one identical twin to another is an example of a(n):

A. Allograft
B. Autograft
C. Isograft
D. Xenograft

A

C. Isograft

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28
Q
  1. In Bruton disease, measurement of serum immunoglobulins would show:

A. Elevated levels of IgE
B. Elevated levels of IgG
C. Normal levels of IgG and IgM but reduced levels of IgA
D. The absence of all immunoglobulins

A

D. The absence of all immunoglobulins

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29
Q
  1. Diagnosis of group A streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes) infection is indicated by the presence of:

A. Anti-protein A
B. Anti-DNaseB
C. Anti-beta-toxin
D. C-reactive protein

A

B. Anti-DNaseB

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30
Q
  1. A molecule found in human serum sometimes used as a tumor marker is

A. a-Fetoprotein
B. HBsAg
C. Biotin
D. GDI

A

A. a-Fetoprotein

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30
Q
  1. Which cell is the principal source of interleukin 2?

A. B cell
B. T cell
C. Monocyte
D. Plasma cell

A

B. T cell

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31
Q
  1. Diagnostic reagents useful for detecting antigen by the coagglutination reaction may be prepared by binding antibody to killed staphylococcal cells via the Fc receptor of staphylococcal protein A. The class of antibody bound by this protein is

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

C. IgG

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32
Q
  1. A major advantage of passive immunization compared to active
    immunization is that

A. Antibody is available more quickly
B. Antibody persists for the life of the recipient
C. IgM is the predominant antibody class provided

A

A. Antibody is available more quickly

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33
Q
  1. The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent
    antigen is termed the

A. Affinity
B. Avidity
C. Reactivity
D. Valence

A

B. Avidity

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34
Q
  1. How does the secondary humoral immune response differ from the
    primary response?

A. The lag phase (the time between exposure to immunogen and production of antibody) is longer in the secondary
immune response.
B. IgM is the predominant antibody class produced in the secondary immune response.
C. The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.
D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes play an important role in the secondary response.

A

C. The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.

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35
Q
  1. After activation of the complement system, leukocytes and macrophages are attracted to the site of complement activation by

A. C1
B. C5a
C. C8
D. IgM

A

B. C5a

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36
Q
  1. The type of immunity that follows the injection of an immunogen is
    termed

A. Artificial active
B. Natural active
C. Artificial passive
D. Innate

A

A. Artificial active

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37
Q
  1. The type of immunity that follows the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed

A. Artificial active
B. Natural adaptive
C. Artificial passive
D. Natural passive

A

C. Artificial passive

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38
Q
  1. Innate immunity includes

A. Anamnestic response
B. Antibody production
C. Cytotoxic T cell activity
D. Phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells

A

D. Phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells

39
Q
  1. The agglutination pattern shown was observed while performing an antibody titration. This agglutination pattern is an example of

A. A prezone reaction
B. A prozone reaction
C. A postzone reaction
D. Incomplete complement inactivation

A

B. A prozone reaction

40
Q
  1. The antibody most frequently present in systemic lupus erythematosus is directed against

A. Surface antigens of bone marrow stem cells
B. Surface antigens of renal cells
C. Nuclear antigen
D. Myelin

A

C. Nuclear antigen

41
Q
  1. The rapid plasma reagin assay for syphilis does not need to be read microscopically because the antigen is

A. Cardiolipin
B. Complexed with latex
C. Complexed with charcoal
D. Inactivated bacterial cells

A

C. Complexed with charcoal

42
Q
  1. The Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test for syphilis is classified as a(n)

A. Agglutination reaction
B. Flocculation reaction
C. Hemagglutination reaction
D. Precipitation reaction

A

B. Flocculation reaction

43
Q
  1. One cause of a false-positive VDRL test is

A. Brucellosis
B. Treponema pallidum infection
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

44
Q
  1. The portion of an antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called a(n)

A. Allergin
B. Avidin
C. Epitope
D. Valence

A

C. Epitope

45
Q
  1. Identical antibodies produced from a single clone of plasma cells describes

A. Reagin
B. Cold agglutinins
C. Heterophile antibodies
D. Monoclonal antibodies

A

D. Monoclonal antibodies

46
Q
  1. IgM antibodies react well in complement fixation (CF) tests. Because of this, CF tests for antibodies should

A. Be positive early in the course of the disease
B. Be useful in identifying antibodies responsible for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C. Be useful in identifying antibodies responsible for anaphylactic reactions
D. Detect transplacental antibodies

A

A. Be positive early in the course of the disease

47
Q
  1. Which of the following serologic tests is commonly performed by an immunofluorescence method?

A. Anti-HBs
B. Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
C. Antistreptolysin O (ASO)
D. C-reactive protein (CRP)

A

B. Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

48
Q
  1. The Fab portion of an antibody

A. Binds T cell receptor
B. Consists of two light chains only
C. Consists of two heavy chains only
D. Contains the hypervariable region

A

D. Contains the hypervariable region

49
Q
  1. In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the visible
    reaction is due to a reaction between

A. Enzyme and antibody
B. Enzyme and substrate
C. Fluorescent dye and antigen
D. Latex particles and antibody

A

B. Enzyme and substrate

50
Q
  1. Elevated IgE levels are typically found in

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

A

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions

51
Q
  1. Loss of self-tolerance results in

A. Autoimmune disease
B. Graft-versus-host disease
C. Immunodeficiency
D. Tumors

A

A. Autoimmune disease

52
Q
  1. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by

A. Cultured T cells
B. Human plasma cells
C. Mouse plasma cells
D. Hybridomas

A

D. Hybridomas

53
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about immunoglobulin light
    chains is true?

A. Each immunoglobulin monomer has either one kappa or one lambda chain.
B. There are two types: kappa and lambda
C. They consist of constant regions only.
D. They form part of the Fc fragment.

A

B. There are two types: kappa and lambda

53
Q
  1. Which of the following statements applies to the Fc fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule?

A. It consists of the entire heavy chain.
B. It contains the variable region of the heavy chain.
C. It contains the antigen binding sites of the molecule.
D. It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells.

A

D. It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells.

53
Q
  1. A human cell with CDS on its surface is most likely a

A. B cell
B. Monocyte
C. T helper cell
D. Cytotoxic T cell

A

D. Cytotoxic T cell

54
Q
  1. Skin testing is a useful diagnostic tool in a number of disorders, such as tuberculosis. Which of the following statements about skin testing is true?

A. A positive test depends on preformed antibody.
B. Reactivity to a particular antigen may be transferred from one individual to another by sensitized lymphocytes.
C. The intensity of the response correlates directly with the clinical activity of the disease.
D. The maximum response will occur immediately.

A

B. Reactivity to a particular antigen may be transferred from one individual to another by sensitized lymphocytes.

54
Q
  1. Antibodies that bind to the same epitope are of the same

A. Allotype
B. Autotype
C. Idiotype
D. Isotype

A

C. Idiotype

55
Q
  1. The activity of natural killer (NK) cells

A. Does not require previous exposure to an antigen
B. Involves phagocytosis and killing of bacteria
C. Requires interaction with cytotoxic T cells
D. Requires interaction with B cells

A

A. Does not require previous exposure to an antigen

56
Q
  1. Interaction between B and T helper cells involves

A. MHC II molecule on B cell binding to MHCI molecule on the T cell
B. MHC II molecule on B cell binding to CDS on the T cell
C. Foreign antigen on B cell binding to T cell receptor
D. CDS molecule on B cell binding to T cell receptor

A

C. Foreign antigen on B cell binding to T cell receptor

57
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of T cells?

A. Synthesize antibody
B. Mature in the thymus
C. Able to bind unprocessed antigen
D. Primarily protect against extracellular parasites

A

B. Mature in the thymus

58
Q
  1. The primary mechanism responsible for pathology in systemic lupus erythematosus is

A. Allergic reaction to foreign molecules
B. Antibodies directed against self antigens
C. Polyclonal activation of cytotoxic T cells
D. Lack of intracellular killing after neutrophil phagocytosis of
bacteria

A

B. Antibodies directed against self antigens

58
Q
  1. Which complement protein is present in the greatest concentration
    in human serum?

A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4

A

C. C3

59
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of contact hypersensitivity
    reactions?

A. Caused by preformed IgE antibody
B. Characterized by infiltration of neutrophils into the area of reaction
C. The primary symptoms often occur in the respiratory tract.
D. Usually due to a hapten

A

D. Usually due to a hapten

59
Q
  1. An autoimmune disease causing destruction of pancreatic cells can
    result in

A. Hashimoto disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. My asthenia gravis
D. Type 1 diabetes

A

D. Type 1 diabetes

59
Q
  1. An Ouchterlony gel diffusion plate is depicted below. The center well contains antibody, and the peripheral wells contain antigens labeled 1 through 4. What is the relationship between the antigens in wells 2 and 3?

A. 2 is part of 3.
B. 3 is part of 2.
C. They are identical.
D. They are unrelated.

A

D. They are unrelated.

60
Q
  1. An Ouchterlony gel diffusion plate is depicted below. The center well contains antibody, and the peripheral wells contain antigens labeled 1 through 4. What is the relationship between the antigens in wells 2 and 4?

A. Cannot be determined.
B. They are identical.
C. They are unrelated.
D. They react incompletely with the antibody

A

B. They are identical.

60
Q
  1. Which of the following complement proteins is part of the membrane attack complex?

A. C1
B. C3
C. C4
D. C5

A

D. C5

61
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the test for C-reactive protein (CRP) is true?

A. It correlates with neutrophil phagocytic function.
B. It is an indicator of ongoing inflammation.
C. It is diagnostic for rheumatic fever.
D. Levels decrease during heart disease.

A

B. It is an indicator of ongoing inflammation.

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a treponemal antigen test used for the diagnosis of syphilis?

A. CRP
B. RPR
C. VDRL
D. FTA-ABS

A

D. FTA-ABS

62
Q
  1. A cut on a person’s finger becomes contaminated with the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. The first response by the immune system consists of activity of

A. B cells
B. Monocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. T cells

A

C. Neutrophils

63
Q
  1. The alternative complement pathway

A. Can be activated by bacterial capsule polysaccharides
B. Uses C5b as a C3 convertase
C. Bypasses steps C3 through C5
D. Is inactivated by properdin

A

A. Can be activated by bacterial capsule polysaccharides

63
Q
  1. A soluble antigen and soluble antibody reacting to form an insoluble product describes

A. Agglutination reactions
B. Heterophile reactions
C. Labeled reactions
D. Precipitation reactions

A

D. Precipitation reactions

64
Q
  1. In the classical pathway of complement activation,

A. C3 is activated by binding C-reactive protein
B. The sequence of activation is C1, C2, C3, C4
C. C1q is activated by the presence of a single Fab region
D. Activation by antibody requires one IgM or two IgG molecules

A

D. Activation by antibody requires one IgM or two IgG molecules

65
Q
  1. Incompatible blood transfusions are examples of

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

A

B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions

66
Q
  1. A serum sample is positive for HBsAg. This result indicates that the
    person from whom the serum was taken

A. Had a hepatitis B infection in the past but overcame the infection
B. Has either active or chronic hepatitis B infection
C. Was immunized recently against the hepatitis B virus
D. Is not infectious for the hepatitis B virus

A

B. Has either active or chronic hepatitis B infection

67
Q
  1. The isotype of an immunoglobulin antibody

A. Is defined by the heavy chain
B. Is defined as different alleles of the same antibody type (e.g., IgG)
C. Is constant for all immunoglobulins of an individual
D. Is the variation within the variable region

A

A. Is defined by the heavy chain

67
Q
  1. A patient report states the presence of serum antibodies to OspC. What disease does the patient most likely have?

A. Syphilis
B. Strep throat
C. Lyme disease
D. Rubella

A

C. Lyme disease

68
Q
  1. Patient serum is mixed with a suspension of guinea pig antigen. When the sample is then mixed with horse red blood cells, agglutination occurs. This is suggestive of an infection caused by

A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Hepatitis C virus
D. Epstein-Barr virus

A

D. Epstein-Barr virus

68
Q
  1. What is the indicator system used in the complement fixation test?

A. Sensitized sheep red blood cells
B. Fluorescent-labeled antihuman globulin
C. Enzyme-labeled antihuman globulin
D. Guinea pig complement

A

A. Sensitized sheep red blood cells

69
Q
  1. The first serologic marker to appear in patients with acute hepatitis B virus infection is

A. Anti-HB
B. Anti-HBc
C. Anti-HBe
D. HBsAg

A

D. HBsAg

69
Q
  1. Rheumatic fever sometimes occurs after group A streptococcal infections. In this condition, an autoimmune response attacks the tissue of the heart valves. This phenomenon is an example of

A. Epitope spreading
B. Molecular mimicry
C. Polyclonal B cell activation
D. Preferential activation of T helper cells

A

B. Molecular mimicry

69
Q
  1. Hashimoto disease is an autoimmune disease primarily involving
    the

A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Thyroid gland

A

D. Thyroid gland

70
Q
  1. “Superantigens” are toxins produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus and group A streptococci and cause damage by

A. Molecular mimicry
B. Polyclonal T cell activation
C. Lysing white blood cells and platelets
D. Lysing red blood cells

A

B. Polyclonal T cell activation

71
Q
  1. Why does vaccination against hepatitis B virus (HBV) also prevent
    hepatitis D virus (HDV) infections?

A. An immunogen from HBV in the vaccine is also associated with HDV.
B. The HBV vaccine induces formation of heterophile antibodies that cross react with HDV.
C. The HBV vaccine stimulates liver cells to produce antiviral molecules active against all hepatitis viruses.
D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

A

D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

71
Q
  1. In patients with human immunodeficiency virus infection, immune status can be monitored by measuring the ratio of

A. CD3+ cells to CD8+ cells
B. CD4+ cells to CD8+ cells
C. Lymphocytes to monocytes
D. T cells to B cells

A

B. CD4+ cells to CD8+ cells

71
Q
  1. A living donor is being sought for a child who requires a kidney transplant. The best odds of finding an MHC-compatible donor occur between the child and

A. A sibling (brother or sister)
B. An unrelated individual
C. The child’s father
D. The child’s mother

A

A. A sibling (brother or sister)

72
Q
  1. Cells that can act as antigen-presenting cells for exogenous
    antigens include

A. All nucleated cells
B. Endothelial cells
C. B lymphocytes
D. T lymphocytes

A

C. B lymphocytes

73
Q
  1. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from

A. Hematopoietic stem cells
B. Macrophages or monocytes
C. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue
D. The fetal liver

A

A. Hematopoietic stem cells

74
Q
  1. Contact dermatitis is mediated by

A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Polymorphonuclear cells

A

B. T lymphocytes

75
Q
  1. An antibody titration is depicted below. In this titration, a 0.2 mL aliquot of a patient’s serum sample was added to 0.8 mL of saline, and this mixture was placed into tube #1. A 0.5 mL sample was removed from tube #1 and placed into tube #2, containing 0.5 mL of saline. This procedure was repeated through tube #10. The dilutions were assayed
    for antibody to an infectious agent. How should the antibody titer be reported?

A. 256
B. 512
C. 640
D. 1280

A

C. 640

76
Q
  1. In a competitive radioimnumosorbent test (RIST), what does a high signal suggest?

A. The patient sample has a low concentration of IgE.
B. The patient sample has a low concentration of IgM.
C. The patient sample has a high concentration of IgE.
D. The patient sample has a high concentration of total
antibody.

A

A. The patient sample has a low concentration of IgE.

77
Q
  1. A 28-year-old female complains to her family physician of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and low-grade fever. Physical examination reveals abdominal tenderness and a low-grade fever. Her
    physician orders a hepatitis profile and obtains the results below. Which of the following is the most likely conclusion?

A. Acute HAV infection
B. Acute HBV infection
C. Chronic HBV infection
D. Immunity to HBV due to past infection

A

C. Chronic HBV infection

78
Q
  1. In a chemiluminescent immunologic assay, what is the signal detected?

A. Light
B. An electric signal
C. A purple-colored compound
D. A yellow-colored compound

A

A. Light

79
Q
  1. An 11-year-old female presents with fever, sore throat, lethargy, and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Relevant findings include splenomegaly and lymphocytosis, with many large reactive (atypical) lymphocytes. A heterophile antibody test was negative. Further
    laboratory results were as follows:
    What conclusion can be made concerning the diagnosis?

A. Acute CMV infection
B. Acute EBV infection
C. Chronic CMV infection
D. Chronic EBV infection

A

B. Acute EBV infection

80
Q
  1. A male infant had been well until about 5 months of age, at which time he was diagnosed as having otitis media and bronchitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae. Over the next several months he presented with streptococcal pneumonia several times. At 10 months of age a serum protein electrophoresis showed a virtual lack of gamma globulins. Quantitative serum levels were as follows: 75 mg/dL IgG and
    undetectable levels of IgM, IgA, and IgE. There were a normal number of T cells, and they exhibited normal mitogen stimulation. What disease does this child most likely suffer from?

A. Combined immunodeficiency
B. DiGeorge syndrome
C. latrogenic immunodeficiency
D. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

D. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

81
Q
  1. A 25-year-old male presents to his family physician complaining of fatigue, diarrhea, and weight loss of a few months duration. On physical examination the patient is found to have a fever and abdominal discomfort. Laboratory results indicate a white blood cell count of 14.3 X 109/L (reference range 4.8-10.8 X 109/L). Assays for HBSAg and anti-HCV are negative. An ELISA test for antibodies to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) performed on the patient’s serum is found to be reactive. What step should be taken next?

A. Call the physician with the HIV result.
B. Repeat the HIV ELISA test on the sample.
C. Test the patient’s serum for anti-HBs.
D. Contact the patient to collect a second sample

A

B. Repeat the HIV ELISA test on the sample.

82
Q
  1. A 38-year-old woman visited her physician because of fatigue, fever, and joint pain (proximal interphalangeal, wrist, and knee joints). She also noticed sensitivity to the sun and reported having a rash following recent exposure. The physician noted a rash over her nose and cheeks. Laboratory results included white blood cell count 5.5 X
    109/L (reference range 4.8-10.8 X 109/L) and red blood cell count 4.5 X 1012/L (reference range 4.0-5.4 X 1012/L). Urinalysis results were within reference ranges, except for 4+ protein and 1+ RBCs, 0-3 hyaline casts/lpf and 0-1 RBC cast/lpf on microscopic examination.
    Which of the following tests would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient’s condition?

A. Anti-nuclear antibody
B. a-Fetoprotein
C. Anti-streptolysin O
D. Hepatitis profile

A

A. Anti-nuclear antibody

SEROLOGY MTAP 1 (8 decks)

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