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SEROLOGY MTAP 1 > BOC Study Guide PART 1 (CHAPTER REVIEW) > Flashcards

BOC Study Guide PART 1 (CHAPTER REVIEW) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A DPT vaccination is an example of:

a. active humoral-mediated immunity
b. passive humoral-mediated immunity
c. cell-mediated immunity
d. immediate hypersensitivity

A

a. active humoral-mediated immunity

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2
Q
  1. Cells known to be actively phagocytic include:

a. neutrophils, monocytes, basophils
b. neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes
c. monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils
d. lymphocytes, eosinophils, monocytes

A

b. neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes

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3
Q
  1. Normal serum constituents that can rapidly increase during infection, injury or trauma are referred to as:

a. haptens
b. acute phase reactants
c. opsonins
d. chemotaxins

A

b. acute phase reactants

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4
Q
  1. The acute phase reactant that has the fastest response time and
    can rise 100× is:

a. alpha-1 antitrypsin
b. haptoglobin
c. c-reactive protein
d. ceruloplasmin

A

c. c-reactive protein

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5
Q
  1. Acquired immunity can be characterized as having what qualities?

a. nonadaptive and nonspecific
b. internal and external mechanisms
c. sensitivity and short acting
d. specificity and memory

A

d. specificity and memory

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6
Q
  1. Macrophages are characterized by:

a. surface receptors for C3b complement
b. surface CD3 expression
c. in vitro synthesis of immunoglobulin
d. large amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

a. surface receptors for C3b complement

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6
Q
  1. Substances that are antigenic only when coupled to a protein carrier are:

a. opsonins
b. haptens
c. adjuvants
d. allergens

A

b. haptens

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6
Q
  1. Antibodies composed of IgG immunoglobulin:

a. occur during the primary response to antigen
b. are larger molecules than IgM antibodies
c. can cross the placenta from mother to fetus
d. can be detected in saline crossmatches

A

c. can cross the placenta from mother to fetus

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6
Q
  1. Polyclonal B-cell activation:

a. inhibits antibody production
b. requires the participation of T-helper cells
c. results from the activation of suppressor T cells
d. can induce autoantibody production

A

d. can induce autoantibody production

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6
Q
  1. A haptenic determinant will react with:

a. both T cells and antibody
b. T cells but not antibody
c. neither T cells nor antibody
d. antibody but not T cells

A

d. antibody but not T cells

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7
Q
  1. Skin, lactic acid in sweat, pH balance, mucous, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?

a. natural, innate
b. acquired
c. adaptive
d. auto

A

a. natural, innate

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8
Q
  1. Cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce
    immunoglobulins are:

a. macrophages
b. B lymphocytes
c. T lymphocytes
d. monocytes

A

b. B lymphocytes

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8
Q
  1. Antibodies are produced by:

a. killer cells, T cells
b. marrow stem cells
c. mast cells
d. B cells

A

d. B cells

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9
Q
  1. Humoral antibodies are produced by which cells?
    Immunology

a. macrophages
b. T lymphocytes
c. B lymphocytes
d. neutrophils

A

c. B lymphocytes

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9
Q
  1. In hybridoma technology, the desirable fused cell is the:

a. myeloma-myeloma hybrid
b. myeloma-lymphocyte hybrid
c. lymphocyte-lymphocyte hybrid
d. lymphocyte-granulocyte hybrid

A

b. myeloma-lymphocyte hybrid

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10
Q
  1. Which test is used to evaluate the cellular immune system in a
    patient?

a. skin test for commonly encountered antigens
b. determination of isohemagglutinin titer
c. immunoelectrophoresis of serum
d. lymphocyte proliferation to mitogen/antigen

A

a. skin test for commonly encountered antigens

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10
Q
  1. Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following:

a. opsonin
b. antigen
c. hapten
d. secretory piece

A

a. opsonin

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11
Q
  1. T cells are incapable of:

a. collaborating with B cells in antibody responses
b. secretion of immunoglobulins
c. secretion of cytokines
d. producing positive skin tests

A

b. secretion of immunoglobulins

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12
Q
  1. Nonspecific killing of tumor cells is carried out by:

a. cytotoxic T cells
b. helper T cells
c. natural killer cells
d. antibody and complement

A

c. natural killer cells

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12
Q
  1. T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning as:

a. cytotoxic cells
b. helper cells
c. phagocytic cells
d. regulatory cells

A

c. phagocytic cells

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13
Q
  1. When a natural killer cell comes in contact with a cell expressing MHC class I proteins, what action will result?

a. perforins released
b. granzymes released
c. inhibition of killing
d. cytotoxic mechanisms

A

c. inhibition of killing

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14
Q
  1. MHC Class I includes which molecules?

a. complement
b. HLAA, B, C
c. cytokines
d. HLA DP, DQ, DR

A

b. HLAA, B, C

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following mediators is released during T-cell activation?

a. immunoglobulins
b. complement C3
c. histamine
d. cytokines

A

d. cytokines

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14
Q
  1. Some MHC class I genes code for?

a. antigens
b. antibodies
c. lymphocytes
d. complement

A

d. complement

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?

a. mast cell
b. neutrophil
c. basophil
d. eosinophil

A

b. neutrophil

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15
Q
  1. C3b and Fc receptors are present on:

a. B lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. B lymphocytes and monocytes
d. neither B lymphocytes nor monocytes

A

c. B lymphocytes and monocytes

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15
Q
  1. T lymphocytes that possess the CD8 surface marker mediate
    which of the following T-cell functions?

a. delayed-type hypersensitivity
b. regulatory
c. cytotoxic
d. helper

A

c. cytotoxic

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following cytokines is produced by an activated CD8 cytotoxic T cell?

a. interleukin 13 (IL-13)
b. interleukin 5 (IL-5)
c. stromal cell-derived factor 1 (SDF-1)
d. interferon gamma (IFNy)

A

d. interferon gamma (IFNy)

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17
Q
  1. An immunofluorescence test using reagent antibody directed
    against the CD3 surface marker would identify which of the following cell types in a sample of human peripheral blood?

a. all mature T lymphocytes
b. T helper lymphocytes only
c. cytotoxic T lymphocytes only
d. T regulatory cells only

A

a. all mature T lymphocytes

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18
Q
  1. Abnormal control for a B lymphocyte enumeration assay should have a value of what percentage of total lymphocytes counted?

a. 21%
b. 48%
c. 76%
d. 89%

A

a. 21%

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19
Q
  1. What is the location of B-cell maturation?

a. thymus
b. spleen
c. bone marrow
d. liver

A

c. bone marrow

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19
Q
  1. Measurement of serum levels of which of the following immunoglobulins could serve as a screening test for multiple allergies?

a. lgA
b. lgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

b. lgE

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20
Q
  1. What is the location of T-cell maturation?

a. bone marrow
b. gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
c. thymus
d. kidneys

A

c. thymus

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20
Q
  1. A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered:

a. dormant
b. virulent
c. attenuated
d. denatured

A

c. attenuated

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21
Q
  1. IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of:

a. their dimeric structure
b. the molecule’s 5 antigen-binding sites
c. their sedimentation coefficient of 7-15 S
d. their efficient ability to fix complement

A

d. their efficient ability to fix complement

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22
Q
  1. To which of the following classes do the antibodies that cause hemolytic disease of the newborn belong?

a. lgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgD

A

c. IgG

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23
Q
  1. The immunoglobulin classes most commonly found on the surface of circulating B lymphocytes in the peripheral blood of normal persons are:

a. IgM, IgA
b. IgM, IgG
c. IgM, IgD
d. IgM, IgE

A

c. IgM, IgD

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24
Q
  1. Antibody class/isotype and antibody subclass are determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the:

a. constant region of heavy chain
b. constant region of light chain
c. variable regions of heavy and light chains
d. constant regions of heavy and light chains

A

a. constant region of heavy chain

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24
Q
  1. The first isotype of immunoglobulin made by the fetus that may be elevated in cases of in-utero infection is:

a. IgA
b. lgG
c. IgM
d. IgD

A

c. IgM

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25
Q
  1. The ratio of kappa to lambda light chain-producing cells in normal individuals is:

a. 1:1
b. 2:1
c. 3:1
d. 4:1

A

b. 2:1

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following immunoglobulin isotypes is associated with a secretory component (transport piece)?

a. lgA
b. lgD
c. IgE
d. IgG

A

a. lgA

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26
Q
  1. The immunoglobulin class typically found to be present in saliva, tears and other secretions is:
    a. IgG
    b. IgA
    c. IgM
    d. IgD
A

b. IgA

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient at agglutination?

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. lgM
d. IgE

A

c. lgM

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27
Q
  1. Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments from each immunoglobulin molecule?
    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
A

b. 3

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28
Q
  1. The immunoglobulin isotype associated with immediate hypersensitivity or atopic reactions is:

a. laA
b. gM
c. lgD
d. IgE

A

d. IgE

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29
Q
  1. Antibodies to which of the following immunoglobulins is known to have produced anaphylactic reactions following blood transfusion?

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG

A

a. IgA

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30
Q
  1. Which class of immunoglobulin is thought to function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface of immature B lymphocytes?

a. IgD
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgG

A

a. IgD

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30
Q
  1. The IgM molecule is a:

a. dimer
b. trimer
c. tetramer
d. pentamer

A

d. pentamer

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31
Q
  1. The key structural difference that distinguishes immunoglobulin subclasses is the:

a. number of domains
b. stereometry of the hypervariable region
c. the sequence of the constant regions
d. covalent linkage of the light chains

A

c. the sequence of the constant regions

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following immunoglobulins is present in the highest concentration in normal human serum?

a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

b. IgG

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32
Q
  1. Immunoglobulin idiotypic diversity is best explained by the theory of:

a. somatic mutation
b. germ line recombination
c. antigen induction
d. clonal selection

A

b. germ line recombination

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about immunoglobulins is true?

a. immunoglobulins are produced by T lymphocytes
b. IgA class is determined by the gamma heavy chain
c. IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules
d. there are only 2 subclasses of IgG

A

c. IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules

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34
Q
  1. Membrane-bound immunoglobulin molecules:

a. have an additional amino-terminal sequence of about 40 residues
b. are not anchored in a transmembrane configuration
c. are anchored by a hydrophobic sequence of about 26 residues
d. are anchored by a hydrophilic region

A

c. are anchored by a hydrophobic sequence of about 26 residues

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35
Q
  1. The area of the immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge
    region is located between which domains?

a. VH and VL
b. CH1 and CH2
c. CH2 and СH3
d. CH3 and VL

A

b. CH1 and CH2

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35
Q
  1. Antibody allotype is determined by the:

a. constant region of heavy chain
b. constant region of light chain
c. variable regions of heavy and light chains
d. constant regions of heavy and light chains

A

d. constant regions of heavy and light chains

36
Q
  1. Antibody idiotype is dictated by the:

a. constant region of heavy chain
b. constant region of light chain
c. variable regions of heavy and light chains
d. constant regions of heavy and light chains

A

c. variable regions of heavy and light chains

37
Q
  1. Which IgG subclass. is most efficient at crossing the placenta?

a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. lgG3
d. lgG4

A

a. IgG1

38
Q
  1. The J-chain is associated with which of the following immunoglobulins?
    a. IgA
    b. IgG
    c. IgE
    d. IgD
A

a. IgA

39
Q
  1. Bence Jones proteins are:

a. immunoglobulin catabolic fragments in the urine
b. monoclonal light chains
c. whole immunoglobulins in the urine
d. Fab fragments of a monoclonal protein

A

b. monoclonal light chains

40
Q
  1. Which 2 immunoglobulin classes have a J-chain associated with the structure?

a. IgG, IgA
b. IgA, IgE
c. IgG, IgM
d. IgM, IgA

A

d. IgM, IgA

41
Q
  1. Avidity may be defined as the:

a. degree of hemolysis
b. titer of an antigen
c. dilution of a n antibody
d. strength of a reacting antibody

A

d. strength of a reacting antibody

42
Q
  1. The strength of a visible reaction is known as:

a. prozone reaction
b. absorption
c. avidity
d. elution

A

c. avidity

43
Q
  1. Which of the following describes an antigen-antibody precipitation
    reaction of non-identity?

a. precipitin lines cross, forming double spurs
b. precipitin lines fuse, forming a single spur
c. no precipitin lines are formed
d. precipitin lines fuse, forming a single arc

A

a. precipitin lines cross, forming double spurs

44
Q
  1. Which test has the greatest sensitivity for antigen detection?

a. precipitin
b. agglutination
c. ELISA
d. complement fixation

A

c. ELISA

45
Q
  1. Soluble immune complexes are formed under the condition of:

a. antigen deficiency
b. antigen excess
c. antibody excess
d. complement

A

b. antigen excess

46
Q
  1. Excess antigen in precipitation gel reactions will:

a. have no effect on the precipitate reaction
b. not dissolve precipitate after formation
c. enhance the precipitate reaction
d. dissolve the precipitate after formation

A

d. dissolve the precipitate after formation

46
Q
  1. The visible serological reaction between soluble antigen and its
    specific antibody is:

a. sensitization
b. precipitation
c. agglutination
d. opsonization

A

b. precipitation

47
Q
  1. The curve is obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble
    antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum:

The area on the curve for equivalence precipitate is:

a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d

A

c. c

48
Q
  1. The curve is obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble
    antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum.

The area on the curve where no precipitate formed due to antigen
excess is:

a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d

A

d. d

49
Q
  1. The curve is obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble
    antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum.

The area on the curve for prozone is:

a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d

A

a. a

50
Q
  1. The curve is obtained by adding increasing amounts of soluble
    antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum.

The area on the curve where soluble antigen-antibody complexes have
begun to form is:

a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d

A

d. d

51
Q
  1. The curve is obtained by adding increasing amounts of a soluble
    antigen to fixed volumes of monospecific antiserum.

The area in which the addition of more antigens would result in the formation of additional precipitate is:

a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d

A

b. b

52
Q
  1. Which of the figures demonstrates a reaction pattern of identity?

a. figure 1
b. figure 2
c. figure 3
d. figure 4

A

a. figure 1

53
Q
  1. Which of the figures demonstrates a reaction pattern of partial
    identity?

a. figure 1
b. figure 2
c. figure 3
d. figure 4

A

b. figure 2

54
Q
  1. Which of the figures demonstrates a reaction pattern of nonidentity?

a. figure 1
b. figure 2
c. figure 3
d. figure 4

A

c. figure 3

55
Q
  1. A nonspecific precipitin reaction is demonstrated in which of the figures?

a. figure 1
b. figure 2
c. figure 3
d. figure 4

A

d. figure 4

55
Q
  1. Which of the figures demonstrates a reaction pattern showing 2 different antigenic molecular species?

a. figure 1
b. figure 2
c. figure 3
d. figure 4

A

d. figure 4

56
Q
  1. A series of 8 tubes are set-up with 0.79 mL of diluent in each. A serial dilution is performed by adding 10 L of serum to the first tube and then transferring 10 L through each remaining tube. What is the serum
    dilution of tube 7?

a. 1:2.431 × 10^11
b. 1:2.621 × 10^11
c. 1:1.920 × 10^13
d. 1:2.097 × 10^13

A

d. 1:2.097 × 10^13

57
Q
  1. The enzyme control tube in an ASO hemolytic assay exhibits no cell lysis. What is the most likely explanation for this?

a. incorrect pH of buffer
b. low ionic strength buffer
c. oxidation of the enzyme
d. reduction of the enzyme

A

d. reduction of the enzyme

58
Q
  1. This pattern of agglutination is observed in an antibody titration.

This set of reactions most likely resulted from:

a. faulty pipetting technique
b. postzoning
c. prozoning
d. the presence of a high-titer, low-avidity antibody

A

c. prozoning

59
Q
  1. Which of these substances will not stimulate an immune response unless it is bound to a larger molecule?

a. antigen
b. adjuvant
c. hapten
d. antibody

A

c. hapten

60
Q
  1. Blood is drawn from a patient for serological tests for a viral disease shortly after the time of onset and again 4 weeks later. The results of the tests are considered diagnostic if the:

a. first antibody titer is 2x the second
b. first and second antibody titers are equal
c. first antibody titer is 4x the second
d. second antibody titer is at least 4x the first

A

d. second antibody titer is at least 4x the first

61
Q
  1. The best method to detect infections due to rubella, Epstein-Barr and human immunodeficiency viruses is:

a. antigen detection by EIA
b. cell culture
c. antigen detection by Western blot
d. antibody detection by ElA

A

d. antibody detection by ElA

62
Q
  1. Immunoassays are based on the principle of:

a. separation of bound and free analyte
b. antibody recognition of homologous antigen
c. protein binding to isotopes
d. production of antibodies against drugs

A

b. antibody recognition of homologous antigen

63
Q
  1. What kind of antigen-antibody reaction would be expected if a
    soluble antigen is added to a homologous antibody?

a. precipitation
b. agglutination
c. complement fixation
d. hemagglutination

A

a. precipitation

64
Q
  1. The best interpretation of the cold agglutinin titer results show in this table is:

a. positive, 1:128
b. negative
c. invalid because 37°C reading is negative
d. repeat the 4°C readings

A

a. positive, 1:128

65
Q
  1. In an indirect ELISA method designed to detect antibody to the rubella virus in patient serum, the conjugate used should be:

a. anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme
b. anti-rubella antibody conjugated to an enzyme
c. rubella antigen conjugated to an enzyme
d. anti-rubella antibody conjugated to a substrate

A

a. anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme

66
Q
  1. In immunofixation electrophoresis:

a. the antibody reacts with the antigen and then the complex is electrophoresed
b. the antigen is electrophoresed into an antibody containing gel
c. the antigen is electrophoresed and then monospecific antisera is reacted with it
d. the antigen is electrophoresed, transferred to nitrocellulose and then antibody reacts with it and an ElA is performed

A

c. the antigen is electrophoresed and then monospecific antisera is reacted with it

67
Q
  1. What is the immunologic method utilized in the flow cytometer?

a. latex agglutination
b. enzyme linked immunoassay
c. immunofluorescence
d. radioimmunoassay

A

c. immunofluorescence

67
Q
  1. A single test that could reliably detect neonatal infection in the absence of clinical signs is:

a. serum immunoelectrophoresis
b. differential leukocyte count
c. CD4 cell counts
d. quantitative serum IgM determination

A

d. quantitative serum IgM determination

67
Q
  1. The serological test that can be modified to selectively detect only
    specific IgM antibody in untreated serum is:

a. Ouchterlony
b. enzyme immunoassay
c. hemagglutination inhibition
d. passive hemagglutination

A

b. enzyme immunoassay

68
Q
  1. The assembly of the complement “membrane attack unit” is initiated with the binding of:

a. C1
b. С3
c. C4
d. C5

A

d. C5

69
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to activate the alternative pathway of complement activation?

a. lipopolysaccharides
b. glycoproteins
c. haptens
d. IgG complexed with antigen

A

a. lipopolysaccharides

70
Q
  1. Which of the following is the larger residual split portion of C3?

a. СЗа
b. С3b
c. C4
d. Clq

A

b. С3b

71
Q
  1. Which of the following activities is associated with C3b?

a. opsonization
b. anaphylaxis
c. vasoconstriction
d. chemotaxis

A

a. opsonization

72
Q
  1. Which of the following is the “recognition unit” in the classical
    complement pathway?

a. C1q
b. СЗа
c. C4
d. C5

A

a. C1q

73
Q
  1. Which of the following is the “membrane attack complex”of
    complement activation?

a. C1
b. C3
c. C4, C2, C3
d. C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

A

d. C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

74
Q
  1. Which of the following releases histamine and other mediators from
    basophils?

a. СЗа
b. properdin factor B
c. Clq
d. C4

A

a. СЗа

75
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a mechanism involved in the
    complement cascade?

a. apoptosis
b. opsonization
c. inflammation
d. cytolysis

A

a. apoptosis

76
Q
  1. The activation mechanism of the alternative complement pathway is initiated differently from that of the classical pathway because, in the
    alternative pathway

a. antigen-antibody complexes containing IgM or IgG are
required
b. endotoxin alone cannot initiate activation
c. C1 component of complement is involved
d. antigen-antibody complexes containing |gA or IgE may
initiate activation

A

d. antigen-antibody complexes containing |gA or IgE may
initiate activation

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway?

a. properdin factor B
b. Clq
c. С4
d. C3b

A

c. С4

78
Q
  1. The component associated only with the alternative pathway of
    complement activation is:

a. C4
b. Clq
c. properdin factor B
d. СЗа

A

c. properdin factor B

79
Q
  1. The C3b component of complement:

a. is undetectable in pathological sera
b. is a component of the C3 cleaving enzyme of the classical pathway
c. is cleaved by C3 inactivator into C3c and C3d
d. is not part of the alternative pathway

A

c. is cleaved by C3 inactivator into C3c and C3d

79
Q
  1. Which of the following complement components is a strong chemotactic factor as well as a strong anaphylatoxin?

a. СЗа
b. C3b
c. C5a
d. C4a

A

c. C5a

80
Q
  1. Components of the complement system most likely to coat a cell are:

a. C1 and C2
b. C3 and C4
c. C6 and C7
d. C8 and C9

A

b. C3 and C4

81
Q
  1. Potent chemotactic activity is associated with which of the following components of the complement system:

a. C1g
b. C5a
c. C3b
d. IgG

A

b. C5a

82
Q
  1. Hereditary angioedema is characterized by:

a. decreased activity of C3
b. decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor
c. increased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor
d. increased activity of C2

A

b. decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor

83
Q
  1. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) patients often have which of the following test results?

a. high titers of ANA (Anti-nuclear Antibodies)
b. decreased serum immunoglobulin levels
c. high titers of anti-smooth muscle antibodies
d. high titers of anti-mitochondrial antibody

A

a. high titers of ANA

84
Q
  1. Systemic lupus erythematosus patients (SLE) with active disease often have which of the following test results?

a. high titers of anti-microsomal antibodies
b. high titers of anti-smooth muscle antibodies
c. marked decrease in serum CH50
d. decreased serum immunoglobulin levels

A

c. marked decrease in serum CH50

85
Q

110.Which of the following is decreased in serum during the active stages of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

a. anti-nuclear antibody
b. immune complexes
c. complement (C3)
d. anti-DNA

A

c. complement (C3)

86
Q

111.The ability of the immune system to recognize self-antigens versus Non-self antigens is an example of:

a. specific immunity
b. tolerance
c. cell-mediated immunity
d. humoral immunity

A

b. tolerance

87
Q
  1. Tissue injury in systemic rheumatic disorders such as systemic lupus erythematosus is thought to be caused by:

a. cytotoxic T cells
b. IgE activity
c. deposition of immune complexes
d. cytolytic antibodies

A

c. deposition of immune complexes

88
Q
  1. High titers of anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies are most often
    found in:

a. Graves disease
b. systemic lupus erythematosus
c. chronic hepatitis
d. thyroid disease

A

d. thyroid disease

89
Q
  1. Which of the following is an organ-specific autoimmune disease?

a. myasthenia gravis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. Addison disease
d. progressive systemic sclerosis

A

c. Addison disease

90
Q
  1. In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen?

a. anti-mitochondrial
b. anti-smooth muscle
c. anti-DNA
d. anti-parietal cell

A

b. anti-smooth muscle

91
Q
  1. In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies is seen in high titers?

a. anti-mitochondrial
b. anti-smooth muscle
c. anti-DNA
d. anti-parietal cell

A

a. anti-mitochondrial

92
Q
  1. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often associated with this condition:

a. systemic lupus erythematosus
b. celiac disease
c. chronic active hepatitis
d. Goodpasture syndrome

A

d. Goodpasture syndrome

93
Q
  1. In pernicious anemia, which of the following antibodies is characteristically detected?

a. anti-mitochondrial
b. anti-smooth muscle
c. anti-DNA
d. anti-parietal cell

A

d. anti-parietal cell

94
Q
  1. An example of an organ specific disease with autoimmune antibodies is:

a. Wegener granulomatosus
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. Hashimoto Thyroiditis
d. systemic lupus erythematosus

A

c. Hashimoto Thyroiditis

95
Q
  1. Which is a recognized theory of the origin of autoimmunity?

a. enhanced regulatory T-cell function
b. diminished helper T-cell activity
c. production of antibodies that cross-react with tissue components
d. deficient B-cell activation

A

c. production of antibodies that cross-react with tissue components

96
Q
  1. After a penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives. This reaction is primarily mediated by

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE

A

d. IgE

97
Q
  1. In skin tests, a wheal and flare development is indicative of:

a. immediate hypersensitivity
b. delayed hypersensitivity
c. anergy
d. Arthus reaction

A

a. immediate hypersensitivity

98
Q
  1. Which immunologic mechanism is usually involved in bronchial asthma?

a. immediate hypersensitivity
b. antibody mediated cytotoxicity
c. immune complex
d. delayed hypersensitivity

A

a. immediate hypersensitivity

99
Q
  1. Antihistamines like Benadryl®:

a. depresses lgE production
b. block antigen binding to surface IgE
c. bind histamine
d. block H, histamine receptors

A

d. block H, histamine receptors

100
Q
  1. A monoclonal spike of IgG, Bence Jones proteinuria, and bone pain are usually associated with:

a. Burkitt lymphoma
b. Bruton disease
c. severe combined immunodeficiency disease
d. multiple myeloma

A

d. multiple myeloma

100
Q
  1. The most rapid immediate hypersensitivity reaction is associated
    with:

a. transfusion
b. anaphylaxis
c. contact dermatitis
d. serum sickness

A

b. anaphylaxis

101
Q
  1. Delayed hypersensitivity may be induced by:

a. contact sensitivity to inorganic chemicals
b. transfusion reaction
c. anaphylactic reaction
d. bacterial septicemia

A

a. contact sensitivity to inorganic chemicals

102
Q
  1. A 2-year-old patient is suspected to have a peanut allergy because of breathing difficulties(anaphylaxis), which progressed to wheezing within a few minutes upon consumption of peanut butter. What in vitro diagnostic test (eg, solid-phase enzyme immunoassay
    [EIA] or indirect ELISA) would confirm this type of allergy?

a. total serum gG and allergen specific IgG
b. total serum lgA and allergen specific lgA
c. total serum IgE and allergen specific lgE
d. total serum gM and allergen specific IgM

A

c. total serum IgE and allergen specific lgE

103
Q
  1. The hyperviscosity syndrome is most likely to be seen in monoclonal disease of which of the following immunoglobulin classes?

a. lgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD

A

b. IgM

104
Q
  1. Patients suffering from
    Waldenström macroglobulinemia
    demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which of the
    following?

a. IgG
b. lgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

A

c. IgM

105
Q
  1. Cells from a patient with hairy cell leukemia have immunologic
    features of:

a. mast cells and B lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes
c. granulocytes and monocytes
d. B lymphocytes and monocytes

A

d. B lymphocytes and monocytes

105
Q
  1. Which of the following is an important marker for the presence of
    immature B cells in patients with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

a. terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
b. adenosine deaminase
c. G6PD
d. purine nucleoside phosphorylase

A

a. terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

105
Q
  1. Which T-cell malignancy may retain “helper” activity with regard to
    immunoglobulin synthesis by B cells?

a. Hodgkin lymphoma
b. acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
c. Sézary syndrome
d. chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

A

c. Sézary syndrome

106
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common humoral immune
    deficiency disease?

a. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
b. IgG deficiency
c. selective IgA deficiency
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

c. selective IgA deficiency

106
Q
  1. Which of the following are true statements about selective IgA deficiency?

a. associated with a decreased incidence of allergic
manifestations
b. high concentration of secretory component in the saliva
c. associated with an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases
d. found in approximately 1 out of every 50 persons

A

c. associated with an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases

SEROLOGY MTAP 1 (8 decks)

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