CIT Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is endpoint security solution?

A

It is a suite of tools that actively protect workstations or end-user devices (such as desktops, laptops, and personal mobile devices that access company resources) from most attack vectors.

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2
Q

True or False Endpoint Security Solution operates as an enterprise security perimeter and is best suited for bring your own device (BYOD)

A

True

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3
Q

Sean who works as a network administrator has just deployed an IDS in his organization’s network. Sean deployed an IDS that generates four types of alerts that include: true positive, false positive, false negative, and true negative. In which of the following conditions does the IDS generate a true positive alert?

-A true positive is a condition occurring when an event triggers an alarm when no actual attack is in progress.
-A true positive is a condition occurring when an IDS identifies an activity as acceptable behavior and the activity is acceptable.
-A true positive is a condition occurring when an event triggers an alarm and causes the IDS to react as if a real attack is in progress.
-A true positive is a condition occurring when an IDS fails to react to an actual attack even

A

A true positive is a condition occurring when an event triggers an alarm and causes the IDS to react as if a real attack is in progress.

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4
Q

Which detection method searches for unknown viruses by looking for known suspicious behavior or file structure?

A

Heuristic detection

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5
Q

What is NOT true of Muti-Engine Antivirus Scanning?
1) Only one AV should be installed on a workstation
2) Different AVs, different mythologies , and block lists
3) Scanning with multiple engines simultaneously
4) More than one AV can be installed on a workstation

A

4) More than one AV can be installed on a workstation

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6
Q

What is worse a false positive or false negative cybersecurity?

A

A false positive state is when the IDS identifies an activity as an attack but the activity is acceptable behavior. A false positive is a false alarm. A false negative state is the most serious and dangerous state. This is when the IDS identifies an activity as acceptable when the activity is actually an attack.

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7
Q

If multiple honeypots are connected to form a larger network, what term is used to describe the network?

a. honeycomb

b. combo lure

c. laureate

d. honey net

A

honeynet

Two or more honeypots on a network form a honey net.

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8
Q

_________ are decoy systems designed to lure potential attackers away from critical systems.

A) Honeypots
B) Bastion Hosts
C) Wasp Nests
D) Designated Targets

A

A) Honeypots

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9
Q

Which solution can be used to emulate computer services, such as mail and ftp, and to capture information related to logins or actions?

-DeMilitarized Zone (DMZ)
-Honeypot
-Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
-Firewall

A

-Honeypot

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10
Q

Which type of data loss prevention system is usually installed near the network perimeter?

A

Network-based data loss prevention (DLP) solutions

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11
Q

Data leakage prevention products can operate at which two modes?

A

Block List or Allow List

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12
Q

DLP capabilities should be ______ to reduce false positives and ensure security policies are sufficiently enforced in cloud or hybrid environments.

Content aware
Context aware
Compliance aware
Both content and compliance aware
Both content and context aware

A

Both content and context aware

DLP tools in cloud or hybrid environments should be content aware and context aware – meaning, in addition to knowing what data is in scope and where it is, DLP tools should be aware of who is accessing it, from where and whether that access follows security policies.

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13
Q

Allow Listing is always the best approach and a more secure solution true or false?

A

True

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14
Q

Which of the following is the most important aspect in determining DLP readiness before deploying?

Choosing a vendor

Focusing on DLP limitations in extreme cases

Identifying data it is designed to protect

Relying on DLP as an infallible security control

A

Identifying data it is designed to protect

The most simple yet significant aspect of ensuring DLP effectiveness is determining what data to protect and where that data resides. DLP works best when the data has a defined pattern, location or source.

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15
Q

DLP products can be categorized into which of the following two deployment models?

Zero trust and cloud-based

Cloud-based and agent-based

Network-based and agent-based

None of the above

A

Network-based and agent-based

When choosing a DLP product, security leaders must decide between network-based and agent-based deployment models.

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16
Q

Which of the following is too often considered an afterthought when implementing DLP tools for security?

Structured data in databases

unstructured data.

Account directory data

Data in transit

A

Structured data in databases

To detect weaknesses and improve DLP management, pay special attention to structured data found in databases, which can often be overlooked by IT leaders preoccupied with the risks associated with unstructured data.

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17
Q

How do DLP tools help organizations maintain data privacy compliance?

DLP software provides templates for compliance with certain regulations.

DLP systems log alerts and/or prevent sensitive data from being sent outside the organization.

Both of the above

None of the above

A

Both of the above

By providing templates for compliance with mandates such as HIPAA and by logging and/or preventing sensitive data from being sent externally, DLP can significantly aid compliance efforts as part of an enterprise data privacy framework.

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18
Q

File timestamp is a metadata that contains information about a file and reflects when the file was created, last accessed, and last modified. In digital forensics, timestamps can be used for example to validate the integrity of an access log file (i.e. to check whether the file has been tampered with to mask unauthorized access attempt). Because different systems might be set to different time zones, in order to determine the chronological order of events during a security incident it is also important to take into account time offset which denotes the difference between the timestamp and a chosen reference time (a.k.a. time normalization).
True
False

A

True

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19
Q

What is a communication protocol for electronic mail transmission?

A

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a method of exchanging information between a sender’s server and a recipient’s server

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20
Q

What port does SMTP use?

A

Port 25

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21
Q

What does POP3 stand for and what port does it use?

A

Post Office Protocol port 110

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22
Q

What does the TXT Record contain?

A

Contains descriptive human-readable text in a DNS record that often includes contact and hosting information

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23
Q

What command is used to query DNS records, create automated scripts, and perform DNS zone transfers?

A

nslookup

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24
Q

What attack method is designed to trick users into thinking the attacker is a legitimate entity so the attacker can perform such nefarious activities as gaining access to the victim’s personal information, spreading malware through infected links or attachments, and bypassing network access controls.

A

Spoofing

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25
Which attack is the act of altering DNS records to redirect traffic to a malicious online destination.
DNS Spoofing
26
What part of the email provides the message’s routing information, which includes the email metadata, such as sender, recipient, and content type, which describes the type of data being sent (
Email header
27
What platform should be used for testing email attachments?
The sandbox scans the file’s behavior to determine whether or not it has malicious intentions.
28
What is used as a mail proxy located in DMZ and is responsible for sending and receiving email outside of and within the company
Mail Relay (can support many types of security mechanisms, such as DKIM, SPF, and DMARC to protect against phishing attacks as previously described.)
29
Which of the following is NOT true for security operations center (SOC) functions? 1) Manages security incidents 2) Monitors different system logs and responds to incidents 3) Handles network management, configuration, and IT 4) Uses SIEM and ticket management tools
3 incorrect because they don't handle network management configuration, and IT SOC handle data analysis and technology
30
Which feature is a characteristic of later SIEMs? Select one: A) Collect, normalize, and store log events and alerts B) Connect all security tools together into defined workflows C) Manage network information and alerts D) Manage network events and alerts
A) Collect, normalize, and store log events and alerts
31
Which feature provides SIEM greater visibility into the entire network? Select one: A) Complying with regulations B) Deciphering encrypted logs and alerts C) Sharing of logs by IoTs and BYODs D) Analyzing logs and alerts from a single-pane-of-glass
D) Analyzing logs and alerts from a single-pane-of-glass
32
Which problem was a barrier to the general acceptance of first-generation SIEM? Select one: A) The point solution approach to network security B) Cost to purchase was prohibitive C) Did not have the features needed by organizations D) High-level of skill was required
D) High-level of skill was required
33
What is one method that SIEM uses to analyze data? Select one: A) Apply security controls B) Decipher encrypted data flows C) Decipher encrypted logs and alerts D) Watch for known indicators of compromise (IoC)
D) Watch for known indicators of compromise (IoC)
34
The intrusion detection system at a software development company suddenly started generating multiple alerts regarding attacks against the company's external webserver, VPN concentrator, and DNS servers. What should the security team do to determine which alerts to check first? -Investigate based on the maintenance schedule of the affected systems. -Investigate based on the service-level agreements of the systems. -Investigate based on the order that the alerts arrived in. -Investigate based on the potential effect of the incident.
Investigate based on the potential effect of the incident.
35
What does the term SIEM stand for? Security Information and Email Management Security Information and Electronic Measurement Security Information and Emergency Management Security Information and Event Manager
Security Information and Event Manager
36
Aggregation Alerts (summary of log data) true or false?
True (brute force and port scanning
37
Correlation Alerts (taking all the logs and seeing the bigger picture of what’s going on) true or false?
True can imply a malicious hacking attempt
38
What does the acronym SOAR stand for?
Security Orchestration, Automation, Response (SOAR)
39
From the choices below, what is the best description of S.O.A.R? 1) combines the processes and the security tools available to exploit opportunities given a particular situation. 2) Connects all tools in your security stack together into defined workflows that can be run automatically 3) Correctly orients the security team to address the cyber threat according to the situation.
Connects all tools in your security stack together into defined workflows that can be run automatically
40
The primary benefit of SOAR is that its automation eliminates the need for many repetitive Tier 1 analyst functions, thereby reducing incident response time. true or false?
True?
41
What are playbooks used for?
To automate task an analyst would have to do manually (automation)
42
What is alert fatigue?
When an analyst is overwhelmed with the number of alerts coming in
43
Which of the following typically uses a combination of human and artificial intelligence to analyze event data and take action without intervention? A. TTP B. OSINT C. SOAR D. SIEM
C. SOAR
44
1. What does IoT stand for? a) Internet of Technology b) Incorporate of Things c) Internet of Things d) Incorporate of Technology
c) IoT stands for Internet of Things
45
What is considered IoT? a) Any device or component, such as a fitness tracker, alarm system, or thermostat can be included in IoT if they can connect to the internet b) network of virtual objects c) network of objects in the ring structure d) network of sensors
Any device or component, such as a fitness tracker, alarm system, or thermostat can be included in IoT if they can connect to the internet.
46
Which of the following is false about IoT devices? a) IoT devices use the internet for collecting and sharing data b) IoT devices need microcontrollers c) IoT devices use wireless technology d) IoT devices are completely safe
d) IoT devices are completely safe IoT devices are wireless devices and they use the internet for collecting and sharing data. They are not completely safe because they store data and sometimes hackers access them and lack proper security measures
47
True or false IoT devices are subject to On-path (ON-PATH) and both DOS and DDOS attacks.
True
48
What framework provides a list of IoT vulnerabilities and mediatization's?
OWASP
49
The primary best practice for the security of IoT devices is to purchase devices that were designed with security in mind. True or False
True
50
What are some additional security best practices for IoT devices?
least-privilege and least-route methods, segregation (VLANs), IPS, firewalls, vulnerability scanners, NAC, and others and remove End of Life equipment.
51
What Is ICS?
Industrial Control Systems (ICS) are units that monitor and manage industrial machinery used in critical infrastructure.
52
What does ICS do?
(ICS) are units that monitor and manage industrial machinery used in critical infrastructure. ICS integrates hardware, software, and network connectivity to achieve remote support and management of critical infrastructure devices.
53
What protocol does ICS operate?
ICS can operate with the following protocols: RS-485, Modbus, DNP3, TASE 2.0, CIP, PROFIBUS, BACnet, and others.
54
What Is Firmware?
Firmware is semi-permanent software used to operate hardware components. It is written onto dedicated flash memory on the computer’s hardware and provides instructions for hardware devices to enable communication with other hardware components.
55
What is EDR?
Endpoint Threat Detection and Response (EDR) provides high visibility on all endpoints in the organization. The focus of EDR is on detecting and responding to malicious activity on the host. EDR
56
EDR achieves its goal by utilizing machine learning and detects abnormal or anomalous activities on a workstation. True or false
True
57
What is NGFW?
Next generation Firewall can identify the applications and features running over the network, identify malware
58
What is a Host based Firewall?
software runs on individual endpoint
59
Host based intrusion protection system (HIPS)
This means that when the protection system detects a possible security event, it will automatically try to block it. Recognize and block known attacks Secure OS and application config Often built into endpoint protection software
60
Host based intrusion detection system (HIDS)
It means that the protection system will be able to detect and alert upon a possible security event, but it will not attempt to block anything. Uses log files to identify intrusions Can reconfigure firewall to block
61
What are HIPS Identification or signature techniques?
signature, heuristic, behavioral
62
Defense in Depth
slowing down the progress of a hacker
63
Which of the following is an area where IoT is used? Enterprise IoT Industrial IoT Agriculture & Meteorology All of the above
All of the above
64
True of False IoT apps are clients connecting to a server that controls the IoT devices?
True
65
Which of the following are components that allow IoT devices to function (Select 2) Translator External monitor Data analysis and processing Connectivity
Data analysis and processing Connectivity
66
Which of the following is a common hard-coded secret in an IoT device? Sensitive URLs Local pathnames API & encryption keys All of the above
All of the above
66
True or False Firmware updates are released more frequently than software updates
False
66
What are two common IoT attack vectors
unencrypted and firmware updates
66
Which of the following are industrial IoT devices • Sensors and devices • Connectivity • Data analysis and processing • User interface All of the above
All of the above
67
Shodan provides a threat intelligence tool for scanning what exactly
web headers
68
What are 3 ICS components?
HMI, PCL, RTU's