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NATOPS > Chpt 7 - Normal Procedures > Flashcards

Chpt 7 - Normal Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

All engines are normally started in LSGI. This preferred procedure provides a ___.

A

more gradual heating of engine components

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2
Q

On the ground, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, motor the engine for at least __ seconds with the engine start switch in the MOTOR position. On subsequent start, it is acceptable to have flames out the tailpipe for a few seconds due to ____.

A

30 secs

residual fuel

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3
Q

If starting an engine with a windmilling (from ___) propeller, the FADEC may not perform the check of the ____. If the check is not performed, the ____ ACAWS Caution message will appear. Follow Crew Action for the ACAWS.

A

wind
propeller independent overspeed protection circuit
PROP 1 (2,3,4) NO 119% PROTECT

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4
Q

The typical time from starter activation until NP is on speed is __ seconds. Allow up to __ minutes after NG is on speed for onset of propeller rotation.

A

30 secs

2 mins

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5
Q

Fuel flow is indicated at approximately __ percent NG.

A

40

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6
Q

If a start is not successful, the FADEC will shut fuel off after __ seconds from starter switch activation.

A

70

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7
Q

If an automatic shutdown occurs, place the ENGINE START switch to STOP and allow NG to decrease to ___ then wait __ seconds before attempting a restart.

A

zero then wait 30 secs

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8
Q

Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining a start is __ psi. A momentary drop below __ psi when the starter valve opens is acceptable.

A

22 psi

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9
Q

Before attempting ground restarts, wait __ seconds after NG reaches __ to enable a successful test of the NG ____.

A

30 secs
0
independent over-speed protection circuit

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10
Q

If any of the following Warnings occur, pull the engine FIRE handle and place the ENGINE START switch to STOP:

A

(1) ENG1 (2,3,or4) FIRE.
(2) ENG1 (2,3,or4) MGT HI.
(3) START VLV 1 (2, 3, or 4) OPEN.
(4) Visible indications of a fire.
(5) Visible fluid leak.

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11
Q

Normal hydraulic system operating pressure should be indicated within __ seconds after the ___ is on speed.

A

30

propeller

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12
Q

If OAT is above __ °F (__ °C) and the wing/empennage anti-ice test must be repeated, wait at least __ minutes before repeating test to prevent overheating the vertical tail.

A 
70 F (21 C)
10 mins
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13
Q

Propeller ice protection system BIT requires at least __ engines in HSGI.

A

2

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14
Q

If the stick pusher test is attempted __ consecutive times, allow a minimum of __) minutes of cooling time before attempting another test. This is to prevent failure of the ___.

A

5
5 mins
stick pusher servo

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15
Q

Engine anti-ice must be ON if OAT ≤__ °C with ___.

A

10

visible moisture

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16
Q

At pressure altitudes greater than __ feet, operate with the engine anti-ice ON for a minimum of __ minutes to stabilize engine temperatures before applying takeoff power in order to reduce the possibility of an __ ACAWS event when takeoff power is applied.

A

3000
3 mins
ENG 1 (2,3,4) MGT HI

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17
Q

Braking in a tight turn will cause the inboard tires to ___.

A

stop turning

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18
Q

Taxiing fast on rough terrain can greatly increase the ___ normally imposed on landing gear and wing structure and can cause ____ and ____.

A

loads

structural damage and reduced component life

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19
Q

With four engines operating, the aircraft can be taxied in a __-knot, __° crosswind by use of nosewheel steering and rudder control only. Taxiing in high winds up to __ knots requires all four engines operating, and may require the coordinated use of nosewheel steering, rudder, differential braking, and differential power.

A

30 knot
90 degree
60 knots

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20
Q

Check HUD radar altimeter between __ and __ feet

A

-3 and 1 feet

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21
Q

Normal ground idle should be selected by disengaging the LSGI buttons rather than by power lever movement. Movement of the power levers beyond LSGI range with ambient temperature above __ °C (__ °F) may cause ___.

A 
27 C (81 F)
rpm stall and over temperature
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22
Q

At pressure altitudes greater than ___ feet, reduce the bleed air requirement during takeoff by selecting the AIR COND CARGO COMPT POWER switch and UNDERFLOOR switch to OFF. This will reduce the possibility of an ___ ACAWS event when takeoff power is applied.

A 
3,000 feet
ENG 1 (2,3,4) MGT HI
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23
Q

When HP is within __ of the TAKEOFF prediction the Pilot Monitoring will call “Power Set”.

A

200

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24
Q

An abrupt release of deflected brake pedals could possibly cause the brakes on the ___ of the aircraft to remain partially engaged, and could result in directional control difficulties during takeoff or landing roll. The pilot should smoothly release fully applied brake pedals over approximately __ seconds.

A

left side

2 secs

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25
Q

Operation over disc-type support arresting cables at speeds in excess of taxi speeds may result in damage to ___ by cable strikes

A

aircraft antennas

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26
Q

During the takeoff run, use nose wheel steering and smoothly transition to rudder control as it becomes effective at approximately __ to __ knots.

A

50 to 70 knots

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27
Q

Crosswind Takeoff

When takeoff power is applied, the upwind wing will rise. The worst case is with winds from the __ side. With crosswind components to 35 knots, expect an angle of bank of up to __° to remain during initial takeoff roll until the aileron is effective at approximately __ knots. Crosswind components in excess of __ knots can cause the wing to rise uncontrollably, and may result in the wing or propeller striking the runway, or the aircraft departing the side of the runway.

A

Right
4
60 knots
35 knots

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28
Q

Because of the large surface area of the KC-130J, pilots should determine the maximum crosswind component permitted during pre-mission planning if reported and forecast winds exceed __ knots with a crosswind component exceeding __ degrees off the relative nose position based on the runway in use.

A

22 knots

45 degrees

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29
Q

An increasing barometric altimeter and a positive vertical velocity can be used to verify a positive rate of climb. The radar altimeter passing __ feet can also be used to verify a positive rate of climb.

A

15

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30
Q

Normal Climb out Flap Retraction Schedule

<100,000 lbs:
100,000 to 140,000 lbs:
>140,000 lbs:

A

Raise flaps passing FUSS, (135 KIAS).

Begin flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS, (VOBS +25).

Raise flaps in 10- percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (VOBS +5) and ending at FUSS (VOBS +25).

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31
Q

Climb speed schedule

A

180 KIAS to 10,000 feet (Four-engine climb above 165,000 pounds).
170 KIAS to 15,000 feet (Four-engine climb above 150,000 pounds).
160 KIAS to 25,000 feet (Four-engine climb above 130,000 pounds).
Four-engine climb speed above 25,000 feet.

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32
Q

During a maximum effort climb at ___ speed, the rudder forces are the lowest of any part of the flight envelope.

A

Vobs

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33
Q

To avoid sideslip control difficulties during a maximum effort climb, limit angle of bank to __ degrees until airspeed is above __ knots.

A

20

120 kts

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34
Q

Max effort flap retraction schedule

A
  1. <100,000 pounds — Raise flaps passing FUSS, (135 KIAS).
  2. 100,000 to 140,000 pounds — Begin flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS, (VOBS +45).
  3. > 140,000 pounds—Raise flaps in 10 percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (VOBS +25) and ending at FUSS (VOBS +45).
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35
Q

To prevent engine damage due to ice ingestion, engine anti-ice should be __ if OAT is __ °C with visible moisture. Icing conditions may exist when the OAT is __ °C and visible moisture is present in any form (clouds, fog with visibility of __ mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals).

A

ON
<10
<10
1 mile

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36
Q

Check the temperature of the center and side windscreens ___ per flight to ensure NESA operation.

A

once

37
Q

The ___ is not RVSM compliant and cannot be used to determine RVSM altitude.

A

standby altimeter

38
Q

With altitude hold engaged, the autopilot must maintain airplane altitude within ±__ feet of the assigned RVSM flight level during normal cruise

A

65 ft

39
Q

Windshear, GCAS, and stall warning alerts have priority over ___.

A

TCAS

40
Q

The overspeed audible alert (the clacker) activates at __ plus __ knots to alert the crew that VD has been exceeded. Should the clacker sound, take immediate action to reduce airspeed.

A

Vd

2 kts

41
Q

Perform the In-Range flows and checklists after transitioning airfields, completing cruise flight above ___ ft AGL or transitioning ___ (whichever is ___).

A

5,000 AGL
TA/TL
lower

42
Q

The wing/empennage anti-ice/de-ice system should not be operated in the anti-icing mode except during approach and landing. Operation below __ °C at power settings above ___ HP, or above ___ feet pressure altitude at any power setting may degrade engine life.

A

-30 C
2,500 HP
20,000 ft

43
Q

Wing/empennage anti-icing in anti-ice mode should be turned on in sufficient time prior to landing to ensure the vertical stabilizer is completely anti-iced. This may take as long as __ minutes. Failure to do so will cause the ___ ACAWS message to be displayed when the landing gear are lowered, and the side slip warning system will limit crosswind landing capability if icing is detected.

A

2.5 mins

X-WIND LIMITED

44
Q

Trigger for the approach checklist

A

When the final approach navaid is set in the CDI source of the AMU NAV SELECT page.

45
Q

Extending landing lights while illuminated may induce pilot ___ when in IMC conditions.

A

vertigo

46
Q

If icing is encountered on an approach within __ minutes of landing, refer to LANDING WITH ICE ACCUMULATION procedure in the Quick Reference Handbook and adjust speed appropriately to ensure aircraft maintains a safe margin above __.

A

6 mins

Vs

47
Q

The autopilot is capable of intercepts up to __ degrees, but to enhance intercept performance, a maximum of __ degrees is recommended.

A

90

45

48
Q

Selecting ___ mode prior to being cleared for the approach could lead to the AFCS initiating a descent without clearance.

A

APPR

49
Q

The bank angle is limited to __ degrees during localizer course capture. Once established, bank angle is limited to __ degrees.

A

25

10

50
Q

The autopilot is capable of intercepts up to __ degrees for a back course localizer, but to enhance intercept performance, a maximum of __ degrees is recommended.

A

75

45

51
Q

A hard landing is likely to cause the aircraft to bounce, especially if a nose-up pitch rate is occurring when the main landing gear touch down. A bounce will delay the ___ and ___, and will lengthen ___.

A

selection of ground range power
braking capability
ground roll

52
Q

The safe condition for moving the power levers below FLT IDLE is ___, and below __ KTAS.

A

weight on all three gears

145 KTAS

53
Q

The B in the HP gauge comes on anytime blade angle is between __° and __°, and true airspeed is below __ KTAS.

A

23 and 10.5

145

54
Q

When airspeed is above approximately __ KTAS, power lever movement below FLT IDLE will have no effect because the propeller blade angle will be above __°

A

155

23

55
Q

Power lever operation below FLT IDLE between about __ and __ KTAS may result in ___, damage to components, and ____. Without AC power anti-skid will be lost. Hard wheel braking could cause the main tires to blow.

A

155 and 145
propeller overspeed
tripping of AC generators

56
Q

Ground speed of less than __ knots is generally required to begin a __° turn.

A

20 kts

90

57
Q

At gross weights above ___ pounds, if normal speeds are flown, fly the approach at the __ KIAS 100% flap limit speed

A

151,000

145

58
Q

At __ feet AGL, if the aircraft is displaced more than __ feet laterally from the intended point of landing, or displaced vertically plus or minus __ degree of target glidepath, a go-around should be executed.

A

100 AGL
75 ft
1 degree

59
Q

Special high speed landing procedures are required for the following conditions: (5 items)

A
  1. 100 percent flap landings at weight above 155,000 pounds.
  2. 50 percent flap landings at weight above 130,000 pounds.
  3. All 0 percent flap landings.
  4. All landings at field elevation greater than 4,000 feet MSL.
  5. Temperature greater than ISA +15°C, all landings at field elevation greater than 2,000 feet MSL.
60
Q

Do not move the power levers below FLT IDLE above __ KTAS during high speed landing. Moving the power levers below FLT IDLE above this speed can lead to all engine-driven generators tripping off-line due to an over frequency condition caused by excessively high propeller RPM transients. __ will be lost resulting in increased landing distance. If hard braking is applied when this occurs, main tires could blow causing possible loss of directional control and damage to the gear doors and surrounding structure.

A

145 KTAS

Anti-skid protection

61
Q

maximum recommended crosswind component for landing

A

35 kts

62
Q

With crosswind components above __ knots, a two step technique is recommended. At approximately __ feet above the ground, lower the upwind wing and apply rudder to bring the nose to within approximately __° of runway heading (runway within the HUD field of view). Between __ feet and __ feet above the runway, input the remaining rudder to land with the nose pointing slightly upwind from runway heading to prevent drift after touchdown.

A 
25 kts
200 ft
5 degrees
100 ft
30 ft
63
Q

To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over __° during landings.

A

5 degrees

64
Q

In strong crosswinds, Vthr + __ knots should be set at approximately __ feet above the runway.

A

5 kts

100 ft

65
Q

The ANTI-SKID FAIL Caution will appear if the left and right aft main wheels spin up more than __ seconds apart. Under normal conditions, the Caution will clear when the lagging wheel spins up. The Caution may occur when crosswinds are present during soft touchdowns and touch-and-go landings, or bounced landings. If the Caution clears, no anti-skid fault exists. If the Caution remains, it is likely the result of a ___.

A

3 secs

failed wheel sensor

66
Q

ANTI-SKID FAIL Caution occurring as the result of failed wheel speed sensor(s) will result in ___ (no braking available) on the affected wheel(s). Unaffected wheels will have full anti-skid braking. Since any anti-skid protection is preferred over no anti-skid protection, if the Caution appears after touchdown, do not select anti-skid OFF. If the Caution remains, apply MAX REV and cautious braking.

A

free wheeling

67
Q

If an engine fails after committed to land in a high crosswind, plan to use the combination of __, __, and __ as the power levers are moved below FLT IDLE. The resulting high down load on the nose gear significantly improves directional control and nosewheel steering effectiveness. Even if the runway is long, this may be required initially to counter the combined yawing moment from asymmetric thrust and weather-cocking.

A

hard wheel braking
forward control column input
nosewheel steering

68
Q

Blade angle scheduling at the GND IDLE power lever position is a function of ___ airspeed and is designed to make engine out stops easier to control. The benefits of this scheduling are not available if the power levers are brought below FLT IDLE above __ KIAS.

A

calibrated

115 KIAS

69
Q

Max Effort Landing

If runway length is critical, the touchdown should be completed between __ feet and __ feet from the beginning of the runway surface.

A

100 and 500

70
Q

Max Effort Landing

A 3° glideslope is recommended to a visual aim point about __ feet beyond the beginning of the runway surface. If an obstacle is on short final or other conditions exist requiring a steeper glideslope, target up to a __° glideslope while maintaining maximum effort threshold speed. With a 4.5° glideslope, aim approximately __ feet down from the beginning of the runway until about __ feet above the runway, at which time the glideslope should be decreased to approximately a 3° glideslope with an aim point approximately 150 feet from the beginning of the runway.

A

150 ft
4.5 degrees
100 ft
40 ft

71
Q

Ground run distances in NAVAIR 01-75GAJ-1.1 for maximum effort landing operations assume maximum antiskid braking and __ engines provide reverse thrust to the full stop.

A

all four

72
Q

Maximum Effort landing speeds have reduced stall margins. Touchdown should occur within __ knots of published speed. If the speed is too slow a hard landing may occur resulting in damage to the ___.

A

3 kts

airframe

73
Q

If full antiskid braking is used for landing, the gear should be left extended after an immediate subsequent takeoff for a minimum of __ minutes before retracting the gear or before another braked landing is attempted.

A

15 mins

74
Q

When conducting a series of partially braked landings at minimum interval (minimum interval is the time required to fly a ___), full brake application should not exceed __ seconds with braking starting at approximately __ knots. Gear should remain extended during the traffic pattern, gross weight is limited to ___ pounds or less, and no ___ factor is permissible.

A 
normal rectangular traffic pattern
3 secs
90 kts
130,000
tailwind
75
Q

After any full antiskid braking operation at gross weight above ___ pounds (aborted takeoff, engine-out/flaps up landing, etc.) assure adequate brake/tire cooling time prior to further aircraft operation. Approximate ground cooling time is __ minutes. If takeoff is essential prior to the recommended ground cooling time following a full antiskid braked landing at gross weight exceeding 130,000 pounds, and brakes are required during a subsequent aborted takeoff, brake failure, wheel and tire overheat, and/or tire deflation may occur.

A

130,000 lbs

65 mins

76
Q

Do not approach the main wheel area when extreme temperatures because of excessive braking are suspected. All personnel other than the fire department should evacuate the immediate area. The area on both sides of the wheel shall be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least __ feet. If conditions require personnel to be close to any overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should only be from the __ or __ of the wheel area.

A

300 ft

fore or aft

77
Q

Peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly after approximately __ to __ minutes and in the wheel and tire assembly from approximately __ to __ minutes after a maximum braking operation.

A

1 to 5 mins

20 to 30 mins

78
Q

Do not taxi or tow the aircraft for at least __ minutes after overheated brakes have been cooled.

A

15 mins

79
Q

Use caution when applying brakes following landing with a tailwind. In this condition, brakes are susceptible to overheating because of the greatly increased ___ required to decelerate.

A

brake energy

80
Q

Alone, brakes merely stop the wheel from turning. Stopping the aircraft is dependent on the friction of the tires on the runway. Scuffing of rubber from the tires reduces friction with the runway. Therefore, if one pair of wheels lock during application of brakes, there is a tendency for the aircraft to turn ___ from the locked wheels.

A

away

81
Q

Three fusible plugs are installed in each main landing gear wheel. The fusible plugs function on tubeless tire installations to minimize tire blowout caused by wheel brake overheat. When wheel rim temperature reaches __ °F the fusible plug core melts, allowing the tire to deflate at a safe rate. This protection is not available on tube-type tires or on tubeless tires when installed on wheels without fusible plugs.

A

390

82
Q

The go-around fight director command provides a nominal __° pitch attitude. At light weight, maintaining a high power setting at __° of pitch will result in overspeeding the gear and/or flaps.

A

7

7

83
Q

What triggers the after landing flow

A

after landing, speed less than 20 kts

84
Q

LSGI should be selected for __ minutes prior to shutdown to allow engine temperature to stabilize.

A

2 mins

85
Q

If an ENGINE PUMP switch is left in the OFF position, pressure buildup due to ___ of the hydraulic fluid may cause the suction line hydraulic firewall shutoff valve to __.

A

thermal expansion

fail

86
Q

When the aircraft is parked with the fuel tanks more than three quarters full (__ pounds in the outboard and __ pounds in the inboard), all crossfeed valves should be __. This prevents the low tanks from overfilling by slow transfer of fuel through the boost pump check valve bleed orifice from the cross-ship manifold and fuel spillage through the fuel vent system.

A

6,400 lbs
6,000 lbs
closed

87
Q

Operate the main tank boost pumps for a minimum of __ minutes after completion of refueling when the aircraft fuel tanks are more than three-quarters full or prior to the aircraft being towed or taxied with engines shut down. Aircraft movement could result in fuel spilling through the fuel vent system.

A

5 mins

88
Q

Fuel tank quantity indicators should be read while the aircraft is in level flight (__° roll and __° nose-up pitch) for the most reliable readings.

A

0 and 3

89
Q

Fuel Manifold Priming

A
  1. No. 1 main transfer FROM switch — On.
  2. CROSS SHIP switch — Open.
  3. Fuel pressure 28 to 40 psi — Check.
    a. Note actual pressure.
  4. No. 4 main transfer TO switch — Open.
  5. Fuel pressure decreases approximately 20 psi — Check.
    a. Indicates that FLCV has opened.
    If pressure does not decrease by approximately 20 psi when the No. 4 main transfer TO switch is set to Open, or increases to 28 - 40 psi within 30 seconds, priming was unsuccessful. Wait until sufficient fuel has been consumed to allow the FLCV to remain open and permit successful crossship manifold priming.
    If pressure does decrease:
  6. After 30 seconds, No. 4 transfer TO switch — CLSD.
    a. Verify fuel pressure returns to 28 to 40 psi, indicating that the FLCV has closed.
  7. No. 1 transfer FROM switch — OFF.
  8. Balance all main tanks for primary fuel management.
  9. Fuel crossfeed operation — Accomplish.

NATOPS (6 decks)

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