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CP1 = Core Micobiology > Childhood Viral Infections > Flashcards

Childhood Viral Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What immunoglobulin is found in acute infection?

A

IgM

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2
Q

Where does a child acquire IgG?

A

From mother.

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3
Q

Where is IgA acquired from?

A

Breast milk.

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4
Q

What Ig presence indicates previous infection and why?

A

IgG- because it is for long term immunity.

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5
Q

What type of virus is Measles?

A

Enveloped single stranded RNA.

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6
Q

How is Measles transmitted?

A

Person to person - droplet.

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7
Q

When is Measles infective?

A

4 days before rash to 4 days after rash.

“ 4 by 4”

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8
Q

What are the characteristics of a measles rash?

A

> Head-trunk
Maculo-papular
Erythmatous

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9
Q

What disease are Koplik’s spots found in?

A

Measles

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10
Q

What 3C’s are assc with Measles?

A

Cough, Coryza (Rhinitis), Conjunctivitis.

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11
Q

What is Otitis Media?

A

Middle Ear infection –> ~ hearing loss.

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12
Q

What are the complications of Measles?

A
  • Otitis Media
  • Pneumonia
  • Diarrhoea
  • Acute Encephalitis
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13
Q

What are the rarer complications of Measles?

A
  • Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

- Infection in pregnancy

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14
Q

What is the incidence of Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?

A

1/25000

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15
Q

Leukopenia confirms the diagnosis of what virus?

A

Measles

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16
Q

What does the MMR vaccine prevent?

A

Measles, Mumps and Rubella.

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17
Q

What is Chicken Pox also known as?

A

Varicella Zoster

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18
Q

What type of virus is Varicella Zoster?

A

A Herpes virus.

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19
Q

How is Varicella Zoster spread?

A

Resp spread/ human contact.

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20
Q

What is the Measles incubation period?

A

10-12 days

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21
Q

What is the Varicella Zoster incubation period?

A

~2 weeks (“Went to India for 2 weeks and got it”)

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22
Q

When is Varicella Zoster infective?

A

2 days before the rash to after vesicles dry up.

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23
Q

Where can chicken pox remain dormant?

A

Dorsal Root Ganglion

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24
Q

What can chicken pox resurface as?

A

Shingles in a single dermatome - painful

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25
Is a Chicken pox rash more pustular or macular?
Macular > pustular
26
Fever, Malaise and Anorexia belong to which virus?
Varicella Zoster
27
Complications of Varicella Zoster include:
> Pneumonitis (incr for smokers) > CNS involvement > Thrombocytopenic purpura > Congenital/Foetal varicella zoster.
28
Who should be treated for Varicella Zoster?
Symptomatic adults | Immunocompromised children
29
What does Aciclovir treat?
Varicella Zoster
30
What does Chlorpheniramine do?
Relieves itching in Chicken pox.
31
How can Varicella Zoster be prevented?
With a live vaccine.
32
When is Varicella Zoster Ig given?
> If condition predisposes to severe varicella --> immunosuppressed, pregnant women > If no antib's to VZ virus
33
Does VZ Ig prevent VZ?
No, reduces severity.
34
What type of virus is Rubella? | Hint : R to R
RNA Virus
35
What virus causes Rubella?
Togavirus
36
How is Rubella transmitted?
Droplet infection- air bourne
37
What is Rubella's incubation period?
14-21 days
38
When is Rubella infective?
One week before rash to 4 days after
39
What are the clinical features of Rubella?
> Lymphadenopathy - post-auricular, suboccipital. > Rash - non specific > Many = asymptomatic > Young females ~ aching joints.
40
What are the complications of Rubella?
Thrombocytopenia, post infectious encephalitis, arthritis.
41
What are the clinical features of congenital rubella syndrome?
> Inflammed lesion of brain, liver, bone and lung. > Cataracts > Deafness > Retarded inter-uterine growth
42
When is foetal damage rare after?
Week 16
43
When is deafness in CRS reported up until?
Week 20
44
What type of virus is Parvovirus B19?
A DNA virus
45
How is Parvovirus B19 spread?
Resp secretions or mother --> child.
46
What is Parvovirus B19's incubation period?
4-14 days.
47
What is hydrops and what virus causes it?
Abnormal fluid buildup in foetus caused by Parvovirus B19.
48
What rash characterises Parvovirus B19? (Hint: Think Pam)
"Slapped Cheek"
49
What are the clinical features of Parvovirus B19?
> Rash illness > Arthralgia - pain in a joint > Aplastic anaemia
50
How is Parvovirus diagnosed in foetuses?
Amniotic fluid sample - IgM
51
How is it diagnosed in immunocompromised?
PCR
52
Is Parvovirus self limiting or not?
Self-limiting. No vaccine (Can use blood transfusion)
53
In whom are Enteroviral infections most prevalent?
Under 5 year olds
54
How are Enteroviral infections transmitted?
Faecal-oral
55
What diseases can Enteroviruses cause?
> Hand, foot and mouth > Meningitis > Fever/Rashes
56
In whom is Broncholitis most common?
Under 1 year olds
57
What type of virus causes Broncholitis?
Respiratory Syncytial
58
How long does Broncholitis incubate for?
4-6 days
59
How are Resp Synctial viruses diagnosed?
PCR on secretions from nasopharyngeal aspirate
60
When is Palivizumab given and to who?
Neonates with Resp syncytial virus.
61
What are the symptoms of Metapneumovirus? | Hint : Weaker than Resp Syncytial
Runny nose, fever, sore throat.
62
What percentage of childhood RTI's does Adenovirus account for?
10%
63
Conjunctivitis, Mild URTI and diarhoea are assc with what virus?
Adenovirus
64
What family does Rhinovirus come from?
Picronaviridae
65
What virus causes Rotavirus?
Reovirus
66
How is Rotavirus transmitted?
Faecal - oral | Hint: Think GI for clinical features and treatment
67
What are the clinical features of Rotavirus?
Vomiting and diarrhoea
68
How long does Rotavirus incubate?
1-2 days
69
Norovirus is a short course disease, how long?
12-60hrs
70
How is Norovirus transmitted?
Foodbourne
71
What virus family causes Mumps?
Paramyxoviridae
72
How is Mumps transmitted?
Direct/droplet/fomitea
73
How long is Mumps infective for?
Before parotid swelling to after.
74
How long does Mumps incubate for?
2/4 weeks
75
What are the clinical features of mumps?
> Swollen parotid (usually bilateral) | > Non-specific prodome - fever (40 degrees), headache.
76
What are the rarer clinical features of Mumps? | Hint: All inflammations
``` > Submandibular/lingual sialadentitis > Oophoritis > Epidydmo-orchitis > Encephalitis > Meningitis > Pancreatitis ```

CP1 = Core Micobiology (7 decks)

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