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YEAR 2 Notion > Child Health Disease Profiles > Flashcards

Child Health Disease Profiles Flashcards

1
Q

what is term baby

A

birth between 37 and 42 weeks

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2
Q

what is normal weight for baby

A

2.5-4kg

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3
Q

how much weight should babies gain during the 3rd trimester

A

24g per day

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4
Q

when does trans placental transfer occur

A

3rd trimester

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5
Q

what are transferred in trans placental transfer

A

iron, vitamin, calcium, phosphate and antibodies

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6
Q

during contraction the baby is in what environment

A

hypoxic

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7
Q

what does prolonged labour reduce

A

fetal reserves

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8
Q

how can things like maternal smoking or drug use of mother affect babies for when giving birth

A

placenta insufficiency so difficult for Abby to cope with hypoxia

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9
Q

stress baby eperiences during labour increases what

A

adrenaline and cortisol

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10
Q

what does first cry/ breath cause

A

alveolar expansion

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11
Q

what is a score to measure perinatal adoption

A

Apgar

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12
Q

when is there decreased pulmonary arterial pressure and increased Pao2

A

perinatal adaptation

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13
Q

what is the calorific intake in the first 24hrs of baby

A

little intake

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14
Q

are babies alert immediately after delivery

A

very

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15
Q

what is given to newborn babies to prevent haemorrhage disease (disorder of clotting)

A

Vitamin K (prefer intramuscular)

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16
Q

if what is present in infection screen you should give vaccination for immediately

A

Hep B

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17
Q

Hep B and C, HIV, Syphillis, TB, Group B strep are screened in what

A

infection screen

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18
Q

what is an anticipatory method used to monitor babies at risk

A

early warning systems

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19
Q

mothers should have what vaccine

A

pertussis and influenza

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20
Q

what are some things you want to screen for in newborn

A

cystic fibrosis, hypothyroid and haemoglobiopathies

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21
Q

things that increase risk of giving birth early

A
  • already had greater than 2 preterm babies
  • abnormally shaped uterus
    -multiple pregnancy
    interval of less than 6 months between pregnancy
    -IVF
    smoking, alcohol, drugs
  • poor nutrition, some chronic conditions eg high BP or diabetes, multiple miscarriages or abortions
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22
Q

what babies need more help to stay warm

A

preterm babies

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23
Q

altered approach to preterm babies

A

delay cord clamping if possible, keep baby warm, gentle lung inflation(PEEP) and oxygen sat monitor

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24
Q

what does high surface area to body mass of baby result in

A

more likely to lose heat

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25
Q

babies BMR is what in hypothermia

A

low

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26
Q

what occurs usually 6-8 weeks after delivery

A

retinopathy of prematurity

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27
Q

what is early metabolic complication of prematurity

A

hypoglycaemia and hyponatrermia

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28
Q

what is late metabolic complications of preterm

A

osteopenia

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29
Q

do you want apgar score to be high or low

A

high

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30
Q

what is fluid in the lungs that does no clear in newborns

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn

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31
Q

2 examples of congenital respiratory disease of the newborn

A

tracheo-oesophageal fistula and diaphragmatic hernia

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32
Q

examples of a rhesus disease

A

hydrops foetalis

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33
Q

some congenital heart disease

A

tetralogy of allot, transposition of great arteries, coarction of the aorta

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34
Q

what are these; hypoxic ishcaemic encephalopathy, microcephaly, spina bifida

A

neurological illnesses of the newborn

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35
Q

renal illness of newborn

A

potters syndrome

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36
Q

muscular illness of newborn

A

myotonic dystrophy

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37
Q

problems related to glucose of newborn

A

hypoglycaemia

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38
Q

error of metabolism in newborns can cause

A

acidosis

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39
Q

potenital management of circulation of newborns

A

fluids, inotropes

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40
Q

early onset neonatal sepsis is acquired when

A

before and during delivery

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41
Q

early onset neonatal sepsis type of bacteria

A

Group B strep

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42
Q

late onset neonatal sepsis organism

A

coagulase negative staph or staph aureus

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43
Q

symptoms of neonatal sepsis

A

fever
reduced tone and activity
poor feeding
vomiting

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44
Q

signs of neonatal sepsis

A

respiratory distress or apnoea
tachycardia or bradycardia
hypoxia
jaundice within 24hrs

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45
Q

when might be a baby be hypoglycaemia

A

neonatal sepsis

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46
Q

does jaundice occur in most normal term babies and ore term babies

A

yes

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47
Q

jaundice is caused by hyperbilirubinaemia that is

A

unconjugated

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48
Q

what hyperbilirubinaemia is always pathological

A

conjugated

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49
Q

is unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia always pathological

A

no can be physiological or pathological

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50
Q

reasons for physiological jaundice

A

increased RBC breakdown or immature liver

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51
Q

main reason for physiological jaundice in premature babies

A

immature liver

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52
Q

how long does breast milk jaundice take to resolve

A

1.5-4 months

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53
Q

what is a common cause of jaundice in the first 24 hours of life

A

neonatal sepsis

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54
Q

what could be as a result of high levels of conjugated bilirubin

A

biliary atresia, Total parental nutrition, hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, trisomy 21

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55
Q

what is prolonged jaundice in a term baby and in a pre term baby

A

over 14 days in a term baby or 21 days in a preterm

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56
Q

is jaundice in the first 24hrs of life physiological or pathological

A

PATHOLOGICAL

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57
Q

what test to do if got early jaundice

A

FBC, serum bilirubin level and DCT (Coombs test)

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58
Q

tests done for prolonged jaundice

A

FBC< serum bilirubin level, liver function tests and thyroid function tests

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59
Q

treatment for early jaundice

A

phototherapy, hydration and underlying cause

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60
Q

what affects 75% of infants born before 29 weeks

A

respiratory distress syndrome

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61
Q

medical term for lung collapse

A

atelectasis

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62
Q

how does respiratory distress affect co2 levels

A

hypercapnia

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63
Q

respiratory distress affects what in lungs

A

alveoli

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64
Q

signs of respiratory distress

A

tachypnoea, grunting, intercostal recession (undraping between the ribs), nasal flaring, cyanosis

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65
Q

when should respiratory distress then gradually improve

A

2-4 days

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66
Q

management of respiratory distress

A

maternal steroid and surfactant replacement and ventilation

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67
Q

what can cause respiratory distress

A

acidosis and hypoglycaemia

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68
Q

what refers to the withdrawal symptoms that happens in neonates of mothers that used substance in pregnancy

A

neonatal abstinence syndrome

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69
Q

substances that can cause neonatal abstinence syndrome

A

opiates, methadone, cocaine, cannabis, alcohol

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70
Q

CNS symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome

A

irritability, tremors and seizures

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71
Q

baby could be — in neonatal abstinence syndrome

A

sweating

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72
Q

babies with neonatal abstinence syndrome kept in hospital for how long

A

least 3 days

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73
Q

how could a neonate with neonatal abstinence syndrome be supported

A

quiet and gentle dim environment with gentle handling and comforting

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74
Q

neonatal hypoglycaemia is defined as

A

blood glucose levels below 2.6mmol/L

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75
Q

3 signs of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

lethargy, jitteriness and seizure activity

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76
Q

what helps prevent hypoglycaemia in neonate

A

early feed and keeping baby warm

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77
Q

how warm should keep neonate

A

36.6-37.2

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78
Q

in hypoglycaemia baby would rather enterally feed than

A

feed baby with IV glucose

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79
Q

what do do if neonate is recurrently hypoglycaemic

A

hypoglycaemia screen

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80
Q

what occurs when a baby doesn’t receive enough oxygen before, during or just after birth

A

birth asphyxia

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81
Q

causes of brith asphyxia

A

maternal shock, intrapartum haemorrhage, prolapsed chord or nuchal cord

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82
Q

what is nuchal chord

A

cor dis wrapped around the neck of the baby

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83
Q

complication of birth asphyxia

A

hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

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84
Q

what is hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

A

multi organ damage due to tissue hypoxia

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85
Q

babies with what can benefit from therapeutic hypothermia

A

hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

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86
Q

what does therapeutic hypothermia do to babies with HIE

A

reduce risk of cerebral palsy, developmental delay, learning disability, blindness and death

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87
Q

what is floppy baby

A

neonatal hypotonia

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88
Q

baby with low muscle tone is

A

neonatal hypotonia

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89
Q

floppy baby has what features

A

lack of head control, increased range of movement, frog legged, feels like they ll fall out of your grasp

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90
Q

what investigations for neonatal hypotonia

A

Bloods, neurology review and imaging

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91
Q

central neonatal hypotonia has

A

normal strength

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92
Q

anterior horn neonatal hypotonia has

A

generalised weakness

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93
Q

neuromuscular neonatal hypotonia has

A

weakness in face, eyes an bulbar

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94
Q

muscle neonatal hypotonia has

A

weakness is proximal more than distal eg face

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95
Q

nerve neonatal hypotonia

A

weakness id greater distally than proximally

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96
Q

what imaging for neonatal hypotonia

A

cranial US and MRI

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97
Q

would you use next generation sequencing or acqh for blood for neonatal hypotonia

A

NGS

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98
Q

what interventions for neonatal hypotonia

A

resp and feeding support, physio,

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99
Q

treatment for spinal muscular atrophy

A

RNA targeted therapy

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100
Q

difference between neuromuscular and muscle neonatal hypotonia

A

neuromuscular has normal DTRs and muscle has decreased DTRs

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100
Q

difference between neuromuscular and muscle neonatal hypotonia

A

neuromuscular has normal DTRs and muscle has decreased DTRs

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101
Q

what neonatal hypotonia is often describes as alert

A

anterior horn cell

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102
Q

what is a hydrocephalus

A

cerebrospinal fluid building up abnormally within the brain and spinal chord

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103
Q

enlarged and rapidly increasing head circumference and bulging anterior fontanelle

A

hydrocephalus

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104
Q

management of hydrocephalus

A

ventriculoperitoneal shunt

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105
Q

part of the bowel becomes necrotic in neonates

A

necrotising enterocolitis

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106
Q

what can cause necrotising enterocolitis

A

premature baby being fed too early

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107
Q

necrotising enterocolitis symptoms

A

vomiting green bile, intolerance to feeds, distended tender abdomen with absent bowel sounds and blood in stools

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108
Q

gas in peritoneal cavity in necrotising enterocolitis indicates what

A

perforation

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109
Q

what does the abdominal X-ray in neonate with necrotising enterocolitis show

A

dilated bowel, bowel wall oedema and gas in bowel

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110
Q

management of necrotising enterocolitis

A

nil by mouth and clindamycin and cefotaxime

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111
Q

in neonates when bleeding into the ventricles inside the brain

A

intraventricular haemorrhage

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112
Q

what is the most common type of intraventricular haemorrhage

A

germinal matrix

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113
Q

condition that is obliteration of the lumen of the jejunum

A

jejunal atresia

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114
Q

how does jejunal atresia present

A

abdominal distenson and bilious ( yellow-greenish) vomitting within the first 24 hrs of birth

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115
Q

how does jejunal atresia present

A

abdominal distenson and bilious ( yellow-greenish) vomitting within the first 24 hrs of birth

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116
Q

treating jejunal atresia

A

surgery

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117
Q

malrotation presents with – vomit

A

green

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118
Q

investigation for malrotation is

A

upper gi contrast and followthrough

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119
Q

treatment of malrotation is

A

surgery

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120
Q

what is usually a manifestation of cystic fibrosis

A

meconium ileus

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121
Q

what is meconium ileus

A

abnormally thick meconium causing obstruction to the distal ileum

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122
Q

what is caused by a weakness in muscle around the groin

A

inguinal hernia

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123
Q

cerebral palsy can be from prenatal to less than— post natally

A

1month

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124
Q

post natal causes of cerebral palsy

A

meningitis, severe neonatal jaundice and head injury

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125
Q

genetic disease that causes muscles weakness and wasting

A

duchennes muscular dystrophy

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126
Q

aetiology for duchennes

A

defect gene for dystrophin on the X chromosome - X linked recessive

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127
Q

how can girls affect duchennes

A

they can be carriers

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128
Q

where do boys develop weakness first

A

around pelvis

129
Q

what age do boys present with deuchennes

A

3-5years

130
Q

gowers sign is

A

deuchennes

131
Q

lack of eye contact and delay in smiling

A

autism or reactive attachment disorder

132
Q

a child or infant that does not seek comfort from a parent or caregiver during times of threat, alarm, or distress

A

inhibited reactive attachment disorder

133
Q
  • a child who displays excessive familiarity with strangers, indiscriminate sociability or lack of selectivity in their choices of attachment figure
A

disinhibited reactive attachment disorder

134
Q

can childhood experiences interact with genetics

A

yes

135
Q

what can differentiate reactive attachment disorder from autism

A

coventry grid

136
Q

The presence of three or more of the following criteria in the past 12 months with at least one criterion present in the past 6 months:

  • Aggression to people or animals
  • Destruction of property
  • Decietfulness or theft
  • Serious violation of rules
A

conduct disorder

137
Q

some evidence of – being at greater risk of conduct disorder

A

twins

138
Q

not recommendeed but can be used in severe cases - drug that can help with impulsivity and aggressive behaviour

A

risperidone

139
Q

trisomy 21 is what condition

A

down syndrome

140
Q

what are these signs of:
- hypotonia, brachycephaly (small head with a flat back), short neck, short stature, prominent tongue, flattened face and nose, prominent skin folds, brush field spots (spots in eye)

A

down syndrome

141
Q

Down syndrome often have recurrent

A

otitis media

142
Q

what are cardiac defects that occur in 1 in 3 of Down syndrome

A

atrial and ventricular septal defects, patent ductus arterious and tetralogy of fallot

143
Q

go issues in Down syndrome

A

hirschsprungs disease and duodenal atresia

144
Q

Down syndrome are predisposed to developing what

A

diabetes and coeliac

145
Q

what is more common in adults with downs

A

dementia

146
Q

what is more common in children with downs

A

leukaemia

147
Q

what occurs in 10-20% of downs syndrome

A

hypothyroidism

148
Q

what sleeping disorders should you screen for in downs

A

obstructive sleep apnoea

149
Q

2 genetic causes of severe obesity

A

prader wili syndrome and barget biedl syndrome

150
Q

what genetic cause of obesity causes visual and renal impairment

A

barget biedl sydrome

151
Q

what is responsible for at least 1/4 of all pneumonia deaths in HIV infected infants

A

pneumocystis jiroveci

152
Q

can breast feeding prevent pneumonia

A

yes

153
Q

what is the leading cause of death in under 5 globally

A

diarrhoea

154
Q

diarrhoea causative organisms

A

rotavirus, e.coli

155
Q

what is diarrhoea usually caused by

A

faeces infected water or food

156
Q

management for diarrhoea

A

oral rehydration solution and zinc supplements

157
Q

glucose and sodium creates osmotic pull for

A

water

158
Q

where is the oral rehydration solution mostly absorbed

A

jejunum

159
Q

what is the % of babies born with HIV with HIV infected mothers without intervention

A

15-45%

160
Q

when can HIV transmission occur

A

pregnancy, delivery, breastfeeding

161
Q

intervention if mum got HIV

A
  • maternal lifelong antiretroviral treatment
    -screen and treat other sexual transmitted diseases
  • infant prophylaxis with co-trimoxazole for 6 weeks
162
Q

what is the clinical presentation of abby with HIV

A

recurrent or severe childhood illnesses eg otitis media, diarrhoea

163
Q

what is the test for HIV in babies under 18 months

A

PCR for HIV DNA or RNA

164
Q

what is the test for HIV in babies greater than 18 months

A

antibody test

165
Q

what immunological count for HIV to stage

A

CD4+

166
Q

should all children with HIV get treatment regardless of clinical stage

A

yes

167
Q

what is HAART

A

2 NRTIs and 1 NNRTI or protease inhibitor

168
Q

what is a NRTI

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

169
Q

example of NRTI

A

abacavir

170
Q

what is a NNRTI

A

non- neucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

171
Q

example of a NNRTI

A

efavirenz

172
Q

example of a protease inhibitor

A

kaletra

173
Q

what is a complication of the treatment for HIV and how can it be resolved

A

Immune reconstitution inflammatory system (IRDS) and with NSAIDs

174
Q

do most children infected with M. tuberculosis develop tb

A

no

175
Q

what does developing tb depend on

A

competence of the immune system to resist multiplication of the infection

176
Q

risk factors for tb

A

HIV, malnutrition and household contact

177
Q

tb length of cough or fever

A

greater than 2 weeks

178
Q

what is the primary site of infection in tb

A

ghon focus

179
Q

where is the ghost focus in the lung

A

periphery of mid zone

180
Q

military shadowing is

A

military tb

181
Q

what tb test is low yield in children

A

ziehl Neelson stain

182
Q

what is the Mantoux tuberculin skin test used to detect

A

tb

183
Q

what tb test is not used in children under 5

A

interferon gamma release assays

184
Q

latent tb treatment

A

RI for 3 months or I for 6 months

185
Q

what is the parasite that causes malaria

A

Plasmodium from female anopheles mosquito

186
Q

what is the parasite that causes the most severe malaria as it crosses the blood brain barrier

A

P. falciparum

187
Q

what is the clinical presentation like for malaria

A

very variable

188
Q

what is the management for malaria

A

aremisinin- based combination therapy for 3 days
severe malaria - artesunate IV or IM

189
Q

what is a protein energy malnutrition from only having carbs resulting in oedema

A

Kwashiokor

190
Q

malnutrition resulting in low body weight

A

marasmus

191
Q

diagnosing severe acute malnutrition

A
  • mid-arm circumference less than 115mm
  • weight for height under 3 SD
    -oedema of both feet
192
Q

when can malnutrition patients be treated as outpatients

A

have an appetite and are clinically well and alert

193
Q

some treatment for outpatients fo malnutrition are

A

investigate cause, vitamin A, de- worm, Therapeutic food and check vaccinations

194
Q

examples of ready to use therapeutic food

A

peanut butter, dried milk, vitamins and minerals

195
Q

what should be given immediately on admission if severely malnourished

A

feed or glucose due to risk of hypoglycaemia

196
Q

when is the only time to use IV route for rehydration in malnutrition

A

shock

197
Q

what is not suitable for severely malnourished children

A

oral rehydration solution

198
Q

giving iron early in malnutrition aggregates what

A

infection

199
Q

is primary or sensory epilepsy more common

A

secondary

200
Q

bronchiolitis is most commonly due to

A

RSV ( respiratory syncytial virus)

201
Q

bronchiolitis generally occurs in children under

A

1

202
Q

croup causes what

A

oedema in the larynx

203
Q

croup is commonly caused by what virus

A

parainfluenza

204
Q

barking cough

A

croup

205
Q

does croup have runny nose, sneezing mucus in throat and watery eyes

A

no but bronchiolitis does

206
Q

mild croup is treated with

A

corticosteroid eg dexamethasone

207
Q

treatment for severe group

A

dexamethasone, oxygen, adrenaline

208
Q

what kind of wheeze would be heard throughout the chest in acute asthma

A

expiratory wheeze

209
Q

how can the chefs sound in acute asthma attack

A

tight

210
Q

peak flow is what in kids SEVERE acute asthma attack

A

less than 50%

211
Q

resp rate of severe asthma attack

A

1-5 years old is GREATER THAN 40
older than 5 years is GREATER THAN 30

212
Q

heart rate in acute severe asthma attack in kids is

A

1-5 years is GRATER THAN 140
older than 5 years is GREATER THAN 125

213
Q

MILD ASTHMA ATTACK IN KIDS TREATMENT

A

SALBUTAMOL INHALERS 4-6 PUFF EVERY 4 HRS

214
Q

ACUTE ASTHMA PNEUMONIC FOR TREATMENT

A

OSHITMAN

215
Q

what causes sputum to fill the airways and alveoli

A

pneumonia

216
Q

what is the most common viral cause of childhood pneumonia

A

RSV

217
Q

what is the cough like in kids pneumonia

A

wet and productive

218
Q

a high fever in kids is greater than

A

38.5

219
Q

what are bronchial breath sounds

A

harsh breath sounds that are equally loud on inspiration and expiration

220
Q

dullness to percussion is caused by

A

lung tissue collapse and or consolidation

221
Q

what is focal coarse crackles caused by

A

air passing through sputum

222
Q

signs of pneumonia in kids

A

bronchial breath sounds, focal coarse crackles, dullness to percuss

223
Q

when would you take blood cultures in kids pneumonia

A

if signs of sepsis

224
Q

first line in kids pneumonia

A

amoxicillin

225
Q

in kids pneumonia what is used if allergic to penicillin or to cover atypical

A

macrolide eg erythromycin

226
Q

what is the most common rhythm disturbance in kids

A

SVT

227
Q

4 types of SVT in kids

A

a fib, paroxysmal SVT, atrial flutter, wolff Parkinson white syndrome

228
Q

what is the heart rate in SVT

A

150-270

229
Q

SVT presents with

A

palpitations

230
Q

gram neg or pos that cause the majority of organisms responsible for paediatric infective endocarditis

A

positive

231
Q

what may be auscultated in paediatric IE

A

new or changing heart murmur

232
Q

joint pain and headaches can be symptoms in

A

paediatric IE

233
Q

when should you start antibiotics in infective endocarditis

A

after you have obtained culture then transition to specific antibiotics based on culture results

234
Q

what is gastroenteritis

A

inflammation all the way from the stomach to the intestines

235
Q

is gastroenteritis most commonly viral or bacterial

A

viral eg rota or norovirus

236
Q

gastroenteritis causes

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea

237
Q

wha should you ensure in gastroenteritis treatment

A

remains hydrated while waiting for diarrhoea and vomiting to settle

238
Q

where is the pylorus

A

from the stomach to the first part of the small intestine

239
Q

projectile vomiting that most commonly occurs after the baby is fed

A

pyloric stenosis

240
Q

congenital pyloric stenosis most commonly occurs when

A

between 2-12 weeks

241
Q

will vomit from pyloric stenosis have bile in it

A

No so vomit will be milky

242
Q

signs in congenital pyloric stenosis

A

dehydration
peristalsis across the abdomen
may feel abdominal mass

243
Q

investigation in congenital pyloric stenosis

A

US

244
Q

what is the surgery for pyloric stenosis

A

Pyloromyotomy

245
Q

volvulus results in

A

bowel obstruction

246
Q

congenital malrotation predisposes to volvulus where

A

midgut

247
Q

meconium ileum can predispose to what kind of volvulus

A

segmental

248
Q

investigation for volvulus

A

air

249
Q

do babies have constipation or diarrhoea in volvulus

A

constipation

250
Q

what can the stool be like in volvulus

A

bloody

251
Q

what results in narrowing of the lumen resulting in a palpable mass in the abdomen and obstruction to the passage of faeces

A

intussusception

252
Q

redcurrant jelly stool

A

intussusception

253
Q

where is the mass on intussusception

A

right upper quadrant

254
Q

target sign on ultrasound

A

intussusception

255
Q

what is air reduction the management for

A

intussusception

256
Q

symptoms of intussusception

A

severe, sharp well localised abdominal pain
pale, lethargic and unwell
vomiting

257
Q

inflammation of the appendix

A

appendicitis

258
Q

what is the main differential for an acute abdomen presentation in a child

A

appendicitis

259
Q

where does appendicitis pain begin

A

central

260
Q

where does appendicitis pain move down to

A

right iliac fossa

261
Q

classic features in appendicitis

A

anorexia, nausea and vomiting and moderate temperature

262
Q

tenderness in mcburneys point

A

appendicitis

263
Q

what is rovings sign in appendicitis

A

palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the RIF

264
Q

feeling every bump on the way to hospital so pain on movements suggests

A

peritonitis

265
Q

what are these signs in: tenderness in mcburneys point, rovings sign, guarding on abdominal palpation, rebound tenderness, percussion tenderness, painful movements

A

appendicitis

266
Q

treatment in appendicitis

A

appendectomy

267
Q

what is the main investigation in appendicitis

A

mainly clinical based on presentation and raised inflammatory markers but can do US if uncertain

268
Q

urinary tract includes

A

urethra, bladder, ureters and kidneys

269
Q

UTI are more common in

A

girls

270
Q

investigation in UTI

A

urine clean catch sample with microbiology

271
Q

what should all children under 3 moths with a fever should start

A

IV ANTIBIOTICS

272
Q

oral antibiotics can be considered when child’s over

A

3 months

273
Q

what is pyelonephritis

A

infection affecting kidney function

274
Q

what brings blood to the scrotum

A

spermatic chord

275
Q

what is epididymoorchitis

A

bacterial infection of the epididymis progressing to testes

276
Q

where is the appendix testis located

A

upper pole of the testis

277
Q

what is a hydrocele

A

collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis that surrounds the testes

278
Q

soft and smooth and non tender swelling of one of the testes

A

hydrocele

279
Q

hydrocele investigation

A

transilluminate

280
Q

difference between simple and communicating hydrocele

A

connection with peritoneal cavity in communicating

281
Q

soft lump in the inguinal region

A

inguinal hernia

282
Q

part of the bowel pushes through a weakness in the abdominal muscles

A

inguinal hernia

283
Q

how to manage inguinal hernia

A

surgery

284
Q

empty scrotum means

A

undescended testes

285
Q

management in undescended testes

A

wait 3- 6 months as in most cases the testes will descend in this time

286
Q

what is prepuce

A

foreskin

287
Q

is foreskin retractable in most newborns

A

no

288
Q

retractibility of f skin increases with what

A

age

289
Q

does non retractable forekin need intervention

A

no

290
Q

what is chronic inflammatory process which affects the foreskin but can also extend on to the glans and external urethral meatus

A

Bxo balanitis xerotica obliterans

291
Q

there is keratinisation of the tip of the foreskin in what

A

Bxo balanitis xerotica obliterans

292
Q

management for Bxo balanitis xerotica obliterans

A

circumcision

293
Q

fskin cannot be returned to its original position after being retracted

A

paraphimosis

294
Q

urethral meatus is located at abnormal site

A

hypospadias

295
Q

inflammation of the brain

A

encephalitis

296
Q

most common cause of encephalitis

A

HSV

297
Q

encephalitis symptoms

A

altered consciousness, unusual behaviour

298
Q

investigations for encephalitis

A

lumbar puncture and imaging

299
Q

treatment for encephalitis

A

antiviral medications

300
Q

what medication treats HSV and VZV

A

aciclovir

301
Q

what is meninges

A

lining of the brain and spinal chord

302
Q

what is meningitis

A

inflammation of the meninges

303
Q

mengiitis organism in neonates is

A

Group B strep

304
Q

bacterial organsim in meningits for children and adults

A

Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus) and Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)

305
Q
  • Fever
  • Neck stiffness
  • Vomiting
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Altered consciousness and seizures
A

meningitis

306
Q

non blanching rash can be present in

A

meningitis

307
Q

does absence of rash exclude meningitis

A

no

308
Q

investigation for meningitis

A

lumbar puncture

309
Q

bacterial meningitis management

A
  • Under 3 months- cefotaximeplusamoxicillin
  • Above 3 months- ceftriaxone
  • If penicillin allergic: chloramphenicol
  • Steroids e.g. dexamethasone are also used in bacterial meningitis to reduce the frequency and severity of hearing loss and neurological damage
310
Q

does viral meningitis tend to be more severe than bacterial

A

no viral is milder

311
Q

treatment for viral meningitis

A

aciclovir

312
Q

what seizures occur in children with a high fever

A

febrile

313
Q

what is the most common cause of syncope in children

A

vasovagal episode

314
Q

breath holding attacks typically occur between

A

6-18 months and most outgrow by 4/5 years of age

315
Q

reflex anoxic seizures occur when

A

child is startled eg minor bump to head

316
Q

heart stops beating for no longer than 30 secs in what seizures

A

reflex anoxic

317
Q

tendency to have seizures

A

epilepsy

318
Q

what are seizures

A

transient episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain

319
Q

investigations for epilepsy

A

EEG and MRI brain

320
Q

can control fever with what

A

paracetamol and ibuprofen

321
Q

vasovagal episode is triggered by

A

emotional or orthostatic stress eg prolonged standing, sight of blood

YEAR 2 Notion (5 decks)

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