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Module 4 > Child Dental Health > Flashcards

Child Dental Health Flashcards

1
Q

What does ART stand for?

A

Atraumatic Restorative Treatment

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2
Q

When does ART consist of?

A

Interventive approach that involves selective caries removal using hand instruments and placement of glass ionomer

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3
Q

What is the purpose of using separator bands?

A

They are useful to open proximal contacts and create space - aids caries diagnosis

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4
Q

What is silver diamine fluoride used for?

A

manages and prevents dental caries, as well as relieving dentinal hypersensitivity

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5
Q

What is the reason for having silver in fluoride varnish?

A

possesses antimicrobial properties

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6
Q

What is the reason for using fluoride to arrest dental caries?

A

remineralises enamel and dentine

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7
Q

What is used alongside SDF to minimise staining?

A

potassium iodide capsules

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8
Q

What is the Hall Technique?

A

A method of “sealing in” caries within a primary molar. A stainless steal crown is placed over primary teeth with no caries removal, tooth prep or use of local anaesthetic

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9
Q

What is a Pulpotomy?

A

a less invasive procedure where the pulp that resides in the main part (or crown) of the tooth is taken out, but the roots are left in

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10
Q

What is the checklist to use when checking for dental anomalies?

A

Quantity
Size and form
Formation
Structure

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11
Q

What is hypodontia?

A

Missing teeth as a result of them failing to develop

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12
Q

What are the 2 types of hypodontia?

A

Anodontia
Oligodontia

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13
Q

What is anodontia?

A

total lack of teeth in one or both dentitions

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14
Q

What is oligodontia?

A

Rare condition where more than 6 primary or permanent teeth are absent

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15
Q

What causes hypodontia?

A

Likely to be genetic - mutations in the MSX1 gene on chromosome 4
Occasionally environmental insult
Sometimes linked to single gene disorders
Can be associated with certain syndromes - down syndrome

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16
Q

What are supernumerary teeth?

A

the existence excessive number of teeth in relation to the normal dental formula.

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17
Q

What are the types of supernumeraries?

A

Mesiodens
Supplemental teeth
Conical supernumeraries
Tuberculate supernumeraries

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18
Q

What are mesiodens?

A

in the midline:usually peg shaped teeth

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19
Q

What are supplemental teeth?

A

Look like a normal tooth

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20
Q

What are conical supernumeraries?

A

a small peg-shaped tooth, the most common supernumerary found in the permanent dentition and it usually presents between the maxillary central incisors

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21
Q

What are tuberculate supernumeraries?

A

have got more than one cusps or tubercle on their crown.

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22
Q

What is the difference between tuberculate and conical supernumerary teeth?

A

The conical supernumerary can result in rotation or displacement of the permanent incisor, but rarely delays eruption. The tuberculate type of supernumerary possesses more than one cusp or tubercle. It is frequently described as barrel-shaped and may be invaginated.

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23
Q

Is microdontia more common in males or females?

A

females

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24
Q

What teeth are most affected by microdontia?

A

Lateral incisors

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25
Q

What is macrodontia?

A

Double teeth - a dental condition where a tooth or group of teeth are abnormally larger than average

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26
Q

Double teeth - fusion - what does this mean?

A

Abnormal shaped tooth resulting from fusion of 2 separate tooth germs

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27
Q

Double teeth - germination - what does this mean?

A

2 teeth develop from 1 tooth germ

28
Q

What is dens in dente?

A

A tooth within a tooth

29
Q

What is a talon cusp?

A

an extra cusp on an anterior tooth which arises as a result of evagination

30
Q

What is amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

a disorder that affects the structure and appearance of the enamel of the teeth. This condition causes teeth to be very small, discolored, pitted or grooved, and prone to rapid wear and breakage with early tooth decay and loss.

31
Q

What are the 2 classes of amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

Hypoplastic
Hypomineralised

32
Q

What is dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

causes the teeth to be discolored (most often a blue-gray or yellow-brown color) and translucent. Teeth are also weaker than normal, making them prone to rapid wear, breakage, and loss.

33
Q

What does MIH stand for?

A

Molar Incisor Hypomineralisation

34
Q

What is Molar Incisor Hypomineralisation

A

Developmental defect in enamel structure, only effects 1s, 2s and 6s

35
Q

What is fluorosis?

A

a condition that causes changes in the appearance of tooth enamel due to overexposure of fluoride during amelogenesis

36
Q

what is turner’s tooth?

A

An enamel defect in the permanent teeth caused by periapical inflammatory disease in the overlying primary tooth

37
Q

What is a dilacerated tooth?

A

If the crown (top) or root of a tooth has an irregular bend

38
Q

What is an example of a metabolic disturbance effecting the dentition?

A

haemolytic bilirubin anaemia

39
Q

A malfunction in which tooth development stage causes anodontia?

A

initiation stage

40
Q

A malfunction in which tooth development stage causes supernumerary teeth?

A

initiation stage

41
Q

A malfunction in which tooth development stage causes microdontia/macrodontia?

A

Bud stage

42
Q

A malfunction in which tooth development stage causes dens in dente?

A

cap stage

43
Q

A malfunction in which tooth development stage causes fusion and germination

A

cap stage

44
Q

When do primary teeth start to erupt?

A

6 months

45
Q

Which teeth erupt first?

A

Lower central incisors

46
Q

When is the primary dentition complete?

A

30 months (2 1/2 yrs)

47
Q

When does the mixed dentition stage begin?

A

6 yrs old

48
Q

What teeth are the first to erupt in the permanent dentition?

A

lower centrals

49
Q

What are the 2 main phases of the mixed dentition stage?

A

between 6-8 yrs old
between 10-12 yrs old

50
Q

When is the permanent dentition established?

A

Around 12 yrs

51
Q

What are the main features of the established permanent dentition?

A

Molar relationship
No crowding
No spacing
No rotated teeth
Occlusal plane flat or mild curve of spee

52
Q

At what age should canines be palpable?

A

9 yrs old

53
Q

What is the curve of spee?

A

The curvature of the mandibular occlusal plane

54
Q

Why is there a lot of spacing in the primary dentition?

A

To allow space for the permanent dentition as it has more teeth

55
Q

What habits can effect the dentiton?

A

The use of dummies and thumb sucking

56
Q

What can happen if there is an early loss of primary teeth?

A

Fibrous tissue can form over the erupting tooth delaying its eruption, unless the permanent tooth has 1/3 to 2/3 of the root formation completed then there will be accelerated eruption

57
Q

Explain class 1 incisor relationship

A

The lower incisor edges occlude with the upper central incisor central plateaus

58
Q

Explain class 2 division 1 incisor relationship

A

The lower central incisor edges sit posteriorly relative to the upper central incisor central plateaus
The upper central incisors are proclined
often an increased overjet

59
Q

Explain class 2 division 2 incisor relationship

A

The lower central incisor edges sit posteriorly relative to the upper central incisor central plateaus
The upper central incisors are retroclined
Often a minimal overjet

60
Q

Explain class 3 incisor relationship

A

The lower central incisor edges sit anteriorly relative to the upper central incisor central plateaus
overjet is reduced or reversed

61
Q

What classification is relevant to molar relationships?

A

Angle’s classification

62
Q

Explain class I molar relationship

A

mesio-buccal cusp sits in the buccal groove

63
Q

Explain class II molar relationship

A

disto-buccal cusp is sitting in the buccal groove

64
Q

Explain class III molar relationship

A

mesio-buccal cusp has jumped a whole cusp backwards

65
Q

What is a class II mandible?

A

where the lower first molar is posterior (or more towards the back of the mouth) than the upper first molar

66
Q

What is a class III mandible?

A

where the lower first molar is anterior (or more towards the front of the mouth) than the upper first molar.

Module 4 (9 decks)

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