Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dentistry Module 4 > Child Dental Health > Flashcards

Child Dental Health Flashcards

1
Q

What is silver diamine flouride (SDF) and what is it used for in dentistry?

A

It is a topical medicament composed of silver, ammonium and fluoride ions that can be used to manage and prevent dental caries, as well as relieving dentinal hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do the individual components of SDF do to manage and prevent dental caries?

A

Silver compounds: possess antimicrobial properties

Fluoride: remineralisation of enamel and dentine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What characteristic colour does SDF stain?

A

Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why does SDF stain black upon exposure to light?

A

Due to the formation of silver oxide layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would you use to cover the patients lips when using SDF for treatment to prevent staining?

A

Petroleum jelly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During a procedure involving SDF, what sensation might the patient feel?

A

Tingling sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does ART stand for?

A

Atraumatic restorative treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does ART involve?

A

Minimally interventive approach involving selective caries removal using only hand instruments and the placement of GI cement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What sort of cavities does ART manage?

A

Single surface cavities in primary and permanent teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when May ART be used for permanent dentition?

A

In situations where cooperation is limited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is ART undertaken with or without the use of LA or rotary instruments?

A

Without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

After ART, how long should you advise the patient to wait before eating or drinking anything other than water?

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are orthodontic separators used for?

A

To open proximal contacts and create space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what three situations may separators be used to create space?

A
  1. Prior to fitting preformed metal crown using Hall technique
  2. To aid caries diagnosis by allowing visualisation and access to proximal contacts
  3. When placing proximal sealants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If too much pressure is applied when placing a separator, what could be the consequence?

A

The band may be pushed apical to the contact point and become submerged into the gingival sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of carious lesions is the Hall technique useful for managing?

A

Multi-surface carious lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the clinical requirements for use of the Hall technique on primary molar teeth?

A
  • tooth must have no clinical or radiographic signs of pulpal pathology
  • radiograph must show a clear band of dentine between the cavity and the pulp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How would you establish a baseline indicator of occlusal vertical dimension?

A

Measure the distance between the mid point of the maxillary canine gingival margin and the mid point of the gingival margin of the corresponding mandibular canine tooth directly below.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What instrument might you use to establish a baseline indicator of occlusal vertical dimension?

A

A periodontal probe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what sizes of metal crown are most commonly selected for use?

A

Sizes 4,5 and 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two ways of protecting the airway when trying to place a selected crown over a tooth?

A
  1. Place a sheet of gauze in the oral cavity
  2. Affix the crown to your finger with a piece of adhesive tape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a main consideration that should be taken when using the adhesive tape technique to place crown?

A

It is important to ensure that the patient does not have an allergy to Elastoplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What two ways can you ensure that a crown becomes fully seated on the tooth?

A
  1. Continue to apply firm pressure with your finger
  2. Instruct patient to bite down firmly on a cotton wool roll
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What sign would indicate that proper seating of the crown on a tooth has occurred?

A

Blanching of the surrounding gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How would you record an INCREASE in occlusal vertical dimension (OVD)?

A

Retake the canine reference measurement (b). Subtract the initial measurement (a) from the final measurement (b). The remainder tells us how much the OVD has increased.

(B) - (a) = increase in OVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How long may it take after placement of a crown for its to return to the original OVD?

A

A week or two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The periodontal probe can be used to measure mesio-distal distance of a tooth. What other instrument can be used?

A

Vernier callipers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you prevent palatal ledge formation when placing a crown?

A

Ensure that gentle pressure is exerted palatally in order to allow full seating and prevent palatal ledge formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Glass ionomer performs well in multi surface cavities. True or false?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a pulpotomy?

A

Where inflamed and possibly infected coronal pulp tissue is removed from a carious primary tooth to preserve healthy radicular pulp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

when would you decide to take a pulpotomy?

A

When a tooth shows signs of irreversible pulpal inflammation

OR

where radiographically there is no “normal” appearing dentine separating the pulp tissue from a carious lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when would a pulpotomy not be suitable?

A

If the tooth is showing clinical or radiographic signs of infection or periradicular periodontitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the four advantages to using a rubber dam?

A
  1. Protect airway
  2. Increase patient comfort
  3. Reduce the chance of bacterial ingress
  4. Enhance moisture control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when placing rubber dam, what tooth should you choose to clamp?

A

The tooth distal to the one undergoing treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a split dam technique?

A

Where the interproximal dam between adjacent holes is cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When might it be useful to use a split dam technique?

A

If the tooth is to be restored with a preformed metal crown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is another word used for root canal treatment?

A

Pulpectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If bleeding from the pulp does not occur during pulpotomy and the pulp appears necrotic (grey), what can be assumed and what would the appropriate course of treatment be?

A

The pulp is assumed to be non-vital and a pulpectomy or extraction would be required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How would you achieve homeostasis of the pulp post pulpotomy?

A

Place a cotton pad soaked in ferric sulphate onto the remaining pulpal tissue and canal entrances and leave for 1-2 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What substance might you place on the exposed pulp tissue after achieving homeostasis with ferric sulphate?

A

Mineral Trioxide Aggregate (MTA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what material would you fill the pulp chamber with before placing a preformed metal crown?

A

Zinc oxide eugenol material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why is the Hall technique generally preferred over the traditional stainless steel/preformed metal crown technique?

A

The traditional technique is a less conservative approach as it requires occlusal reduction and in some cases, proximal preparation to provide space for the crown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In what situation would the traditional stainless steel crown technique be preferable to the Hall technique? And why?

A

Following a pulpotomy

Because reduction of the occlusal surface helps to reduce further trauma to the pulp as would have ben caused by occlusal loading following the hall technique.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the effect of SDF on bacteria?

A

Silver interacts with bacterial cell membranes and bacterial enzymes that can inhibit bacterial growth.

Silver ions degrade cell walls, disrupt bacterial DNA synthesis and intra cellular metabolic processes, leading to apoptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Is the pulp proportionately larger in the primary or permanent dentition?

A

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What do these symptoms in a tooth suggest?:
- not TTP
- no sensitivity to heat
- sharp pain to cold substances or sweets

A

Reversible pulpitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What do these symptoms in a tooth suggest?:
- not TTP
- sensitivity to heat
- Sensitivity to cold that lasts more than 30 secs
- intense, spontaneous pain

A

Irreversible pulpitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What would be the course of treatment required for irreversible pulpitis?

A

Pulpectomy or extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of radiographs would you use for assessing pulpal status and why?

A

Ideal: periapical
Sufficient: vertical bitewing

They demonstrate the full length of the primary root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Medically, when is pulp therapy contraindicated?

A

For immunocompromised patients, and those at risk of endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many roots and root canals does a mandibular primary molar have?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How can root canal morphology differ in mandibular primary molars?

A

One or sometimes two distal root canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How many roots and root canals does a maxillary primary molar have?

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How does ferric sulphate induce homeostasis?

A

Forms ferric ion protein complex when it interacts with blood, this arrests bleeding by sealing vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what may prevent the use of MTA in pulpotomy?

A

It is expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the 4 main steps to a pulpectomy technique?

A
  1. Dry root canals
  2. Fill canals with calcium hydroxide
  3. Restore pulp chambers with glass ionomer core
  4. Restore tooth with stainless steel crown and take post op. Radiograph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the two major causes of dental anomalies?

A

Genetics and environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is hypodontia?

A

Missing teeth as a result of failure to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is anodontia?

A

Total lack of teeth in one or both dentitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is oligodontia?

A

Rare condition where more than 6 primary or permanent teeth are absent

61
Q

If a patient has anodontia, what other important structure will be missing?

A

Alveolar bone

62
Q

What is the prevalence of hypodontia in the primary dentition?

A

<1%

63
Q

What is the prevalence of hypodontia in the permanent dentition?

A

3-6%

64
Q

What is the female to male ratio of hypodontia?

A

4:1

65
Q

What teeth are most commonly missing in a case of hypodontia? name from most commonly missing to least commonly missing.

A
  1. Mandibular 3rd molars
  2. Mandibular second premolars
  3. Maxillary lateral incisors
  4. Maxillary second premolars
66
Q

What two genetic syndromes is hypodontia associated with?

A

Down syndrome and Ectodermal dysplasia

67
Q

What is a significant feature of Ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Absence of sweat glands

68
Q

Which is rarer, hypodontia or supernumerary?

A

Supernumerary

69
Q

What is the prevalence of supernumerary in the primary dentition?

A

0.2-0.8%

70
Q

What is the prevalence of supernumerary in the permanent dentition?

A

1.5-3.5%

71
Q

What is the most common site for supernumerary teeth?

A

Anterior maxilla, normally between central incisors

72
Q

What are the four types of supernumerary?

A
  1. Mesiodens
  2. Supplemental teeth
  3. Conical supernumeraries
  4. Tuberculate supernumeraries
73
Q

What supernumerary is described?

Normally found at the midline between the two central incisors, usually peg shaped.

A

Mesiodens

74
Q

What supernumerary is described?

If not inverted, there is a good chance they will erupt. If inverted, they may migrate superiorly towards nose.

A

Conical supernumerary

75
Q

What supernumerary is described?

Don’t tend to migrate but may impede eruption of adjacent teeth

A

Tuberculate supernumerary

76
Q

What two conditions can supernumerary be associated with?

A
  1. Cleft lip and palate
  2. Cleidocranial dysostosis
77
Q

What is cleidocranial dysostosis? And what is its characteristic features?

A

When the jaw and brow area sticks out. The middle of the nasal bridge is wide, collar bones may be missing or abnormally developed. Primary teeth do not fall out at expected time.

78
Q

What is microdontia?

A

A condition where the teeth are smaller than normal, and often peg shaped.

79
Q

What teeth are most commonly affected by microdontia?

A

Lateral incisors

80
Q

What is macrodontia?

A

A dental condition where a tooth or group of teeth are abnormally larger than average

81
Q

What is dens in dente?

A

A rare developmental tooth anomaly characterised by invagination of the enamel organ into the dental papilla that begins at the crown and often extends to root even before the calcification of the dental tissues

82
Q

What is talon cusp?

A

A rare dental anomaly in which a cusp-like mass of hard tissue protrudes from the cingulum area of maxillary or mandibular anterior teeth

83
Q

What are the two types of “double teeth” ?

A

Fusion and gemination

84
Q

What is the difference between fusion and gemination?

A

Fusion is an abnormal shaped tooth resulting from fusion of two separate tooth germs (two roots), whereas gemination is two teeth developing from one tooth germ (one root)

85
Q

Why is dens in dente very important to pick up at clinical examination?

A

Because it can result in an area of caries, leading to pulpitis and periapical infection

86
Q

What is amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

Spectrum of hereditary defects in the function of ameloblasts and mineralisation of enamel matrix

87
Q

What are the two subtypes of amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • hypoplastic type
  • hypomineralised type
88
Q

Which type of amelogenesis imperfecta is described?

Thin, but hard enamel, with normal bond strength. Inadequate deposition of enamel matrix. Teeth affected prior to eruption.

A

Hypoplastic type

89
Q

Which type of amelogenesis imperfecta is described?

Full thickness enamel, but very soft; impaired bond strength. Teeth affected post eruption.

A

Hypomineralised type

90
Q

What are the most common types of inheritance for amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

Autosomal dominant or X-linked

91
Q

What inheritance does dentinogenesis imperfecta have?

A

Autosomal dominant

92
Q

How many types of dentinogenesis imperfecta are there?

A

Three

93
Q

How is type 1 dentinogenesis imperfecta characterised?

A

Occurs as part of osteogenesis imperfecta

94
Q

Which type of dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs on its own, as a rare and severe condition affecting tooth development?

A

Type 2

95
Q

What type of dentinogenesis imperfecta is most common?

A

Type 2

96
Q

What medication would someone with osteogenesis imperfecta likely take to increase bone mineral density and reduce fractures?

A

Bisphosphonates

97
Q

Why may a spontaneous abscess form in association with dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

Because the teeth often have open, patent channels in dentine, leaving the pulp communicating with the oral cavity

98
Q

What are five non-hereditary disturbances in formation of teeth?

A
  • molar Incisor hypomineralisation (MIH)
  • dental fluorosis
  • turner’s tooth
  • dilaceration of tooth
  • metabolic abnormalities
99
Q

Which non-hereditary disturbance in formation of a tooth is incredibly common, with cases in up to 20% of the population?

A

Molar Incisor hypomineralisation

100
Q

What is MIH?

A

Developmental defect in enamel structure

101
Q

What teeth does MIH typically present in?

A

Primarily first permanent molars and central incisors

102
Q

What is Turner’s tooth?

A

Also referred to as enamel hypoplasia, it is a condition that reduces enamel thickness, increasing tooth sensitivity. May be following infection around the inter-radicular area of a primary tooth.

103
Q

what clinical feature would be an indication of metabolic disturbances in the teeth?

A

Generalised pattern or discolouration of the teeth

104
Q

When do anomalies such as supernumerary or hypodontia occur during tooth development?

A

At initiation or bud stage

105
Q

What is the most common type of supernumerary?

A

Mesiodens

106
Q

When do anomalies of size such as macrodontia and microdontia occur during tooth development?

A

Bell stage

107
Q

When do anomalies of size such as fusion and gemination occur during tooth development?

A

Cap stage

108
Q

What conditions are associated with generalised microdontia?

A
  • Down’s syndrome
  • pituitary dwarfism
  • Ectodermal dysplasia
109
Q

What condition is associated with generalised macrodontia?

A

-pituitary gigantism

110
Q

Is fusion more common in primary or permanent teeth?

A

Primary

111
Q

By counting teeth, how would you know the abnormality in size is fusion and not gemination?

A

If fusion, tooth count is one less than normal. If gemination, tooth count is normal.

112
Q

What is taurodontism?

A

A developmental disturbance of a tooth in which body is enlarged at the expense of the roots. ( vertically elongated pulp chamber and short roots)

113
Q

What is dilaceration?

A

Abnormal bend in root of a tooth

114
Q

What is the main cause of dilaceration?

A

Traumatic injury to primary tooth

115
Q

What are the two enamel hypoplastic defects that occur in association with congenital syphilis?

A
  • Hutchinson’s incisors
  • Mulberry molars
116
Q

What is the characteristic feature of Hutchinson’s incisors?

A

Hypoplastic notch

117
Q

What is the characteristic feature of mulberry molars?

A

Globular enamel

118
Q

What stage of tooth development would an abnormality such as amelogenesis imperfecta and dentinogensis imperfecta occur at?

A

Bell stage

119
Q

What are the three characteristic dental features of dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A
  1. Bulbous crowns
  2. Bell-shaped crowns
  3. Obliterated pulps
120
Q

What condition of the eye is linked with dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

Blue sclera

121
Q

what is concrescence?

A

Union of two adjacent teeth by cementum only

122
Q

What is an enamel pearl?

A

Chunk of enamel blocking attachment of sharpey fibres

123
Q

Why will a patient automatically have a periodontal pocket if they have an enamel pearl on a molar tooth?

A

The sharpey fibres cannot attach so therefore o the PDL does not adhere to the cementum of tooth root

124
Q

What are the key structural differences of primary teeth, in comparison with permanent teeth?

A
  • whiter
  • bigger pulp:crown ratio
  • more divergent roots
  • thinner enamel
125
Q

What can the concern be surrounding primary teeth with big pulp:crown ratio?

A

Easier to hit the pulp horns when giving restorative treatment

126
Q

What primary tooth specifically has very big pulp with very thin enamel on the crown?

A

D’s

127
Q

Why do primary teeth roots diverge so much?

A

So that they diverge around the successor (permanent tooth)

128
Q

How do permanent and primary differ in terms of contact points between teeth?

A

Primary- flat,wide contact points
Permanent- narrow contact points

129
Q

When do primary teeth start to erupt?

A

6 months

130
Q

Which primary teeth erupt first?

A

Mandibular central incisors (A’s)

131
Q

When is the primary dentition complete?

A

2.5 years old

132
Q

When does the mixed dentition stage begin?

A

6 years old

133
Q

What are the first permanent teeth to erupt as part of the mixed dentition?

A

Mandibular central incisors (1’s)

134
Q

What are the 2 main phases of the mixed dentition?

A
  1. Eruption between 6-8 years old
  2. Eruption between 10 and 12 years old
135
Q

What is the age range for the eruption of incisors and first permanent molars?

A

6-8 years old

136
Q

What permanent teeth erupt between the ages of 10-12 years old?

A
  • canines
  • premolars
  • second molars
137
Q

When is the permanent dentition established?

A

12 years old

138
Q

What are the main features of the established permanent dentition?

A
  • no spacing or overcrowding
  • no rotated teeth
  • horse-shoe shaped arch
  • good interdigitation
  • functionality
139
Q

At what age does the lower canines and 1st premolars erupt?

A

10 years old

140
Q

At what age does the upper canines and 2nd premolars erupt?

A

11 years

141
Q

At what age do the second permanent molars erupt?

A

12 years

142
Q

At age 9, what tooth are you looking to be able to palpate in the buccal sulcus?

A

Canines

143
Q

What is the curve of spee?

A

The curvature of the mandibular occlusal plane

144
Q

Which teeth are affected by MIH?

A

1’s, 2’s and 6’s

145
Q

Why are the 1’s, 2’s and 6’s effected by MIH and not other teeth?

A

Because 1’s,2’s and 6’s all developed at the same time in utero.

146
Q

In the early stages of tooth development, what plays an important part in shaping the dental arches?

A

The tongue

147
Q

What does spacing of the primary dentition allow for?

A

Allows the permanent dentition to align itself correctly, and contributes to establishing a class 1 molar and incisor relationship.

148
Q

What proportion of the developing permanent tooth root must be formed in order for accelerated eruption of the permanent to occur upon early removal of the predecessor primary tooth?

A

1/3 to 2/3 of the root

Dentistry Module 4 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions