chicken sperm Flashcards

1
Q

compare prokaryotes and eukaryotes (9)

A

goog docs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

explain how phospholipids properties help maintain the cell membrane structure (8)

A

phospholipid consisting of head + 2 tails

head: glycerol + phosphate
hydrophilic: attracted to water
tails: fatty acid chains
hydrophobic: not attracted to water but each other <3

leads to the formation of double layer in water → stability
heads are outer & attracted to water
tails in the middle & attracted to each other

attraction of non-polar tails to each other → in fluid state
allows vesicles to form or fuse with membrane
non-polar amino acid side chains attracted to hydrophobic tails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

explain how vesicles are used to transport materials secreted by a cell (8)

A

proteins synthesised by ribosomes + rER
proteins are bound by vesicles
vesicles bud off from rER → transport proteins to Golgi apparatus → fuse with Golgi apparatus membranes
Golgi modifies proteins as they move along in vesicles
secretory vesicles bud off in trans Golgi → move across the cytoplasm → fuse with plasma membrane
exocytosis: release proteins outside the cell

rER + vesicle + plasma membrane have phospholipid bilayer structure
cells use vesicles to secrete substances
e.g. hormones and digestive enzyme
can contain cell products other than proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe the events that occur during the cell cycle/mitosis (9)

A

interphase
G1: cell grows + organelles duplicate
S: DNA replication
G2: chromosomes begin condensing + prep for cell division

mitosis
prophase
chromosomes condense by supercoiling → sister chromatids visible
nuclear membrane breaks down

prophase + metaphase: spindle microtubules grow from poles to equator

metaphase
spindle microtubules attach to the centromeres
chromosomes line up at equator

anaphase
centromeres split
sister chromatids separate → dragged to opposite poles by the shortening of spindle microtubules

telophase
spindle microtubules disappear
nuclear membrane reforms around chromosomes → decondense

cytokinesis: cytoplasm divides → 2 daughter cells with identical nuclei
plant: cell plate form between nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

explain how the properties of water are significant to living organisms (9)

A

polar molecule
oxygen has a partial -ve charge + hydrogen has a partial +ve charge
hydrogen bonds form between adjacent water molecules
water remains liquid over wide range of temperatures
makes water a good solvent for polar/ionic substances
blood transport solutes in water
adhesive properties → transpiration stream and xylem
cohesive properties → high surface tension allowing insects to live on the surface

high specific heat capacity: moderates temperature fluctuation
high heat of vaporisation: sweating/transpiration cools organisms

transparent
allows organisms to live below the surface
plants can photosynthesise
ice is less dense than water
surface of a body of water freezes first → organisms to survive in the water below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

explain the factors that can affect enzymes (8)

A

substrate conc
substrate concentration ↑ → more frequent collisions between enzyme and substrate → enzymatic activity ↑
up to a maximal level of action → plateau → all active sites are occupied

temp
enzymes have an optimal temp
more frequent collisions between enzyme and substrate at higher temperatures → enzymatic activity ↑ as it gets closer to optimal temperature
high temps stop enzyme activity due to denaturation by changing active site shape

pH
enzymes have an optimal pH
enzymatic activity ↑ as pH gets closer to optimal pH
extreme pH stop enzyme activity due to denaturation by changing active site shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

explain the consequences of altering a DNA base in the genome of an organism (8)

A

altering a base in DNA = point mutation
only has an effect if base is in a gene
when mRNA is produced by transcription one mRNA base is different
one codon in mRNA is different
one amino acid is different in the polypeptide produced by translation of mRNA
degenerate: some base changes do not change the amino acid coded for
structure of polypeptide may be altered: usually does not function as well

gene mutation of haemoglobin by base substitution
antisense strand of DNA: CTC → CAC
sense strand of DNA: GAG → GTG
mRNA/transcription: GAG → GUG
amino acid/translation: glutamic acid → valine

in homozygotes: HbSHbS
RBC become sickle-shaped
↓ oxygen carried → oxygen stress
RBC bursts → block blood vessels → circulatory problems can cause organ failure
in heterozygous: HbAHbS → malaria resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

explain how an error in meiosis can lead to Down’s syndrome (4)

A

trisomy of chromosome 21
non-disjunction during anaphase I/II in meiosis
I
metaphase: homologous chromosomes in equator
anaphase: separate → 1 pair doesn’t separate
telophase: cells divide into 2 → cells have either one more/less chromosome
II: sister chromatids fail to separate
fertilisation with 1 gamete carrying an extra chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

explain how reduction division results in genetic variety (8)

A

occurs during meiosis
cell undergoes meiosis I
homologous chromosomes pair up in equator
each chromosome in homologous pair came from maternal/paternal parent
randomly oriented to either side of cell
homologous chromosomes separate → cytokinesis
2 cells from 1st division undergo meiosis II: chromosomes separate again

1 cell → 4 cells
diploid number 2n → haploid number n
haploid cell contains only 1 chromosome from each original homologous pair
mixture of maternal & paternal chromosomes in any haploid cell is different
bc random orientation during meiosis → basis for 1st variety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

outline the process of meiosis (6)

A

2 cell divisions: meiosis I + II
for production of gametes
chromosome number halved: diploid to haploid → 4 haploid cells
daughter cells different from parent cells

meiosis I
prophase
nuclear envelope breaks down
homologous chromosomes pair up → form chiasmata
crossing over occurs in non-sister chromatids
metaphase: homologous chromosomes line up at the equator of the spindle
attachment of microtubules to centromeres
anaphase: homologous chromosomes randomly orientated to opposite poles
telophase: chromosomes reach poles and unwind
nuclear envelopes do not reform bc meiosis II

meiosis II
prophase
chromosomes condense and become visible
new spindles form
metaphase: chromosomes line up at the equator of the spindle
attachment of microtubules to centromeres
anaphase: sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles
telophase: chromatids reach poles and unwind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ALL HEMOPHILIA QUESTIONS (8)

A

hemophilia is due to a recessive allele
sex linked + X-linked: located on just one of the sex chromosomes (X)
Y chromosomes do not have the allele
female: XX → can have dominant & recessive → can be homozygous/heterozygous
male: XY → can only have dominant or recessive allele → only 1 copy so recessive allele is not masked → hemophilia is more common

conditions
males inherit X chromosome from mother → 50% chance if mother is a carrier
carrier is heterozygous for the gene → genotype XHXh
dominant allele masks the recessive allele
females inherit one X chromosome from father and one from mother
hemophilia allele could have been inherited from either parent
can have affected sons/carrier daughters
hemophiliac males have carrier daughters if mother pass on dominant allele but cannot pass the condition on to sons
affected father + carrier mother → affected homozygous recessive daughter → fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe the inheritance of ABO blood groups (9)

A

one gene determines ABO blood groups
genes have different/alternative forms called alleles
there are three alleles (IA, IB and i) for this gene

example of multiple alleles, where 3 alleles can result in 4 phenotypes
IAIA and IAi both give blood group A
IBIB and IBi both give blood group B
IAIB gives blood group AB
ii gives blood group O

alleles that are codominant both affect the phenotype in a heterozygote
IA and IB are codominant
IA and IB are dominant over i
each individual has 2 alleles but only 1 is passed to offspring
example of a cross involving ABO blood groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

outline the use of polymerase chain reaction to copy and amplify minute quantities of DNA, including the role of Taq polymerase (2)

A

strands of DNA fragments split by heat
forms new double-stranded DNA by adding complementary nucleotides to split strands when cooling
Taq DNA polymerase can withstand high temperatures without denaturing
primers bind to targeted DNA sequences at lower temperature
heating and cooling cycle is repeated until enough DNA is obtained
example of PCR application: paternity cases, forensic investigations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

outline the process of DNA profiling, including ways in which it can be used/to determine paternity (6)

A

DNA sample obtained from hair/blood/semen
amplified by PCR → cut into fragments by restriction enzymes
gel electrophoresis separates fragments according to size → produces a pattern of bands
patterns of bands from different sources are compared
pattern of bands is unique to the individual
↑ difference in pattern of bands → ↓ closely related the organisms are

used in cases of paternity/forensic investigations
DNA sample from child, mother and possible father(s) are taken
done for legal reasons/inheritance or for personal reasons/self-esteem issues for children/fathers/parents
analysed for matches between child with mother and possible father(s)
half the child’s bands should match the father

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

outline a basic technique for gene transfer (6)

A
plasmid used for gene transfer
a small circle of DNA
e.g. E. coli
mRNA is extracted
DNA copy of mRNA is made using reverse transcriptase

restriction endonucleases cut a small fragment of DNA from an organism
same restriction enzymes used to cut DNA of plasmid
sticky ends are the same in both cases
gene + plasmid mixed tgt → fragment of DNA is inserted into the plasmid
spliced together by ligase → recombinant DNA
recombinants can be inserted into host cell and cloned
e.g. E. coli is cultured → begins to make insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

outline the features of ecosystems that make them sustainable (4)

A

recycling of nutrients between biotic and abiotic factors
e.g. carbon and nitrogen
decomposers break down organic matter and release inorganic nutrients
energy lost from ecosystems as heat → cannot be recycled → ongoing supply is needed from the sun

energy flow along food chains through trophic levels
autotrophs make food by photosynthesis
release oxygen for aerobic respiration
carbon dioxide for photosynthesis released by respiration

populations limited by food supply: regulated by neg feedback
supplies of water from rainfall: water cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

outline the energy flow between trophic levels in a food chain (6)

A

light is the initial energy source for food chains
autotrophs convert light into chem energy thru photosynthesis to make glucose
energy flows through food chain by consumption
moves up trophic levels
producers → primary consumers → secondary consumers → tertiary consumers → detritivores/saprophytes/decomposers

energy conversions are inefficient
energy lost
in the form of heat
by respiration
in undigested food
through the death of organisms
only 10-20% is passed to next trophic level
energy is not recycled in an ecosystem: only nutrients are
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

explain the cycling of carbon in an ecosystem (8)

A

carbon dioxide released by cell respiration of organisms
carbon pass along trophic levels
autotrophs fix carbon dioxide from atmosphere in photosynthesis to produce organic compounds
eaten by primary consumers → carbon compounds digested and absorbed
primary consumers eaten by secondary consumers
plants and animals die → decomposed by saprotrophic bacteria and fungi

combustion of fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
CH4 is produced by anaerobic respiration of biomass and methanogenic bacteria in cows
CH4 is oxidised to CO2 and water
peat is made from partially decomposed organic matter
volcanic eruptions add large quantities of carbon into the atmosphere
limestone are sinks of carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ALL ADAPTIVE RADIATION QUESTIONS (5)

A

happens in a group of species that evolve from a common ancestor
ancestral species occupies new environment with a variety of niches
different members of the species are exposed to different selection pressures → allele frequencies diverge
reproductive isolation enhances adaptive radiation → speciation

evolution of a similar structure in diff ways for diff functions adapted to new env
new species with common structures
homologous structures are evidence of adaptive radiation
comparative anatomy provides evidence for evolution

e.g. vertebrate pentadactyl limb = limb-bone pattern found in vertebrates
human hand adapted for manipulation of tools
seal’s forelimbs adapted for swimming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

explain how the common ancestor might have given rise to two different species in different locations/speciation (4)

A

speciation = the splitting of a species into 2 separate populations
reproductive isolation due to geographic or behavioural isolation → gene pools separated

each group subjected to a different set of env conditions
differences in selective pressures → adaptive traits specific to the particular env conditions were selected by natural selection → gene pools diverge

evolve differently until genetic compositions are so different they cannot interbreed
speciation accumulating over long periods
punctuated equilibrium over a short time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ALL EVOLUTION QUESTIONS

A

evolution = cumulative change in heritable characteristics of a population
populations produce more offspring that can survive
competition for limited resources
e.g. water, space, food
struggle for survival → survival of the fittest

there is genetic variation in the offspring
mutation → change of genes
sexual reproduction promotes variation in species
meiosis = cellular process that produces gametes
crossing-over of non-sister chromatids in meiosis prophase I: shuffling of genetic material between paternal and maternal chromosomes + recombines linked alleles to produce new combinations
independent assortment of homologous chromosomes during meiosis metaphase I: formation of haploid gametes with different alleles
fertilisation: random combination of gametes of both parents in the zygote

offspring whose traits adapt them to environment will survive
less adapted die
survivors reproduce and pass on favourable genes
genes of less adapted are eliminated
favourable variations will ↑ in the population
variation is heritable → change in gene pool
natural selection occurs
sustained selection of favourable traits → evolution → entire population exhibits new trait

22
Q

describe the digestion of food in the human digestive system (6)

A

digestion begins in the mouth
chewing food → smaller parts → ↑ surface area
starch breaks down to maltose by amylase

proteins break down to polypeptides by pepsin in the stomach
HCl provides optimum pH 2 medium for enzymatic activity
churning in stomach causes mechanical digestion by mixing the enzymes & food

bile salt secreted from gallbladder to emulsify lipid droplets
pancreas
secrete endopeptidase to break down polypeptides into amino acids
secrete pancreatic lipase to break down lipids into glycerol & 3 fatty acids
secrete pancreatic amylase to break down maltose into glucose
secrete sodium bicarbonate to neutralise acidic chyme to pH 8 for optimum pH medium for enzymatic activity

some final digestion into monomers is associated with epithelial cells of small intestine
peristalsis mix food with digestive juices
circular muscle contraction prevents backwards movement of food
longitudinal muscle contraction moves food along gut

23
Q

outline how the rate at which the heart beats is controlled (6)

A

cardiac muscle contraction is myogenic: contract without stimulation
sinoatrial node (SA node) initiates heart contractions
located in the right atrium
electrical signal to contract transmitted from wall of the right atrium → then through walls of the ventricles

nerve impulses transmit messages to pacemaker
medulla control speed of heartbeat through nerves
one nerve ↑ rate while another ↓ it
adrenal gland produce adrenaline → accelerate heartbeat
part of the fight or flight response

24
Q

describe the action of the heart in pumping blood (5)

A

atrial systole
atria collect blood from veins
SA node sends impulses to muscle to initiate contraction
both atria contract at the same time → blood is pushed through open atrioventricular valves into ventricles
semilunar valves are closed so that ventricles fill with blood

ventricular systole
ventricle muscles contract
blood is pushed out through semilunar valves → into pulmonary artery and aorta
atrioventricular valves snap close

diastole
ventricles and atria relax → ↓ pressure
semilunar valves close to prevent the backflow of blood

25
Q

explain how nerve impulses pass from one neuron to another neuron (8)

A

action potential reaches the pre-synaptic membrane
Ca channels open & Ca2+ diffuse into pre-synaptic neuron

neurotransmitter vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane & releases the neurotransmitters by exocytosis
synapse = gap between neurons
neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft & binds with the receptors on the post-synaptic membrane

ion channels open & Na+ enters → post-synaptic neuron depolarises
neurotransmitters are broken down by enzymes → stop effects on post-synaptic membrane

26
Q

explain how an impulse passes along the membrane of a neuron (8)

A

the resting membrane is polarised
interior is -70 mV & is relatively negative compared to outside
more Na+ outside + more K+ inside

nerve impulses are action potentials propagated along the axons of neurons
neurotransmitter attaches to receptor site → initiating transmission
opens Na+ channels → Na+ rush into cell → depolarisation
Na+ channels shut and K+ channels open → K+ rush out of cell → restore polarised state of membrane
sodium-potassium pumps maintain polarity and restore resting potential

process is repeated along the length of the neuron
Na+ diffuse between region with action potential and region at resting potential
myelin permits saltatory conduction → speed up transmission

27
Q

outline the role of hormones in the menstrual cycle (8)

A

follicle-stimulating hormones (FSH) released from pituitary gland
stimulates follicle growth in the ovary
oocytes mature

cells of growing follicle produce estrogen
stimulates more FSH receptors on follicle cells so respond more to FSH
positive feedback
signals endometrium to thicken
final maturation of follicles

rapid ↑ levels of estrogen stimulates secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH)
LH spike stimulate ovulation
stimulate remaining follicle to develop into corpus luteum
stimulate corpus luteum to secrete progesterone

progesterone stimulate maintenance of endometrium in prep for embryo implantation
no pregnancy → corpus luteum disintegrates
↓ in progesterone → breakdown in endometrium
progesterone inhibit FSH and LH release
neg feedback

28
Q

explain the process of DNA replication (8)

A

DNA replication is semi-conservative
1 new strand + 1 strand from parent molecule

helicase uncoils double helix → separates 2 strands by breaking H bonds between bases
DNA primase adds primer
short length of RNA
primer allows attachment of DNA polymerase III → starts to replicate DNA by adding free nucleotides in the cell in a 5’ – 3’ direction

complementary base pairing
Adenine=Thymine
Guanine≡Cytosine

leading strand: built up continuously towards the replication fork
lagging strand: built up in Okazaki fragments

DNA polymerase I removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA
DNA ligase seals gaps between Okazaki fragments by making sugar-phosphate bond
2 phosphates are lost to gain the required energy to add nucleotides

29
Q

explain the process of transcription leading to the formation of mRNA (8)

A

RNA polymerase binds to a promoter on the DNA
unwind the DNA strands
bind nucleoside triphosphates to the antisense strand of DNA in a 5’ – 3’ direction
complementary pairing
Adenine=Uracil
Guanine≡Cytosine
lose 2 phosphates to gain the required energy to add nucleoside triphosphates

until a terminator signal is reached
RNA polymerase detaches from the DNA
many RNA polymerases can follow each other
mRNA detaches from the template
DNA rewinds
introns have to be spliced in eukaryotes to form mature mRNA

30
Q

explain the process of translation (8)

A

translation involves initiation, elongation, translocation and termination
ribosome slide along mRNA in 5’ – 3’ direction to start codon AUG → code for methionine

tRNA activating enzymes link amino acids to a specific tRNA
A, P, E binding sites are on the large subunit of the ribosome
ribosome binds tRNA at the P site with the mRNA
anticodon of tRNA pairs with codon on mRNA using complementary base pairing
2nd tRNA binds at the A site
peptide bond forms between amino acids: polypeptide is transferred to the tRNA in A site
translocation occurs as the ribosome moves down the mRNA
tRNA in A site holding the growing polypeptide moves to P site
tRNA in P site moves to E site
tRNA in E site without its amino acid detaches
another tRNA moves into A site

proceeds until stop codon is reached
polypeptide is released
mRNA detach from ribosome
subunits of ribosome separate

31
Q

outline how enzymes catalyse reactions (7)

A

lower activation energy: energy needed to overcome energy barrier that prevents reaction
↑ rate of reaction
substrate joins with enzyme at active site → form enzyme-substrate complex
active site specific for a particular substrate
induced fit model: change in enzyme conformation when enzyme-substrate complex forms → substrate more reactive
enzyme binding with substrate brings reactants closer tgt to facilitate chemical reactions
remains unchanged at the end of reaction

32
Q

explain the reactions that occur in the matrix of the mitochondrion that are part of aerobic respiration (8)

A

link reaction: pyruvate combines with coenzyme A → coenzyme A accepts acetyl group to form acetyl CoA

oxidative decarboxylation: pyruvate oxidised to NADH
NADH and carbon dioxide are formed with each decarboxylation
involves oxidation and a release of energy

Krebs cycle
acetyl CoA releases acetyl group
acetyl group is joined to a 4-C molecule → 6-C molecule → 5-C molecule → 4-C molecule → original 4-C molecule
ATP formed by substrate level phosphorylation
oxygen accepts electrons
each pyruvate produces 2 carbon dioxide, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2 & 1 ATP

33
Q

explain how chemical energy is generated by electron transport and chemiosmosis (9)

A

occurs during aerobic respiration
oxidative phosphorylation = ATP production using energy from oxidising foods during electron transport chain
chemiosmosis = formation of proton gradient by the movement of H+

NAD & FAD is reduced by gaining 2 electrons
NADH delivers electrons to electron transport chain in the inner mitochondrial membrane
electrons release energy as they are passed between carriers along the chain
oxygen is the final electron acceptor
electron carriers act as proton pumps
protons pumped into cristae against conc gradient → generate proton gradient

ATP synthase in inner mitochondrial membrane
ATP synthase generates ATP due to kinetic energy from movement of H+ as it diffuses through by chemiosmosis
phosphorylates ADP: ADP + Pi → ATP

34
Q

explain the light-dependent reactions/role of water/H+ in photosynthesis/explain chemiosmosis as it occurs in photophosphorylation (8)

A

water only plays a role in non-cyclic photophosphorylation
cyclic photophosphorylation: electron returns to photosystem I
chemiosmosis = formation of proton gradient by the movement of H+
photophosphorylation = production of ATP

chlorophyll in photosystem II absorb light → photoactivation produce excited electrons
electrons pass along a series of carriers in thylakoid membrane in electron transport chain

require electrons from photolysis
photolysis = splitting of water
produce oxygen and H+
oxygen is released as a waste product

protons pumped across thylakoid membrane → H+ gradient
small thylakoid space enhances gradient
ATP synthase generates ATP due to kinetic energy from movement of H+ as it diffuses through by chemiosmosis
ATP synthase = protein complex in thylakoid membrane
ADP + Pi → ATP

electrons from photosystem II passed to I → photoactivation produce excited electrons
electrons from photosystem I passed to NADP+
NADP+ accepts H+ → NADPH produced → passed to light-independent reactions

ATP and NADPH are used by light independent reactions in the stroma
carbon fixation to RuBP produces glycerate 3-phosphate in Calvin cycle
ATP and NADPH are used to transform glycerate 3-phosphate to triose phosphate

35
Q

explain the light-independent processes of photosynthesis in plants (8)

A

occurs in stroma
ATP & NADPH provided by light-dependent reactions
Calvin cycle
carboxylation of RuBP by rubisco → forms unstable 6C compound
split into 2 glycerate 3-phosphate → reduction using NADPH → triose phosphate → converted → glucose
most triose phosphate used for regeneration of RuBP
use ATP

36
Q

explain the role of limiting factors in photosynthesis (8)

A

factor furthest from its optimum is limiting
↑ a limiting factor with other factors constant → ↑ rate
↑ a non-limiting factor with other factors constant → no effect on rate

light intensity is limiting at night
photosynthesis directly proportional to intensity up to plateau
affects the light-dependent reactions
chloroplast molecules are working at optimal pace

temp limiting at low & high temp
photosynthesis directly proportional to temp up to optimum temp
low temperatures: limit the rate of light-independent reactions
high temperatures: rubisco denatured → does not fix carbon dioxide

carbon dioxide conc is limiting in bright light & warm temp
photosynthesis directly proportional to CO2 conc up to plateau
low CO2 conc limits carbon fixation
chloroplast molecules are working at optimal pace

37
Q

describe how water is carried through a flowering plant (7)

A

transpiration = loss of water vapour from stomata
water lost from the diffusion of water vapour through stomata + evaporation from spongy mesophyll cells → replaced by water from osmosis through xylem vessels

water pulled out of xylem creates suction → transpiration pull
xylem vessels are hollow tubes
cellulose wall with rings of lignin give strength to resist pressure

due to polarity of water molecules
water molecules are cohesive + adhesion between water and xylem → creates transpiration stream
root hairs provide a large surface area for water uptake

38
Q

explain the processes by which minerals are absorbed from the soil into the roots (8)

A

plants absorb mineral ions bound to soil particles through roots
e.g. potassium, sodium, calcium

minerals dissolve in water
mass flow causes movement of minerals with movement of water through soil

minerals can be absorbed by facilitated diffusion
movement of ions down concentration gradient
minerals absorbed by active transport
against a concentration gradient
requires ATP
occurs through carrier proteins
proton pump transports H+ out of cell → creates electrochemical gradient → +ve mineral ions to diffuse into root cells
-ve mineral ions cross membrane linked to H+ moving down gradient

increase surface area for absorption of minerals
branching of roots
root hair cells
fungal hyphae

39
Q

describe the transport of organic compounds in vascular plant (5)

A

sugars and amino acids are transported inside plants by phloem tissue
glucose → sucrose

loaded into the phloem in sources and translocated to sinks, where they are unloaded
by active translocation: active transport → require ATP
through sieve tubes: plasmodesmata provide a path between sieve tubes and companion cell
sources: parts of the plant where photosynthesis is occurring
stems and leaves
storage organs where the stores are being mobilised
sinks: roots, growing fruits, developing seeds

sucrose → starch → stored in sinks
high solute concentration causes water to enter by osmosis at source
high hydrostatic pressure causes mass flow from source to sink

40
Q

explain auxin’s role in phototropism (8)

A

auxin = plant hormone produced by the shoot tip
make cells enlarge
alter gene expression to promote cell growth
cause transport of H+ from cytoplasm to cell wall
H+ pumping breaks bonds between cell wall fibres → flexible

phototropism is growth towards light
shoot tip senses direction of light
auxin moved to darker side of stem → cause cells on dark side to elongate

41
Q

explain how flowering is controlled in long-day and short-day plants (7)

A

flowering affected by light
phytochrome exists in 2 interconvertible forms: active Pfr & inactive Pr
Pr (red/660 nm absorbing) → Pfr (far-red/730 nm absorbing) in daylight
sunlight contains more red than far red light so Pfr predominates during the day
gradual reversion of Pfr to Pr in darkness

long-day plants: flowering induced by dark periods shorter than a critical length
Pfr remains in long-day plants at the end of short nights to stimulate flowering
Pfr acts as promoter of flowering

short-day plants: flowering induced by dark periods longer than a critical length
enough Pfr converted to Pr at the end of long nights to stimulate flowering
Pfr acts as inhibitor of flowering

42
Q

explain how meiosis results in an effectively infinite genetic variety of gametes (8)

A

one homologous chromosome is from the mother and one from the father
prophase I: homologous chromosomes pair up → crossing over occurs
recombination of linked genes’ alleles
many possible points of crossing over
occur at random positions where 2 chromatids crossing over aren’t identical

metaphase I: random orientation of homologous chromosomes
anaphase I: chromosomes move to opposite poles → independent assortment
meiosis II: separates alleles further
2n combinations: 4 genetically different nuclei gametes from each meiosis

43
Q

outline the relationship between the law of independent assortment and meiosis (6)

A

independent assortment of unlinked genes
unlinked genes are on different chromosomes
genes are inherited independently
presence of one allele does not influence presence of other allele

metaphase I: random orientation of homologous chromosomes
orientation of one bivalent does not affect orientations of others

evidence seen in dihybrid crosses
all allele combinations (AB, Ab, aB, ab from AaBb) in gametes
phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 in double heterozygous cross shows equal probability of all gametes

44
Q

explain how new species emerge by polyploidy, directional selection and disruptive selection (8)

A

directional selection
natural selection favours one end of the range of variation
progressive change in a population in that direction
isolated population subjected to directional selection while rest of the species aren’t
species change sufficiently over time → can’t interbreed → different species

disruptive selection
extreme types selected for → adapted to different niches
reproductive barriers become established between extreme types

polyploidy
having 3(+) sets of chromosomes
sometimes occurs due to an error in meiosis
many new species formed as tetraploids
triploids are infertile: tetraploids and diploids do not produce fertile offspring tgt

45
Q

using skin colour as an example, describe polygenic inheritance (5)

A

1+ gene control same characteristic: combination of alleles determines the phenotype
no. of genes ↑ → possible no. of phenotypes ↑
allows for continuous variation of skin colour
phenotypes do not follow simple Mendelian ratios of dominance and recessiveness
incomplete dominance

skin colour due to the amount of melanin in the skin
the more recessive alleles there are the lighter the skin colour
the environment also affects gene expression of skin colour
sunlight/UV light stimulate melanin production
if need 2nd example: grain colour in wheat + allele promote pigment production or not

46
Q

explain how antibodies are produced in response to infection in humans (8)

A

antibodies are necessary for immunity to disease
produced by beta lymphocytes
many types of lymphocytes in the body, each produce 1 specific antibody
each antibody corresponds to a specific antigen

macrophage recognises and engulfs pathogens by endocytosis
presentation of antigen by macrophage on membrane

helper T-cell are complementary to antigen: binds to macrophage
activated → binds to complementary inactive B-cell → activated → increases in size and clones by mitosis
plasma cells grow → ↑ no. of rough ER/Golgi apparatus
plasma cells begin to produce antibodies to the specific antigen
antibodies secreted through membrane by exocytosis
antibody binds to antigen and destroy them

after the infection clear → most lymphocytes disappear but some persist → memory cells
can quickly form clones of itself if the pathogen is re-encountered
allows long-term immunity

47
Q

explain how skeletal muscles contract (8)

A

nerve impulse arrives at end of motor neuron → stimulate contraction
neurotransmitter released cause action potential in muscle fibre

sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+ → bind to troponin → cause tropomyosin to expose binding sites on actin
myosin heads bind to sites on actin → form cross-bridges

myosin head moves actin filament by ATP
actin moved towards M line → shorten sarcomere + light bands narrow
ATP binding → break cross bridge
conversion of ATP to ADP and Pi → myosin heads change angle
cycle repeated during muscle contraction

48
Q

explain how the structure of the nephron and its associated blood vessels enable the kidney to carry out its functions (8)

A
function of the kidney: osmoregulation
osmoregulation = control of water balance in blood
nephron is the functional unit of the kidney

most small soluble molecules, glucose and ions removed from blood in Bowman’s capsule through ultrafiltration in the glomerulus
high pressure in glomerulus due to larger afferent than efferent arteriole
basement membrane act as filter
proteins, blood cells and large molecules remain in blood

selective reabsorption of glucose by active transport in proximal convoluted tubule
all glucose and amino acid is reabsorbed, none should remain
most water reabsorbed through osmosis
urea remain in the filtrate → conc ↑
microvilli ↑ surface area

loop of Henle creates solute conc gradient in medulla → enhance water reabsorption
active transport of Na+ out of ascending limb
ascending limb is impermeable to water
reabsorbed in descending limb
distal convoluted tubule adjust conc of Na+/K+/H+/Cl–

osmoregulation occurs in collecting duct
water is reabsorbed
permeability of membrane regulated by ADH depending on blood solute conc
water conc in urine is variable to maintain homeostasis in blood
water unabsorbed → urine

49
Q

explain how collecting ducts can alter the volume of urine produced by the kidney (9)

A
function of the kidney: osmoregulation
osmoregulation = control of water balance in blood
nephron is the functional unit of the kidney

water passes into the kidney tubules by ultrafiltration → glomerular filtrate collected by Bowman’s capsule
reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of loop of Henle and collecting duct by osmosis
transport of salts into kidney’s medulla → maintains hypertonic conditions in medulla so water is reabsorbed

ADH regulates water level and solute concentration
monitored by hypothalamus
pituitary secretes ADH when water in blood too low and the solute concentration of blood is too high
↑ aquaporins in collecting duct cell membranes → ↑ permeability
collecting duct passes through medulla
medulla is hypertonic → ↑ water is reabsorbed from collecting duct
↓ urine is produced + ↑ conc urine

no ADH secreted when solute concentration is too low
higher flow rates → less time for water reabsorption
dilute and large vol of urine produced

50
Q

describe how spermatogenesis occurs in humans (6)

A

spermatogenesis = process where male gametes are produced
spermatogonia undergo mitosis to keep a supply of germinal cells present
some spermatogonia grow larger to become primary spermatocytes
primary spermatocyte → meiosis I → secondary spermatocytes → meiosis Il → spermatids
spermatid differentiate → grow tail & reduce cytoplasm → sperms
associated with Sertoli cells: provide nourishment
detach from Sertoli cells → enter lumen of seminiferous tubule
testosterone produced by Leydig cells stimulates sperm production

51
Q

outline the processes involved in oogenesis within the human ovary (8)

A

oogenesis = process where female gametes are produced
begins during fetal development
large number of oogonia formed by mitosis
oogonia undergo cell growth → primary oocytes
begin 1st meiotic division but stop in prophase I until puberty

at puberty: some follicles develop each month in response to FSH
primary oocyte completes meiosis I → 2 cells with unequal cytoplasm distribution
polar body eventually degenerates
secondary oocyte begin 2nd meiotic division but stop in prophase II
cell fertilised → meiosis II complete
ovum and 2nd polar body form