Chemo 2 (TB, Anti Helminthic, Anti Viral, Anti Retroviral, Anti Protozoal, Anti Malarial, Anti Fungal) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the 1st anti tb drugs are not hepatotoxic

A

Ethambutol and Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the 1st line anti tb drugs are bacteriostatic

A

Ethambutol - bacteriostatic
Pyranzinamide - both bactericidal and static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The most hepatotoxic anti tb drug

A

Pyrenzinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

50 year old man diagnosed with pulmonary tb was started on anti tb drugs his physician prescribed pyridoxine, to reduce neurotoxicity. Which drug was it given for..

A

Isoniazid (B6 prevents peripheral neuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which drug causes color blindness

A

Ethambutol (optic neuritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is the most injectable anti tb

A

Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the quinolone with maximum efficacy

A

Moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which 1st line tb drug undergoes acetylation in the liver

A

Isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ADR of Isoniazid

A

Hepatotoxicity, Peripheral neuropathy, Psychosis, Seizures, anemia
Rare - Shoulder hand syndrome, SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which 1st line anti tb is given in RF

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If the patient is resistant to this 1st line anti-tubercular drug, he is said to have drug resistant TB.

A

MDR TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define XDR-TB

A

MDR TB + resistance to secondary TB drugs, injectables, fluroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOA of each of the 1st line anti-tubercular drugs

A

H - (-) Mycolic acid synthesis
R - (-) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
E - (-) Arbynosyl transferase —> (-) Arbinogalactan synthesis
Z - (-) Mycolic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_______, a 1st line anti-tubercular drug, is a microsomal enzyme inducer

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which 1st line anti-tubercular drug causes red urine?

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Inclusion of __________ in initial 2 months enables regimes to be shortened by 1/3rd

A

Pyrenzinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name two 1st line anti-tubercular drugs that cause hyperuricemia

A

Ethambutol (Hyperuricemia, Optic neuritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why must Ethambutol be used with caution in children?

A

Visual Impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_____, a fluoroquinolone, is used in MAC infections

A

Moxi, Oflo, Levo, Cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which 2nd line anti-tubercular drug causes depression and psychosis as adverse effects?

A

Cycloserine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

_________, a 2nd line anti-tubercular drug, is preferred in genitourinary TB

A

Cycloserine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is Rifabutin used in the treatment of TB

A

Heart therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name 2 drugs used to treat filariasis

A

Diethylcarbamazine and Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which drug used to treat filaria, can kill both adult worms & microfilaria?

A

Diethylcarbamazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
_____ can be used as oral treatment of the ectoparasites (lives outside host), lice & scabies
Ivermectin
26
is used a single oral dose for the treatment of soil transmitted helminths
Mebendazole (500mg) Albendazole (400mg)
27
Name an oxazolidinone used only in the treatment of TB
Tedizolide, used in XDR TB
28
Name two tuberculocidal new drugs used in the treatment of drug resistant TB
Bedaquiline,
29
What is the MOA of Albendazole?
inhibits microtubule formation in parasites, leading to impaired glucose uptake and parasite immobilization
30
_______ is used to treat neurocysticercosis
Praziquantel
31
Name an antihelminth that causes flaccid paralysis of the worm, which can then be expelled from the intestine with the help of a purgative
Piperazine
32
_______ is used to treat hydatid cyst
Albendazole
33
Name an antihelminth that causes tonic paralysis of the worm, which can then be expelled from the intestine with the help of a purgative
levamisole, pyrantel pamoate
34
____ can be used to treat Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia
Diethylcarbamazine
35
_______ is used for treatment of tapeworm
Praziquantel, Albendazole, Metronidazole
36
Treatment of choice for HSV encephalitis ____
Acyclovir
37
Treatment of choice for chicken pox ____
Acyclovir
38
What is the advantage of Valacyclovir over Acyclovir?
Improved oral bioavailability due to active transport of peptide transporters in intestine, and greater half life
39
Name 2 drugs used in the treatment of Cytomegalovirus?
Ganciclovir, Cidofovir
40
______ is an antisense oligonucleotide used in the treatment of CMV
Fomiversen
41
________ is used to treat swine flu
Oseltamivir
42
_______ is a Neuraminidase inhibitor given through inhaled route
Zanamivir
43
Palivizumab is used to prevent _______ infection
Pediatric respiratory tract inf
44
Name two anti-viral drugs used in COVID infection
Ritonavir Remdesivir
45
Name 2 anti-retroviral drugs safe in pregnancy
Zidovudine, Lamivudine
46
Name 2 anti-retroviral drugs that are effective against both HIV & HBV
TDF (Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate) , TAF (Tenofovir Alafenamide)
47
Name 2 anti-retroviral drugs that are used in pre-exposure prophylaxis
TDF/Emtricitabine, TAF/Emtricitabine
48
HLAB5701 screening is done before prescribing this anti-retroviral drug
Abacavir
49
Name an anti-retroviral drugs that is available in gel formulation for pre-exposure prophylaxis
Tenofovir gel
50
_______ is a nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
TDF
51
Which NRTI requires Only 2 intracellular phosphorylations for activation?
TAF
52
Which group of anti-retrovirals are most susceptible to development of resistance?
NNRTI
53
_______, an NNRTI, causes vivid dreams
Efavirenz
54
Lipodystrophy is commonly seen with ____ & _____ groups of drugs when treating HIV
Protease inhibitors, NRTI
55
______ is used in boosted PI regimen
Ritonavir
56
______ is a CCR5 inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV
Maraviroc
57
______ is a fusion inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV
Enfuviritide
58
______ is a maturation inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV
Ibalizumab
59
Name 2 integrase inhibitors
Dolutegravir, Raltegravir
60
Name 2 drugs that are used in radical cure of malaria
Chloroquine +Primaquine/Tefloquine
61
Name 2 drugs that have gametocidal action against malaria
Primaquine, Tefloquine
62
Eradication of liver hypnozoites is required for ____ & _____ species of malaria
Vivax and Ovale
63
Treatment of choice for P vivax malaria
Chloroquine (3days) Primaquine (14days)
64
Name a drug regimen used in the treatment of P falciparum malaria
Artesunate, Fandsiar, Primaquine NE: Artesunate Lumifantrine
65
What is the MOA of Chloroquine?
inhibit the action of heme polymerase tropozoites, which convert heme to hemozoin
66
Name 4 other uses of Chloroquine
Amoebic liver abscess, Rheumatoid arthritis, DLE, infectious mononucelosis
67
Bulls eye maculopathy is seen during long term use of _____
Chloroquine long term use causes macula degeneration aka Bulls eye maculopathy
68
_______ is derived from the bark of the Cinchona tree
Quinines
69
Cinchonism is seen with the use of ______
Quinine, Quinidine
70
_______ is a long acting anti-malarial drug with neuropsychiatric adverse effects
Mefloquine
71
Fansidar is a combination of _____ & _____ used in the treatment of P falciparum malaria
pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
72
_____ is the longest acting anti-malarial drug
73
______ is a single dose alternative to 14-day ________regimen for radical cure of malaria
74
What is rationale behind Artemisinin-based combination therapy?
75