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Pharamacology > Chemo 2 (TB, Anti Helminthic, Anti Viral, Anti Retroviral, Anti Protozoal, Anti Malarial, Anti Fungal) > Flashcards

Chemo 2 (TB, Anti Helminthic, Anti Viral, Anti Retroviral, Anti Protozoal, Anti Malarial, Anti Fungal) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the 1st anti tb drugs are not hepatotoxic

A

Ethambutol and Streptomycin

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2
Q

Which of the 1st line anti tb drugs are bacteriostatic

A

Ethambutol - bacteriostatic
Pyranzinamide - both bactericidal and static

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3
Q

The most hepatotoxic anti tb drug

A

Pyrenzinamide

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4
Q

50 year old man diagnosed with pulmonary tb was started on anti tb drugs his physician prescribed pyridoxine, to reduce neurotoxicity. Which drug was it given for..

A

Isoniazid (B6 prevents peripheral neuropathy)

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5
Q

Which drug causes color blindness

A

Ethambutol (optic neuritis)

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6
Q

Which is the most injectable anti tb

A

Streptomycin

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7
Q

Name the quinolone with maximum efficacy

A

Moxifloxacin

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8
Q

Which 1st line tb drug undergoes acetylation in the liver

A

Isoniazid

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9
Q

ADR of Isoniazid

A

Hepatotoxicity, Peripheral neuropathy, Psychosis, Seizures, anemia
Rare - Shoulder hand syndrome, SLE

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10
Q

Which 1st line anti tb is given in RF

A

Rifampicin

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11
Q

If the patient is resistant to this 1st line anti-tubercular drug, he is said to have drug resistant TB.

A

MDR TB

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12
Q

Define XDR-TB

A

MDR TB + resistance to secondary TB drugs, injectables, fluroquinolones

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13
Q

What is the MOA of each of the 1st line anti-tubercular drugs

A

H - (-) Mycolic acid synthesis
R - (-) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
E - (-) Arbynosyl transferase —> (-) Arbinogalactan synthesis
Z - (-) Mycolic acid synthesis

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14
Q

_______, a 1st line anti-tubercular drug, is a microsomal enzyme inducer

A

Rifampicin

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15
Q

Which 1st line anti-tubercular drug causes red urine?

A

Rifampicin

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16
Q

Inclusion of __________ in initial 2 months enables regimes to be shortened by 1/3rd

A

Pyrenzinamide

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17
Q

Name two 1st line anti-tubercular drugs that cause hyperuricemia

A

Ethambutol (Hyperuricemia, Optic neuritis)

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18
Q

Why must Ethambutol be used with caution in children?

A

Visual Impairment

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19
Q

_____, a fluoroquinolone, is used in MAC infections

A

Moxi, Oflo, Levo, Cipro

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20
Q

Which 2nd line anti-tubercular drug causes depression and psychosis as adverse effects?

A

Cycloserine

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21
Q

_________, a 2nd line anti-tubercular drug, is preferred in genitourinary TB

A

Cycloserine

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22
Q

When is Rifabutin used in the treatment of TB

A

Heart therapy

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23
Q

Name 2 drugs used to treat filariasis

A

Diethylcarbamazine and Ivermectin

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24
Q

Which drug used to treat filaria, can kill both adult worms & microfilaria?

A

Diethylcarbamazine

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25
Q

_____ can be used as oral treatment of the ectoparasites (lives outside host), lice & scabies

A

Ivermectin

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26
Q

is used a single oral dose for the treatment of soil transmitted helminths

A

Mebendazole (500mg) Albendazole (400mg)

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27
Q

Name an oxazolidinone used only in the treatment of TB

A

Tedizolide, used in XDR TB

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28
Q

Name two tuberculocidal new drugs used in the treatment of drug resistant TB

A

Bedaquiline,

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29
Q

What is the MOA of Albendazole?

A

inhibits microtubule formation in parasites, leading to impaired glucose uptake and parasite immobilization

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30
Q

_______ is used to treat neurocysticercosis

A

Praziquantel

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31
Q

Name an antihelminth that causes flaccid paralysis of the worm, which can then be expelled from the intestine with the help of a purgative

A

Piperazine

32
Q

_______ is used to treat hydatid cyst

A

Albendazole

33
Q

Name an antihelminth that causes tonic paralysis of the worm, which can then be expelled from the intestine with the help of a purgative

A

levamisole, pyrantel pamoate

34
Q

____ can be used to treat Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia

A

Diethylcarbamazine

35
Q

_______ is used for treatment of tapeworm

A

Praziquantel, Albendazole, Metronidazole

36
Q

Treatment of choice for HSV encephalitis ____

A

Acyclovir

37
Q

Treatment of choice for chicken pox ____

A

Acyclovir

38
Q

What is the advantage of Valacyclovir over Acyclovir?

A

Improved oral bioavailability due to active transport of peptide transporters in intestine, and greater half life

39
Q

Name 2 drugs used in the treatment of Cytomegalovirus?

A

Ganciclovir, Cidofovir

40
Q

______ is an antisense oligonucleotide used in the treatment of CMV

A

Fomiversen

41
Q

________ is used to treat swine flu

A

Oseltamivir

42
Q

_______ is a Neuraminidase inhibitor given through inhaled route

A

Zanamivir

43
Q

Palivizumab is used to prevent _______ infection

A

Pediatric respiratory tract inf

44
Q

Name two anti-viral drugs used in COVID infection

A

Ritonavir
Remdesivir

45
Q

Name 2 anti-retroviral drugs safe in pregnancy

A

Zidovudine, Lamivudine

46
Q

Name 2 anti-retroviral drugs that are effective against both HIV & HBV

A

TDF (Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate) , TAF (Tenofovir Alafenamide)

47
Q

Name 2 anti-retroviral drugs that are used in pre-exposure prophylaxis

A

TDF/Emtricitabine, TAF/Emtricitabine

48
Q

HLAB5701 screening is done before prescribing this anti-retroviral drug

A

Abacavir

49
Q

Name an anti-retroviral drugs that is available in gel formulation for pre-exposure prophylaxis

A

Tenofovir gel

50
Q

_______ is a nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

A

TDF

51
Q

Which NRTI requires Only 2 intracellular phosphorylations for activation?

A

TAF

52
Q

Which group of anti-retrovirals are most susceptible to development of resistance?

A

NNRTI

53
Q

_______, an NNRTI, causes vivid dreams

A

Efavirenz

54
Q

Lipodystrophy is commonly seen with ____ & _____ groups of drugs when treating HIV

A

Protease inhibitors, NRTI

55
Q

______ is used in boosted PI regimen

A

Ritonavir

56
Q

______ is a CCR5 inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV

A

Maraviroc

57
Q

______ is a fusion inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV

A

Enfuviritide

58
Q

______ is a maturation inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV

A

Ibalizumab

59
Q

Name 2 integrase inhibitors

A

Dolutegravir, Raltegravir

60
Q

Name 2 drugs that are used in radical cure of malaria

A

Chloroquine +Primaquine/Tefloquine

61
Q

Name 2 drugs that have gametocidal action against malaria

A

Primaquine, Tefloquine

62
Q

Eradication of liver hypnozoites is required for ____ & _____ species of malaria

A

Vivax and Ovale

63
Q

Treatment of choice for P vivax malaria

A

Chloroquine (3days) Primaquine (14days)

64
Q

Name a drug regimen used in the treatment of P falciparum malaria

A

Artesunate, Fandsiar, Primaquine NE: Artesunate Lumifantrine

65
Q

What is the MOA of Chloroquine?

A

inhibit the action of heme polymerase tropozoites, which convert heme to hemozoin

66
Q

Name 4 other uses of Chloroquine

A

Amoebic liver abscess, Rheumatoid arthritis, DLE, infectious mononucelosis

67
Q

Bulls eye maculopathy is seen during long term use of _____

A

Chloroquine long term use causes macula degeneration aka Bulls eye maculopathy

68
Q

_______ is derived from the bark of the Cinchona tree

A

Quinines

69
Q

Cinchonism is seen with the use of ______

A

Quinine, Quinidine

70
Q

_______ is a long acting anti-malarial drug with neuropsychiatric adverse effects

A

Mefloquine

71
Q

Fansidar is a combination of _____ & _____ used in the treatment of P falciparum malaria

A

pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine

72
Q

_____ is the longest acting anti-malarial drug

A
73
Q

______ is a single dose alternative to 14-day ________regimen for radical cure of malaria

A
74
Q

What is rationale behind Artemisinin-based combination therapy?

A
75
Q
A

Pharamacology (8 decks)

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