Chemistry Flashcards

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1
Q

Around how many different types of elements are there in the periodic table?

A

100

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2
Q

What does it mean if a compound ends in–ide?

A

Contains 2 elements; usually metal and non-metal.

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3
Q

What does it mean if a compound ends in –ate?

A

Contains 3 or more elements, 1 of which is always oxygen.

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4
Q

What does a chemical reaction involve?

A

The formation of one or more new substances; usually with an energy change.

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5
Q

Name the following substances:
NaCl
NaSO4

A

NaCl Sodium chloride.

NaSO4 Sodium sulfate.

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6
Q

Why is it useful to have symbols for atoms of different elements?

A

When elements join together to form a compound, it tells you how many atoms there are.

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7
Q

What is the difference between an element and a compound?

A

Elements contain one type of atom and compounds contain more than one type.

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8
Q

Why is it difficult to separate a compound?

A

A compounds elements are chemically joined together.

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9
Q

What is the difference between a compound and a mixture?

A

The substances in a mixture are not chemically bonded together, but they are in a compound.

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10
Q

Describe the method used to collect the salt from a mixture of sand and salt.

A

Add water and stir to dissolve the salt. Use filtration to remove the sand. Heat the water (gently) to allow the salt to crystallize (to avoid dryness).

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11
Q

What process is used to purify seawater to obtain usable water?

A

Simple distillation.

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12
Q

Describe how the following equipment is used to separate water and ethanol.

A

The ethanol and water mixture are heated. Ethanol has a boiling point of 78°C and will vaporize first. The gas passes over the fractional column and into the condenser. Here it will condense, turning back into it’s liquid state.

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13
Q

What was the earliest model of the atom?

A

Tiny spheres that could not be divided.

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14
Q

Which early atomic model does the following diagram show?

A

The plum pudding model.

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15
Q

Name Rutherford’s experiment.

A

Alpha particle scattering.

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16
Q

State two ways in which Rutherford’s experiment changed Thomson’s model of the atom.

A

He said the positive charge was concentrated into very small volume at center of atom (nucleus) and the electrons orbit nucleus.

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17
Q

Explain why Bohr revised Rutherford’s model of the atom.

A

Suggesting electrons orbit the nucleus at different distances.

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18
Q

Explain why Bohr revised Rutherford’s model of the atom.

A

Energy emitted from electron transitions can only have certain fixed energies, so he refined the ‘orbiting electrons’ in Rutherford’s nuclear model to ‘orbiting electrons in energy levels (or shells) at fixed distances from the nucleus’.

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19
Q

Name three subatomic particles and their charges.

A

Proton – positive; neutron – no charge; electron – negative.

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20
Q

Complete the sentence ‘All atoms of one type of element have the same number of…’

A

Protons.

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21
Q

What does the atomic number tell us about an atom?

A

Number of protons.

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22
Q

What does the mass number tell us about an atom?

A

Number of protons + number of neutrons.

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23
Q

How is an isotope different to an atom?

A

Different number of neutrons.

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24
Q

What is the electron configuration for sodium?

A

2,8,1

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25
Q

Why is the overall charge of an atom zero?

A

Number of protons (positive) = number electrons (negative).

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26
Q

How many electrons does potassium have on its highest energy level?

A

1

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27
Q

Calculate how many protons, electrons and neutrons there are in:

a) A silver atom with atomic number 47 and mass number 108

A

a) A silver atom with atomic number 47 and mass number 108
Protons = 47
Electrons = 47
Neutrons = 61

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28
Q

How are elements arranged in the modern periodic table?

A

Increasing atomic number.

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29
Q

What are the columns of the periodic table called?

A

Groups.

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30
Q

What are the rows of a periodic table called?

A

Periods.

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31
Q

What does the column an element is in tell you about the atoms?

A

Number of electrons in outer shell.

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32
Q

What does the row an element is in tell you about the atoms?

A

Number of electron shells.

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33
Q

Which side of the periodic table are the non-metals found?

A

Right and top.

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34
Q

How were elements classified before the discovery of subatomic particles?

A

Arranging in order of their atomic weights.

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35
Q

What was the problem with early periodic tables?

A

Incomplete; some elements placed in inappropriate groups.

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36
Q

How did Mendeleev overcome these problems?

A

Left gaps for elements he thought had not yet been discovered; changed the order based on atomic weights for some elements if they did not fit the pattern.

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37
Q

Why is the order based on atomic masses not always correct?

A

The presence of isotopes.

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38
Q

What do we call elements that tend to form positive ions?

A

Metals.

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39
Q

What are the elements in Group 0 called?

A

Noble gases.

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40
Q

What are the elements in Group 1 called?

A

Alkali metals.

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41
Q

What are the elements in Group 7 called?

A

Halogens.

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42
Q

What happens to the boiling point of elements in Group 0 as you go down the group?

A

Increase.

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43
Q

Why are the elements in Group 0 so unreactive?

A

Full outer shell of electrons.

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44
Q

Why do all elements in Group 1 react in a similar way to each other?

A

1 electron in outer shell.

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45
Q

What happens to the reactivity of the elements as you go down Group 1?

A

Increases.

46
Q

Write a word equation for the reaction between sodium and oxygen.

A

sodium + oxygen - sodium oxide

47
Q

Why do all the elements in Group 7 react in a similar way to each other?

A

7 electrons in outer shell.

48
Q

Halogens are diatomic. What does the word ‘diatomic’ mean?

A

There molecules contain 2 atoms.

49
Q

What happens to the reactivity as you go down Group 7?

A

Decreases.

50
Q

What happens to the melting point and boiling point as you go down Group 7?

A

Increases.

51
Q

Write a word equation for the reaction between lithium and chlorine.

A

lithium + chlorine - lithium chloride

52
Q

Where are transition metals found on the periodic table?

A

Between Group 2 and Group 3.

53
Q

How do the melting points of transition metals compare to Group 1 metals?

A

Transition metals have a higher melting point than alkali metals.

54
Q

How do the densities of transition metals compare to Group 1 metals?

A

Transition metals are more dense than alkali metals.

55
Q

How does the strength of transition metals compare to Group 1 metals?

A

Transition metals are stronger than alkali metals.

56
Q

Describe the differences between the reactions of the alkali metals and the reactions of transition metals.

A

Alkali metals react vigorously with water and with oxygen from
the air. The transition elements react slowly with these reagents if at all.

57
Q

State two typical properties of transition metals.

A

Have ions with different charges; form coloured compounds.

58
Q

State one use of transition metals.

A

Transition metals can be used as catalysts.

59
Q

Explain why copper is used for plumbing.

A

It has a high melting point, it conducts heat and is strong and malleable. It also does not react with water.

60
Q

Why is it incorrect to say iron is heavier than wood?

A

It depends how much iron and wood you have. You should say iron is denser than wood.

61
Q

Water has a density of 1000 kg/m3. A piece of rubber has a density
of 1024 kg/m3. Explain what would happen if the rubber was put in
a pool of water?

A

Rubber has a higher density than water so the rubber would sink in water.

62
Q

A sheet of insulating foam measures 3 m x 1 m x 0.08 m. It has a mass of 9.6 kg. Calculate the density of the insulating foam.

A

V = 3 x 1 x 0.08 = 0.24 m3

Density = 9.6 / 0.24 = 40 kg/m3

63
Q

High density foam is made of the same material and can be used to give better insulation for the same thickness of foam. Describe how the arrangement of particles would differ in these two types of foam (you may draw diagrams to help your answer).

A

Particles in the high density foam will be closer together so there are more particles in a given volume, making it denser.

64
Q

When copper metal is heated to 1100 oC it melts.
a. Is this a chemical or physical change? Explain your answer.

b. What will happen to the mass of the sample of copper after it has
melted? Explain your answer.

A

a. Is this a chemical or physical change? Explain your answer.
Physical change. No new products have been formed.

b. What will happen to the mass of the sample of copper after it has
melted? Explain your answer.
It will stay the same. Mass is conserved when state changes.

65
Q

Explain the difference between a physical and a chemical change.

A

In a physical change no new products are formed and it can be
easily reversed.

In a chemical change a new substance is formed which can not
easily be changed back .

66
Q

Name the 6 states of matter.

A
  1. melting
  2. evaporating
  3. deposition
  4. subliming
  5. condensing
  6. freezing
67
Q

If you wanted to find the density of a brass key, you first need to measure its volume. Describe how to determine the volume of a brass key.

A

Drop the key into a known volume of water and measure the amount of water displaced by the key. This will be the volume of the key.

68
Q

Define internal energy?

A

The total kinetic and potential energy of all the particles within a system.

69
Q

Which of the following will change the internal energy of a stone?
A. Lifting it to the top of a building
B. Heating it
C. Firing it from a catapult

A

Heating it.

70
Q

Water and the chemical isooctane both boil at 100 degrees. When the same amount of each substance is placed on a heater, the isooctane boils first. Explain why this happens.

A

Isooctane has a lower specific heat capacity than water so less heat energy is needed to raise its temperature to its boiling point.

71
Q

What is latent heat?

A

The energy needed to change the state of a substance without changing the temperature.

72
Q

Explain the difference between latent heat of fusion and latent heat of
vaporisation.

A

Latent heat of fusion is the energy needed to change between solid and liquid. Latent heat of vaporisation is the energy needed to change state between liquid and gas.

73
Q

In which state are the particles randomly arranged?

A

Liquid and Gas

74
Q

In which state are the particles only able to vibrate in a fixed position?

A

Solid.

75
Q

Which state can be compressed or squashed easily?

A

Gas.

76
Q

Which state cannot flow from place to place?

A

Solid.

77
Q

Particles in which state have no bonds?

A

Gas.

78
Q

Particles in which state sit in a regular pattern and are held together tightly by bonds.

A

Solid.

79
Q

At room temperature, what state is mercury in?

A

Liquid.

80
Q

What happens to the pressure of a gas when it is heated at constant volume?

A

Increases.

81
Q

When 100 grams of water is boiled, what mass of steam is made?

A

100 grams of steam would be produced because of the conservation of mass.

82
Q

What is density?

A

Mass per Unit Volume.

83
Q

How do we calculate density?

A

Mass divided by Volume.

84
Q

What are the units of density?

A

Kg/m3.

85
Q

What do we use to measure the volume of oddly shaped object?

A

The eureka can.

86
Q

What does not normally change much when substances melt?

A

Volume per Units Mass.

87
Q

How do we calculate volume?

A

Length times width times height.

88
Q

How will we know if a substance is less dense than water?

A

It will float on water.

89
Q

What is the density of water?

A

1000 Kg/m3.

90
Q

After which scientist is the eureka can named?

A

Archimedes.

91
Q

What happens to the least dense of two immicible liquids?

A

It rises to the top.

92
Q

An object at rest on top of a shelf is likely to have?

A

Gravitational potential energy.

93
Q

Batteries are stores of?

A

Chemical energy.

94
Q

Energy is usefully transferred from personal audio player as..?

A

Sound energy.

95
Q

Which is likely to have the most thermal energy?

A red hot horse shoe or A spark from a firework?

A

A red hot horse shoe.

96
Q

Which is likely to have the highest temperature?

A red hot horse shoe or A spark from a firework?

A

A spark from a firework.

97
Q

Which type of energy transfer requires particles?

A

Conduction.

98
Q

Thermal energy is transferred by conduction from?

A

The hot end to the cold end.

99
Q

Which type of energy transfer can occur through a vacuum?

A

Radiation.

100
Q

What type of energy is stored in a wind up toy?

A

Gravitational potential energy.

101
Q

What type of diagram shows the efficiency of energy transfer?

A

Sankey Diagrams.

102
Q

What is specific latent heat?

A

The energy needed to change the state of a substance without changing its temperature.

103
Q

What is latent heat of fusion?

A

The amount of energy required to change the state of 1 kg of a solid to a liquid. The amount of energy released when 1 Kg of a substance changes from liquid to solid.

104
Q

What is specific latent heat of vaporization?

A

The amount of energy required to change the state of 1 Kg of a liquid to a gas. The amount of energy released when 1 kg of a substance changes from gas to liquid.

105
Q

What is the name of the variable that tells you how much heat energy is required to change the state of 1 kg of a substances?

A

Specific latent heat.

106
Q

What happens to the temperature of an object when it changes from a solid to a liquid?

A

It remains the same.

107
Q

What happens to the temperature of an object when it changes from a liquid to a gas?

A

It remains the same.

108
Q

Why does the temperature of ice remain at 0*C when it is melting?

A

Heat energy altering the chemical bonds altering between the particles.

109
Q

What is a burn from at 100C more harmful than a burn from water at 100C?

A

More energy being released when steam condenses to water.

110
Q

If someone gets wet in cold weather, why will they feel colder?

A

The water will evaporate from their skin and take heat from their body to do so.

111
Q

Why do tumble dryers require a lot of electrical energy to operate?

A

Water has high specific latent heat value and a lot of energy is required to evaporate the water.