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Chem/Bio Flashcards

1
Q

What were NAVMED P5041 and P5042 superseded by?

A

NTRP 4-02.22 and NTRP 4-02.23 respectively

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2
Q

How are the A-1-1-11 pub numbers grouped?

A

A-1-1-11 - Downrange procedures

A-1-1-1-11-1 - EPDS Setup

A-1-1-1-11-2 - Labs

A-1-1-1-11-3 - Description of chem/bio PPE

A-1-1-1-11-4 and 5 - Chem & Bio agent detectors

A-1-1-11-20 through - 37 - Describe specific CWAs, TICs & TIMs, non-traditional agents and drugs

A-1-1-11-40 - Biological Agents

A-1-1-11-60 through - 63 - Radiological hazards

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3
Q

What other chem pubs are there besides 1-1-11 series

A

NIOSH Pocket Guide
NTRP 4-02.22
NTRP 4-02.23
NTRP 3-11.32

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4
Q

What are the states of matter?

A

Solid
Liquid
Gas
Plasma

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5
Q

What is volatility?

A

The temperature at which a substance begins to evaporate.

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6
Q

What is solubility?

A

The degree to which a substance can be dissolved into a liquid.

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7
Q

What is melting point?

A

The temperature at which a solid will change into a liquid

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8
Q

What is boiling point?

A

The temperature at which a liquid will turn into a gas

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9
Q

What is freezing point?

A

The temperature at which a liquid will turn into a solid

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10
Q

What is a TIC?

A

Toxic Industrial Chemical - A chemical developed or manufactured for use in industrial operations.

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11
Q

What is a TIM?

A

Toxic Industrial Material - A generic term for toxic or radioactive substances that may be used for industrial, medical, or military purposes.
Could be chemical, biological, or radiological.

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12
Q

What does IDLH mean?

A

Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health - A concentration of an airborne chemical that poses a threat of permanent health or escape-impairing effects.

Developed by NIOSH (National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health)

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13
Q

Lethal dosage/exposure terms

A

LD50 - a dose of a toxic substance that is expected to kill 50% of a defined population (mg/kg) (ppm)

LCt50 - a dose of a toxic substance that is expected to kill 50% of a defined population WITHIN 1 MINUTE (mg/kg) (ppm)

ED50 - Effective dose to produce an effect in 50% of the population

ECt50 - Effective does in terms of concentration x time to produce an effect in 50% of the population.

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14
Q

Name all the blood agents

A

Arsine (SA)
Hydrogen Cyanide (AC
Cyanogen Chloride (CK)

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15
Q

Name all the blister agents

A

Sulfur Mustard (H)
Distilled Mustard (HD)
Nitrogen Mustard (HN1, HN2, HN3)
Lewisite (L)
The Arsenical Vesicants ( PD, ED< MD)
Phosgene Oxime (CX)

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16
Q

Name all the nerve agents

A

Tabun (GA)
Sarin (GB)
Soman (GD)
Cyclosarin (GF)
VX, VX2, Vx

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17
Q

Name all the choking agents

A

Phosgene (CG)
Diphosgene (DP)

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18
Q

Name the incapacitating agent we care about

A

3-Quinuclidinyl Benzilate (BZ)

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19
Q

What are the symptoms of a nerve agent

A

Salivation
Lacrimation (Tear Production)
Urination
Diarrhea
Gastrointestinal Cramps
Emeis (Vomiting)
Miosis (Constricted Pupils)
Muscle Spasms

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20
Q

What is Aging?

A

The process of “Agent-cholinesterase” bonds strengthening and no longer being affected by 2-PAM Chloride.

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21
Q

What does CANA stand for and what is in it?

A

Convulsant Antidote for Nerve Agent Autoinjector

10 mg Diazepam

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22
Q

What does ATNAA stand for and what is in it?

A

Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Autoinjector

2.1 mg Atropine and 600 mg 2-PAM Chloride

One combined auto-injector

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23
Q

What does NAAK stand for and what is in it?

A

Nerve Agent Antidote Kit

Atropine and 2-Pam Chloride

Separate auto-injectors

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24
Q

What are m295 and m291?

A

M295 - Equipment Decon
Contains a mit and Alumina based sorbant decon powder

M291 - Skin Decon
Contains 6 decon packets with 2.8g of Ambergard decon resin

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25
Q

What decon can you use on skin and why?

A

M291 is okay because it is FDA approved (M295 is not b/c it has fiberglass in it)

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26
Q

What are treatments for exposure to Nerve?

A

Up to 3 ATnAA and one CANA

One ATNAA for self-aid

CANA is not for self aid

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27
Q

What field treatment can you administer for blood agent exposure?

A

Amyl nitrite inhalation Ampules

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28
Q

What is a VTG?

A

Vertical Temperature Gradient - The change in temperature as you move away from Earth’s surface.

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29
Q

What are all VTG conditions?

A

Lapse - A decrease in air temp with an increase in height

Neutral - Very little or no change in temp with height

Inversion - An increase in temperature with an increase in height

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30
Q

What are the three methods of measuring a VTG?

A

Subtracting the air temp at 20 inches off the ground by the temp at 13 ft off the ground

Subtracting the air temp at 12 inches off the ground by the temp at 6 ft off the ground

Burning a smoke grenade and observing the cloud

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31
Q

Draw initial downwind hazard area

A

Look on google docs

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32
Q

Can initial exclusion zone be decreased and why/why not?

A

Yes, if there is no explosive hazard (50m)

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33
Q

Wind speed range for chem?

A

3.5-17.3 mph
higher speeds than 17.3 produce a neutral VTC and increase downwind hazard
Slower speeds than 3.5 make calculating the downwind hazard difficult

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34
Q

What is in swo-73?

A

MK 27 MOD 0 SHIPBOARD AUTOMATIC CHEMICAL AGENT DETECTOR AND ALARM Manual

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35
Q

Hazardous material inside 256

A

2.6 mg Mercuric Cyanide

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36
Q

Difference between m256a1 and a2

A

M256A1 has a heater assembly that can be used to test solids. (It works on the M256)

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37
Q

What does the 256 test for?

A

Blood, Blister, and Nerve

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38
Q

How does the 256 test for each agent

A

Nerve - Looks for acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
Eel Enzyme

Blood - Looks for Cyanide

Blister - Looks for Arsinical Vesicants

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39
Q

Why is the m256 used for de-masking procedures?

A

Because it is our most sensitive detection tool(Detects to IDLH)

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40
Q

List out generations of agents

A

Gen 1: WW1
Phosgene, diphosgene, chloropicrin,
Hydrogen cyanide,cyanogen chloride
HD and HN Mustard, Lewisite

Gen 2: WW2
GA, GB, GD, VX

Gen 3: Early Cold War
VX-2, GB-2

Gen 4: Late Cold War
Novichok

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41
Q

What mask do we use, what is the fitting size?

A

M53A1, 40mm NATO STANAG

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42
Q

What are your Unmasking procedures with a 256?

A

If 256 comes back negative, proceed to demasking

Unmasking after a negative 256 takes 15 minutes

If possible, choose a shaded area to prevent pupil dilation

Unmask for 5 minutes then clear and reseal mask

Observe new guy for 10 minutes

If no symptoms appear, request permission to sound the all clear

Monitor new guy for delayed onset symptoms

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43
Q

What are your Unmasking procedures without a 256?

A

Unmasking without a 256 takes 35 minutes

New guys take a deep breath, close their eyes, and break their mask seals for 15 seconds

They then reseal their masks and are observed for 10 minutes

If no symptoms appear the same new guys unmask for 5 minutes and then remask

Observe for 10 minutes

If no symptoms appear, request permission to sound the all clear

Continue to observe new guys for delayed onset symptoms

44
Q

What canisters do we have at MU2, specs, do they work against TICS?

Also, what sized particles do they filter out and why?

A

C2A1, FR-64

No, yes

They filter out particles down to .3 micron because any lower than that and a particle is just as likely to leave your lungs just as it came in if it is any smaller.

45
Q

What does PAPR stand for and what are the C420 blower specs? (They are the same thing)

A

Powered Air Purifying Respirator
“4.5 hour” rechargeable battery life
Single speed or 3 speed models available

46
Q

Can you use an m53 with an SCBA and should you?

A

Yes in positive pressure mode

47
Q

What canister did the C2A1 replace and why?

A

C2, because the C2 canister exposed its users to chromium and is now considered hazardous waste

48
Q

What is an ECCS?

A

Emergency Contamination Control Station

49
Q

Where do you find cutout procedures?

A

A-1-1-11-1

50
Q

List of minimum EPDS equip

A

check google docs

51
Q

What are your Lsp steps?

A

Gross decon

Seal the leak

Deliberate Decon

Bag once with a 6 inch tape pigtail

Place in second bag and perform vapor test

If positive repeat last two steps

If negative, tape second bag with 6 inch tape pigtail

Place in final packaging

52
Q

What 8 things go on the label for a LSP’d Chemical munition?

A

Position of leak-seal
Type of agent
Type of munition
Presence or absence of high explosives
Type of decon used
Sealing Procedure used
Date/Location/Grid
Unit’s name and POC Phone #

53
Q

What are the first things you look for/ do when entering a chem/bio lab?

A

Clear for shooters and secondaries

Stop heating

Leave Cooling

Leave mixing

Stop titration

54
Q

What does JCAD stand for/nomenclature? (Old and New)

A

Joint Chemical Agent Detector
New one is the LCD (Lightweight Chemical Detector)

55
Q

What does acpg/jslist stand for?

A

Advanced Chemical Protective Garment
Joint Service Lightweight Suit Technology

Same-Same

56
Q

What PPE options are available for liquid protection?

A

Blauer
AP-PPE (All Purpose Personal Protective Ensemble)
Lion Suit

57
Q

What does m8 detect? What colors does it turn?

A

Vx, G-Series Nerve, Blister Agents
Green, Gold, Red

58
Q

What does M9 detect, length of roll, color it changes?

A

V, G, and H agents
30ft
Red

59
Q

What are the 1st defender/Tru defender pubs?

A

A-2-1-137
A-2-1-138

60
Q

True defender technology FTX /specs

A

Fourier Transform Infrared (FTIR)

Detects missing radiation that was “absorbed” into the material it scanned

Rechargeable battery lasts 4 hours

Can identify liquids, powders, and solids

Poor at identifying substances in solution, elemental substances, vapors, gasses, biologics, and ionic compounds.

Contains a library that includes explosives, precursor chemicals, narcotics, CWAs, TICs, and TIMS

61
Q

First defender technology RMX /specs

A

Ramen Spectroscopy

Detects reflected energy imparted onto a substance by a laser

Can be used to scan through clear or translucent plastic or glass containers under 3mm thick. Thicker walls may be scanned through if cap is removed from laser.

Contains a library that includes explosives, precursor chemicals, narcotics, CWAs, TICs, and TIMS

Able to detect substances suspended in solution

Poor at detecting elemental substances, highly fluorescent materials, biologics gasses, vapors, and ionic compounds.

Imparts enough energy that a risk of starting a fire on dark substances or substances (like coffee filters) that have small, dark, imperfections inside of them that may be heated by the laser and ignite surrounding material

62
Q

First defender focal point distances cap/no cap

A

With Cap - ¼ in.
Without Cap - ¾ in.

63
Q

Laser distance from personnel while in use

A

17.25 in.

64
Q

AP4C technology

A

Flame Spectroscopy

65
Q

What does the AP4C detect

A

Detects on 4 channels

(Phosphorus, Arsenic, Sulfur, Nitroxyl Group)

66
Q

How does the crackpipe work?

A

It works by capturing the vapors of low-volatility substances that have been heated up by the S4PC.

67
Q

HHA stands for?

A

Hand-Held Assay

68
Q

Agents it detects? What kinds of agents are they?

A

Anthrax, plague, ricin, botulism, SEB, Tularemia, brucellosis, small pox

BBTTTBBV

69
Q

Technology in an HHA?

A

Immunochromatography

70
Q

What are the 4 negative effects that can occur?

A

Sensitivity Cutoff
Negative sample may still cause illness

Matrix Effect
Something in the sample is causing either a negative sample to react and give a false positive, or, something in the sample is causing a positive sample not to react.

Cross-Reactivity
Antibody binding to a close species of the substance being tested for

Hook Effect
Excess antigen, unbound by the colloidal gold, saturates the binding sites in the HHA before the bound antigen arrives, leading to a faulty result.

71
Q

What is the buffer solution made of?

A

Phosphate “Jimmy” Buffet Solution
Neutralizes Ph so antibodies can function

Triton X-100
Prevents clogging in the test strip

Sodium Azide
Prevents growth of microbial contaminants

72
Q

What is the general bio pub?

A

[A-1-1-11-40]

73
Q

What is the CWC and what are the schedules?

A

Chemical Weapons Convention

Schedule 1: Few or no uses outside chemical weapons
Schedule 2: Legitimate small-scale applications
Schedule 3: Large-Scale applications apart from CWA production

74
Q

What is the difference between bacteria and virus?

A

Virus - A submicroscopic agent that infects other organisms and is unable to reproduce outside the tissues of it’s host.

Bacteria - A single-celled organism that is able to reproduce outside it’s host

75
Q

Difference between toxin and poison?

A

A poison is any chemical substance that impacts biological function in organisms.

A Toxin is a biologically produced poison.

76
Q

What are common sources for Biological agents?

A

Anthrax - Soil and Cows
Plague - Rats and Fleas
Ricin - Castor Beans
Botulism - Rotting flesh and canned foods
SEB - Staph. Aureus Bacteria
Tularemia - Rabbits
Brucellosis - Cattle, unpasteurized milk
Small pox -

77
Q

How to recognize chem markings on ordnance?

A

US chem ordnance is generally gray with a green band
Prior to 1962 chemical weapons were marked with either Grey, Red, or Green

After 1962 chemical weapons are marked

78
Q

Should you use supertropical bleach on blister agent, why or why not?

A

No because it could catch fire.

79
Q

Methods of disposal of chem and ratios for each

A

Neutralization:

Blister Agent: 4 Gallons/Pound of agent
All other agents: 2 Gallons/Pound of agent

Explosive
5-1 Ratio of Explosives to Agent minimum

80
Q

Can you dispose of chem agents by burning? Why or why not?

A

No
As a signatory of the CWC, we are prohibited from burning CWA along with burial and dumping in water.

81
Q

What is otto fuel? What is a treatment for related headache?

A

An orange/red fuel used in Mk 46 and 48 torpedoes
A cup of hot black coffee alleviates headaches.

82
Q

What is MAF?

A

Mixed Amine Fuels
Fuel used in rockets and guided missiles

83
Q

What is IRFNA?

A

Inhibited Red Fuming Nitric Acid

Oxidizer used in rockets and guided missiles

84
Q

Why were binary chem weapons created?

A

So that the actual chemical agent is created upon detonation of the weapon

It also increases shelf life of the weapons

To get around the CWC

85
Q

CARA stands for? What do they do?

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and Explosives Accident Remediation Activity (CBRNE Accident Remediation Activity)

CARA provides technical assistance in removing and disposing of chemical/biological materials.

86
Q

OSHA levels for PPE?

A

Level D - Uniform

Level C - Full face mask/respirator, hooded chemical resistant clothing, inner and outer gloves, chemical resistant boots

Level B - Positive pressure SCBA, hooded clothing, inner and outer gloves, chemical resistant boots

Level A - Totally encapsulated SCBA, inner and outer gloves, chemical resistant boots

87
Q

What does MOPP stand for and what are the levels?

A

Mission Oriented Protective Posture

MOPP 0: Mask Carried
MOPP 1: Mask carried, suit worn
MOPP 2: Mask carried, suit worn, boots worn
MOPP 3: Mask worn, suit worn, boots worn
MOPP 4: Mask, suit, boots, and gloves worn

88
Q

Reservoir vs vector

A

Vector - An animal, insect, or other organism that carries and transmits a virus or other microorganism.

Reservoir - An animal, insect, or other organism that carries a disease but does not usually exhibit the illness associated with the disease. I.e. Birds and west nile virus

89
Q

What is AGAR?

A

A jelly-like substance used to culture bacteria

90
Q

What is a T flask?

A

A vessel used for growing cell cultures

91
Q

How to dispose of HHA?

A

Dispose of as Biohazard Waste

92
Q

What is the acronym for the HHA? Say all the tests.

A

APRBSTBS

93
Q

What is OPCW?

A

Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons

The implementing body of the CWC

94
Q

What are P tabs, and NAPP’s, how do you take them, what do they do?

A

Pyridostigmine bromide Tablets - Used as a pretreatment for working around nerve agents.

Essentially keeps Acetylcholinesterase in reserve.

Nerve Agent Pretreatment Pyridostigmine - Same as PB pills

95
Q

What are the CDC categories for bio agents of concern?

A

Cat A - Easily disseminated, results in high mortality

Cat B - Moderately easy to disseminate, results in low mortality

Cat C - emerging pathogens that could be weaponized because of ease of production and dissemination and mortality potential

96
Q

Explain compound/molecular vs mixture

A

Compound - Chemically bonded into a new substance

Mixture - Physically mixed but still separate in substance

97
Q

Name 3 common HME primaries and their precursors

A

TATP - Acetone, Hydrogen Peroxide, Strong Acid

HMTD - Hydrogen Peroxide, Hexamine, Weak Acid

Armstrong’s Mix - Red Phosphorus, Potassium Chlorate (match heads and stump remover)

98
Q

Name 3 common HME secondaries and their precursors

A

ANAL (Ammonium-Nitrate and Aluminum)
Urea Nitrate - Fertilizer
Potassium Chlorate and Vaseline (Poor man’s C4)

99
Q

What is an ETK and what categories does it test for?.

A

“Explosives Testing Kit” A wet chemistry (colormetrics) based detector

Tests for
Nitrate based explosives
Peroxide based explosives
Chlorate based explosives

100
Q

How does distillation work?

A

Distillation works by selectively boiling a substance and then condensing its vapor to increase concentration or purify a substance.

101
Q

RSDL

A

Reactive Skin Decontamination Lotion

Used for decontaminating skin by neutralizing persistent chemical agents

Can cause a false positive on M8 and M9 paper

The neutralization reaction takes at least 2 minutes to complete

102
Q

What is the suite of 7?

A

PH paper
Flouride paper
M8 paper
JCAD
AP4C
FTIR/Ramen
M256

103
Q

When is the JCAD actually sniffing in 5 second mode? 1 second mode?

A

5s - 1s on, 4s off

1s - Continuously

104
Q

What are some important things to remember while LSP-ing

A

Pad fins or sharp things on the item

Assume the first bag is dirty inside

Place item in the corner and roll up the excess

Conduct glove changes between layers

105
Q

What are the wait times for a 256? Can you skip one?

A

2 mins - First heater pad
10 mins - Vapor collect
1 min - Second heater pad
3 mins - Wait for results

10 min vapor collect can be skipped if liquid sampling is conducted

106
Q

AP4C Reset time?

A

16s

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