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Admin Flashcards

1
Q

What is SSIC? Which is EOD specific?

A

a) Standardized Subject Identification Code

b) EOD Specific: 8027

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2
Q

What is CMEO?

A

Command Managed Equal Opportunity

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3
Q

What is DAPA?

A

Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor

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4
Q

What are OPCON, TACON, and ADCON?

A

a) OPCON (Operational Control): CTG 52

b) TACON (Tactical Control): CTG 52

c) ADCON (Administrative Control): EODMU2

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5
Q

What is a DTG? How is it written?

A

a) Date Time Group

b) Format: DDHHMM(Z)MONYY

Example: 151423(C)AUG20

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6
Q

3 ORM Levels?

A

a) Deliberate
b) Time Critical
c) In-Depth

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7
Q

5 Steps of ORM? (IAMIS)

A

a) Identify
b) Assess
c) Make Risk Decisions
d) Implement
e) Supervise

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8
Q

TCORM (Time Critical ORM) Steps?

A

a) Assess
b) Balance
c) Communicate
d) Do & debrief

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9
Q

Types of ORM Controls?

A

a) Engineering
b) Physical
c) Administrative

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10
Q

What is DONCAF? How does it relate to SSBI and SF 86?

A

a) DONCAF = Department of Navy Central Adjudication Facility

b) SSBI (Single Scope Background Investigation) is done using the SF 86 (Background questionnaire) and then is submitted to the DONCAF so they can assign/grant security level.

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11
Q

What are your main security pubs?

A

a) SECNAV 5510.3 (Personnel Security)
b) SECNAV 5510.36 (Information Security)
c) SECNAV 5530.13C (AA&E Security)

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12
Q

Procedures for mailing classified information? Who can it go to?

A

a) Mailed via UPS registered mail or overnight domestic express. A receipt must be returned within 3 days to verify it got there.

b) Only sent to those with a “need to know” basis.

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13
Q

What is the procedure for traveling with classifieds?

A

a) Documents must be in double sealed envelopes.
b) Present yourself for normal screening.
c) Upon arrive at TSA screening checkpoint ask for TSA Supervisor.
d) Display Government ID and courier card.
e) The courier and all belongings will be checked.
f) If envelope needs opened, ask for a private room and call Navy Operations Center.

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14
Q

Methods of destroying classified material?

A

Burning, shredding, pulping, melting, mutilation, chemical decomposition, and pulverizing.

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15
Q

What is ACCM?

A

a) ACCM = Alternative Compensatory Control Measure
b) ACCM is how we read into programs (like nukes in EOD school). It is controlled by DoD head at that level and gatekeeper grants access or denies.

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16
Q

DoD Classification Colors?

A

a) Top Secret = Orange
b) Secret = Red
c) Confidential = Blue
d) Unclassified = Green

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17
Q

What is RD (Restricted Data)?

A

All data concerning design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons.

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18
Q

How are Restricted Data and CNWDI related?

A

They were both formed in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954.

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19
Q

What is FOUO?

A

For Official Use Only: Used by DoD for handling unclassified information. Info can be requested by the public through the Freedom of Information Act.

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20
Q

Damage criteria for leaking of classifieds?

A

a) Top Secret: Exceptionally Grave damage to National Security
b) Secret: Serious damage to National Security
c) Confidential: Damage to National Security

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21
Q

List your SF 700’s:

A

a) SF 700: Security Container Info
b) SF 701: Activity Security Checksheet
c) SF 702: Security Container Checksheet
d) SF 703: TS Cover Sheet
e) SF 704: Secret Cover Sheet
f) SF 705: Confidential Cover Sheet
g) SF 706: TS Sticker
h) SF 707: Secret Sticker
i) SF 708: Confidential Sticker
j) SF 709: Classified Sticker
k) SF 710: Unclassified Sticker

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22
Q

What is SMEAC?

A

Situation, Mission, Execute, Admin, Command

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23
Q

What is METT-TC?

A

Mission, Enemy, Terrain, Troops, Time, Civilian

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24
Q

List the parts of a Medevac 9-Line

A

1) Location
2) Frequency
3) Patients
4) Equipment
5) Type
6) Security
7) Marking
8) Nationality
9) NBC

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25
Q

Effictive range of the M240B?

A

800m

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26
Q

Effective range and max range of the M9?

A

Effective range: 50m
Max range: 1800m

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27
Q

Effective and max ranges of an M4?

A

Effective Range Point: 500m
Effective Range Area: 600m
Max Range: 3600m

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28
Q

What is SCI?

A

Sensitive Compartmented Information

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29
Q

What is the shredder size required for classified materials?

A

5 mmsq shreds

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30
Q

What is the pulp screen required size for classified materials?

A

1/4 inch

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31
Q

What are the DoE Classification Colors?

A

a) Top Secret: Red
b) Secret: Blue
c) Confidential: Yellow
d) Unclassified: White/Gray

32
Q

What are the 4 types of CASREPS?

A

a) Initial
b) Update
c) Correct
d) Cancel

33
Q

What are the Navy Mishap Categories?

A

a) Class A: $2.5mil or more; or illness or fatalities
b) Class B: $600-$2.5mil; or permanent disability
c) Class C: $60k-600k; or non fatal illness
d) Class D: $25k-$60k recordable injury/illness
e) Class E: Less than $25k

34
Q

3 categories of OPREP-3?

A

a) Pinnacle
b) Navy Blue
c) SITREP

35
Q

What is a page 13?

A

Administrative Remark

36
Q

What are the 4 modes for a PRC 152?

A

a) UHF/VHF LOS
b) UHF Dedicated
c) SINCGARS
d) Havequick

37
Q

What is RCRP?

A

Readiness and Cost Reporting Program

38
Q

What is an AIG? Give an example.

A

a) Address Indicator Group
b) AIG 239: SCUBA
AIG 7609 Mk16

39
Q

Name the M4 Firing Cycle:

A

Firing
Unlocking
Extracting
Ejecting
Cocking
Feeding
Chambering
Locking

40
Q

How long are working papers good for? How should they be marked?

A

180 days and then finished or destroyed

Marked with “working papers”, highest classification level, date created, name of creator.

41
Q

What is an information spill vs. leak?

A

a) Information Spill: Accidental
b) Information Leak: Intentional

42
Q

What is green tip ammo?

A

Steel Core

43
Q

What is violet tipped ammo?

A

Blanks

44
Q

What is orange/red tipped ammo?

A

Tracer

45
Q

What is brown tipped ammo?

A

Frangible

46
Q

What is the crimp on top of a blank called?

A

A rosette crimp

47
Q

2 kinds of classified information classifiers?

A

a) Original Authority - Initial Classification
b) Derivative - Incorporating initially classified info into a new form of information

48
Q

What is a page 4?

A

Quals and Awards

49
Q

What is a page 2?

A

Dependent and emergency data

50
Q

What is the frequency range of a PRC 152?

A

30-511.99 Mhz

51
Q

What does each place holder mean in Pubs?

X-2-3-4-1

A

X=Category
2=Country
3=Item
4=Info Set File number
1=Info Sub-Set File number

52
Q

What does AEODPS stand for?

A

Automated Explosive Ordnance Disposal Publication System

53
Q

What is NMETL?

A

Navy Mission Essential Task List

54
Q

What does EBR stand for and what type of ammo does it take? Max and Effective Range?

A

a) Enhanced Battle Rifle
b) 7.62x51
c.) 600 Point
d.) 1000 Area

55
Q

What is SINCGARS?

A

a) Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System

b) Must be using SINCGARS to talk to air support

56
Q

What is ROC/POE?

A

a) ROC = Required Operational Capabilities
b) POE = Projected Operating Environment

57
Q

What is RIP/TOA?

A

a) Relieve in Place
b) Turnover Authority

58
Q

What is TOA?

A

Table of Allowance

59
Q

Mobile Unit 2’s Fallen?

A

a) EODCS Scott Dayton (24 Nov 2016)
b) EODC Paul Darga (22 Aug 2006)
c) ET2 David Roddy (16 Sept 2006)

60
Q

Explalin the EOD Insignia

A

a)The bomb was taken from the WWII Bomb Disposal Badge

b)Three fins represent the major areas Nukes, Conventional, and Chem/Bio

c)The Wreath is in memory of those EOD personnel who gave their lives while performing EOD duties.

d)The lightning bolts symbolize the destructive power of the bomb and the courage and professionalism of EOD personnel in their endeavors to reduce hazards as well as to render explosive ordnance harmless.

e)The Shield represents the EOD mission. To protect personnel and property.

61
Q

What does MMX stand for?

A

Multi-Mission X-Ray

62
Q

What does XTK stand for?

A

X-Ray Tool Kit

63
Q

What does OFRP stand for?

A

Optimized Fleet Response Plan

64
Q

What are the phases of an OFRP?

A

Maintenance, Basic, Advanced, Integrated, Sustainment

65
Q

What is the Mk16 AIG?

A

7603

66
Q

What are the Weapon Condition Codes?

A

Condition 1: Mag in, Bullet in chamber, Bolt forward, On safe
Condition 2: N/A
Condition 3: Mag in, Empty Chamber, Bolt Forward, On safe
Condition 4: No mag, Empty Chamber, Bolt Forward, On safe

67
Q

What is BOHICA?

A

Bend Over Here It Comes Again

68
Q

What are the four fundamental gun safety rules?

A

Treat every weapon as if it were loaded

Never point a weapon at anything you don’t intend to shoot

Keep your finger straight and off the trigger until you are ready to fire

Keep your weapon on safe until you intend to fire

69
Q

What is an SKL? What is a TKL?

A

Simple Key Loader -
Tactical Key Loader -

70
Q

What is a WARNO?

A

Warning Order

71
Q

What is a FRAGO?

A

Fragmentary Order

72
Q

What is an OPORD?

A

Operation Order

73
Q

What is PTDO?

A

Prepare To Deploy Order

74
Q

What is your chain of command?

A

LPO: EOD1 Hunter Bridwell
LCPO: EODC Andrew Deibert
DIVO: Jovanna Thiele
Company LCPO: Anthony Byrne
DEP Head: LCDR Jake Nerad
EODMU2 CMC: EODCMC Ken Virgillio
EODMU2 XO: LCDR Hampton
EODMU2 CO: CMDR Nicholas Quihuis
First Flag Officer: ADM Joseph DiGuardo

75
Q

What are the N-Codes?

A

N1: Manpower and Personnel
N2: Intel
N3: Operations
N4: Logistics
N5: Planning and Strategy
N6: Comms
N7: Training and Readiness
N8: Integration of Capabilities and Resources (The platoons)
N9: Medical

76
Q

Who is the father of EOD?

A

Draper Kauffman

77
Q

What does ELO stand for?

A

Expeditionary Logistics Overhaul

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