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Anatomy Muscle Tables > Checklist > Flashcards

Checklist Flashcards

1
Q

Into what does the popliteal A fork?

A

Ant tibial A & post tibial A

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2
Q

What’s the med continuation of the pedal dorsal venous arch?

A

Great saphenous V

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3
Q

What’s the lat branch of the sciatic N?

A

Common fibular N

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4
Q

What’s the main arterial supply for the post femoral compartment?

A

Deep femoral A

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5
Q

What AV accompany the deep fibular N?

A

Ant tibial AV

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6
Q

What AV accompany the saphenous N?

A

Femoral AV

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7
Q

From where does the 3rd doral Mt A branch?

A

Arcuate A

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8
Q

The union of the ant & post tibial V form the

A

Popliteal V

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9
Q

Into where does the small saphenous V drain?

A

Popliteal V

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10
Q

Whats the medial branch of the tibial N?

A

Med plantar N

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11
Q

What artery supplies tibialis ant?

A

Ant tibial A

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12
Q

What vein drains fl digiti minimi [of the foot]

A

Lat plantar V

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13
Q

Agonist

A

Mm that perform a major/ particular action.

Ex: Biceps brachii is agonist of elbow flexion

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14
Q

Prime mover

A

The main agonists.

Ex: quads are prime movers for knee extension

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15
Q

Synergists

A

Helper agonists that can also help stabilize.

Ex: brachialis is synergist to biceps brachii

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16
Q

Antagonist

A

Mm that perform opposite action of agonist.

Ex: triceps during elbow flexion

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17
Q

Fixators

A

Stabilize a region so a particular action can be done.

Ex: rotator cuff Mm in shoulder

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18
Q

What are two synergist to the main actions of iliopsoas?

A

Rectus femoris and sartorius

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19
Q

What are three antagonists to the main action of vastus lateralis?

A

Hamstirngs: Biceps femoris long head and short head, semitendinosis, semimembranosis

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20
Q

What are two synergists to the common action of Tib anterior & Tib posterior?

A

Fl dig longus & Fl hallucis longus

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21
Q

Fibrous jts

A

Rigid or relatively immovable joints

Ex: cranial sutures, inf tibiofibular jt

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22
Q

Cartilaginous jts

A

bones joined by intervening cartilage; immovable to flexible.

Ex: hyaline cart of costae, epiphyseal plates, pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs

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23
Q

Synovial jts

A

Highly movable, most common type, typically has articulating cartilages, synovial membrane, fluid, fibrous jt capsule, and ligg.

Ex: knee, elbow, etc

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24
Q

What’s a dermatome?

A

An area of skin innervated by only one spinal nerve. All spinal Nn except C1 form dermatomes; they may overlap considerably

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25
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: L1

A

Just inf to inguinal lig

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26
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: L2

A

Ant most thigh at level of crotch base

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27
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: L3

A

Med femoral condyle

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28
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: L4

A

Medial malleolus

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29
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: L5

A

Dorsum of Mt III

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30
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: S1

A

Lateral pes

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31
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: S2

A

MEDIAL popiteal fossa

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32
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: S3

A

Ischial tuberosity

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33
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: S4-5

A

Perianal skin

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34
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: C5

A

Lat cubital fossa

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35
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: C6

A

Pollex

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36
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: C7

A

Digit III

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37
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: C8

A

Medial Manus

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38
Q

Palpation spot for dematome: T1

A

Medial cubital fossa

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39
Q

Handy dermatome marker: T10

A

Umbilicus

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40
Q

What two very large Mm are quite visable in the post view of the femoral region?

A

Biceps femoris & vastus lateralis

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41
Q

Name 4 pes evertors

A

fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, fibulari tertius and ext dig longus

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42
Q

Name 4 pes invertors

A

ant & post tibialis, fl dig longus, flex & ext hallucis longus

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43
Q

Fibularis tertius is actually part of…?

A

Extensor dig longus

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44
Q

What A runs with the deep fibular N?

A

Ant tibial A

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45
Q

What N runs with the post tibial A

A

Tibial N

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46
Q

What passes through the greater sciatic foramen?

A

Piriformis, Sup and inf gluteal NAaVv, Sciatic N

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47
Q

What passes through the lesser sciatic foramen?

A

Obturator internus

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48
Q

What bounds the greater and lesser sciatic foramen?

A

Sacrotuberous lig and sacrospinous lig

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49
Q

What are the functions of these various regular dense connective tissue structures?

sup ext retinaculum; inf ex retinaculum; fl retinaculum; plantar fascia; plantar aponeurosis of plantar fascia

A

Prevent bowstringing, bound supportive cartilage & bone to other body structures

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50
Q

What is bowstringing?

A

If tendons were not held to the bone & were able to hang unprotected

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51
Q

Explain the architecture of ant vs. post lower extremity muscle masses - why are particular regions bigger?

A

Hip and knee extensors and ankle plantar flexors are larger to combat wlkaing against gravity (ie. Phat Stick Man)

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52
Q

What is the axis of the pes?

A

Digit II

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53
Q

What is the axis of the manus?

A

Digit III

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54
Q

Define Class I lever

A

fulcrum is in the middle, think SEESAW, made for speed & stability.

What’s in the middle?
First = Fulcrum

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55
Q

Define Class II lever

A

weight is in the middle, think WHEELBARROW, made for power. Ex: chin muscle (temporomandibular jt)

What’s in the middle?
tWo = Weight

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56
Q

Define Class III lever

A

pull is in the middle, think CATAPULT, made for speed. Ex: brachialis

What’s in the middle?
most Popular = Pull

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57
Q

What’s the most common lever type in the body? Why?

A

Class III, because it is for speed

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58
Q

Lower ext center of gravity plumbline runs where?

A

Just ant to lat malleolus

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59
Q

Femoral triangle boundaries?

A

Adductor longus, Inguinal lig, Sartorius,

boundArIeS

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60
Q

Popliteal fossa boundaries

A

biceps femoris, plantaris, gastrocnemius, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, fascia lata, popliteal surface of femur

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61
Q

Where does a femoral hernia occur?

A

medial compartment of the thigh, deep to inguinal lig

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62
Q

Why is a femoral hernia more common in females than males?

A

less common in males bc of inguinal canal into sacrum is present and weak

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63
Q

What is the name of the fascia in the femoral compartment?

A

Fascia lata

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64
Q

What is the name of the fascia in the crural compartment?

A

Fascia cruris

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65
Q

What’s the clinical importance of knowing fascial compartments?

A

Keep body organized, contains injury/pathology, protects body

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66
Q

What are 3 major fxn of lower extremity deep fascia?

A

Holds you together, compartmentalizes & organizes, origin for muscles, elastic stocking for venous return

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67
Q

What’s the most commonly injured ankle lig?

A

Ant talofibular lig

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68
Q

What is the function of the ACL?

A

Prevents hyperextension & prevents the tibia from displacing anteriorly. It also helps lock the knee,

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69
Q

What is the function of the PCL?

A

Prevents tibia from sliding backwards

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70
Q

What are the 4 functions of the knee menisci?

A
  1. Pads the joint
  2. Deepens the facets for stabilization
  3. Moves to adapt tibial surfaces to changing femoral curvature
  4. Assists in locking knee
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71
Q

Fx of patellar tendon?

A

Common insertion for all knee extensors, ext of quad tendon, provides more leverage

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72
Q

What are the fxs of synovial fluid?

A

Act as lubricant
Cushions jt
Contains Nutrients

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73
Q

What structure produces synovial fluid?

A

Synovial membrane (inner membrane of synovial jts)

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74
Q

The 3 major non-muscular locks for the knee

A

ACL, LCL & menisci

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75
Q

Explain how the knee locks upon extension & slight ext rotation

A

ACL & PCL lock in full extension
LCL twists & tightens
Meniscus jam in the back of the knee

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76
Q

Explain the clinical tests ant & post drawer signs

A

Lie on the table, grab tibial plateaus & have them bend knee to 60 degrees. If it comes forward a lot, the ACL is torn. If it comes backward a lot, the PCL is torn.

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77
Q

Which collateral lig is weaker?

A

Med collateral is weaker than lat collateral

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78
Q

Why is med collateral lig supposedly more likely to be sprained than lateral besides it being weaker?

A

You are more likely to receive impact on the lateral side, which will apply force to the MCL which is attached to medial meniscus.

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79
Q

Luxation

A

Dislocation

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80
Q

Subluxation

A

Partial dislocation

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81
Q

Bursitis

A

Inflammationof bursa

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82
Q

Avulsion

A

Tearing away

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83
Q

What is the jt type of the pubic symphasis?

A

Cartilaginous

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84
Q

What’s the fx of the iliofemoral lig & ischiofemoral lig?

A

Prevents hyperextension of coxal jt

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85
Q

What’s the fx of the pubofemoral lig?

A

Prevents hyperextension and hyperabduction of coxal jt

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86
Q

Name the pelvic synovial membranes

A

coxal jt synovial sac, trochanteric bursa, ischial bursa

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87
Q

What’s the orientation of the femoral diaphysis & tibial diaphysis in relation to the sagittal plane?

A

The femoral diaphysis and tibial diaphysis are inclined creating the Q angle

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88
Q

Why is Q angle an important consideration in knee architecture?

A

It affects the varus and valgus which can put pressure on the knee joint.

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89
Q

What’s the range of typical femoral inclination?

A

115-140 deg

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90
Q

It affects the varus and valgus which can put pressure on the knee joint.

A

Our hips widen

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91
Q

Is Semitendinosus or Semimembranosus the stronger int knee rotator? Why?

A

Semitendinosus is stronger int rotator bc the insertion is on the superior ant tibia and wraps medially for leverage.

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92
Q

What’s the special structure that two Mm use to stabilize the lat knee jt?

A

Iliotibial band or IT Band (TFL and gluteus maximus)

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93
Q

Why is the knee the most inured

A
  1. Handles almost all the stress of the body
  2. It is flat and not very stable
  3. It is held together by ligaments
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94
Q

Some humans may pass out if they lock their knees for a prolonged period. Why?

A

blood flow to the brain becomes inadequate due to locking knees and lack of muscle contraction

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95
Q

What’s ant crural compartment syndrome?

A

When crural fascia tightens and causes more friction. The friction causes pain due to increase in size of muscles which increases pressure and connective tissue becomes tight and inflexible.

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96
Q

What are two causes of shin splints?

A
  1. tearing of connective tissue from tibial crest

2. overuse and over supination/ overpronation of feet

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97
Q

Why is it clinically important to know about bursae?

A

Important to know locations and functions of bursae bc they may become inflammed or infected. They are located where there is a lot of friction so when inflammation happens it could impair movement.

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98
Q

The subtalar jt is a complex gliding jt. Note that it lies perpendicular to the line of weight transmission to the ground. WHY?

A

It lies perpendicular so that there is no sheer stress. The ST joint receives 100% of your BW so if it was not perpenducular it would create torque that could cause injury or tearing.

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99
Q

What’s the major supporter of the calcaneonavicular jt?

A

Spring Ligament

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100
Q

What jt type and movement occurs at the MTP jt

A

Type: Synovial; biaxial, ellipsoid jt
Movement: Flex/Ext, ABd/Add

101
Q

What jt type and movement occurs at the IP jt

A

Type: Synovial, uniaxial, hinge jt
Movement: Flex/Ext

102
Q

What bones compose the medial longitudinal arch?

A

Calcanus, talus, navicular, cuneiforms, Mt I-III, hallucal sesamoids

103
Q

What are the main muscle supporters of the medial longitudinal arch?

A

Tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, fibularis longus

104
Q

What are the main lig supporters of the medial longitudinal arch?

A

Main: Spring ligament

Also: plantar aponeurosis, long & short plant ligg

105
Q

What bones compose the lateral longitudinal arch?

A

Calcaneus, cuboid, Mt IV & V

106
Q

What are the main muscle supporters the lateral longitudinal arch?

A

None

107
Q

What are the main lig supporters the lateral longitudinal arch?

A

Main: Short & Long Planter Ligg

Also: spring lig and plantar aponeurosis

108
Q

What bones compose the transverse arch?

A

Cuneiforms, cuboid Mt bases I-V

109
Q

What are the main muscle supporters of the transverse arch?

A

Main: Fibularis longus

Also: fib brevis, adductor hallucis obliquus

110
Q

What are the lig supporters of the transverse arch?

A

spring lig, long & short plantar lig

111
Q

What are the fxns of each arch?

A

Main: weight bearing, shock absorption, and propulsion

Lateral longitudinal arch: also transfers weight from heal to balls of the foot

Medial arch: keeps balance (with hallical seasmoid) and is a major shock absorber

112
Q

Fx of hallical sesamoids

A

Assist in weight bearing & elevates the metatarsal head off the ground

113
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of any skeletal muscle?

A

Elastic: rubbery & snaps into place
Excitable: produce action potential
Extensible: extended w/o damage
Contractile: can shorten & thicken

114
Q

5 functions of skeletal muscle system

A
  1. produce Movement
  2. Protect & support soft tissue
  3. Tense to maintain body posture & position
  4. produce heat to maintain body Temp
  5. Control entrances & exits

Mneumonic: Most People Tense To Control

115
Q

What are the three muscle tissue types?

A

Skeletal, cardiac and smooth

116
Q

What are the defining characteristics of skeletal muscle?

A 
Shape: Cylindrical
Nuceli: multiple nuclei
Voluntary/Involuntary: Voluntary
Striation: Highly striated
Special features: Neurogenic - have NMJ
117
Q

What are the defining characteristics of cardiac muscle?

A 
Shape: Y-shaped (bifurcated)
Nuceli: single nuceli (can have up to 5)
Voluntary/Involuntary: involuntary
Striation: Striated (not as much as skeletal)
Special features:
- intercalated discs
- rhythmic w/ self generating AP
118
Q

What are the defining characteristics of smooth muscle?

A 
Shape: spindle shaped
Nuceli:one central nuceli
Voluntary/Involuntary: involuntary
Striation: not striated
Special features: AP produced by nerves, hormones, or chemical changes
119
Q

Being neurogenic is a unique characteristic of type of muscle?

A

Skeletal muscle

120
Q

In the digestive tract what muscle type under go peristalsis?

A

Smooth muscle

121
Q

What muscle type has intercalated disc (cell membranes connected by special junctions); AP passes directly from cell to cell and has increased mitochodrial density?

A

Cardiac muscle

122
Q

Myofibrils

A

Composed of myofilament proteins (myosin & actin) arranged into sarcomeres

123
Q

Sarcomere

A

Make up myofibrils; one sarcomere = myosin & actin

124
Q

Myosin

A

Thick protein; has heads that attach to actin sites during muscle contraction

125
Q

Actin

A

Thin protein; has binding sites covered by tropomyosin that are uncovered for myosin crossbridge

126
Q

Sarcolemma

A

Membrane enclosing striated muscle fiber; AP propogates down sarcolemma to initiate contraction

127
Q

Sarcoplasm

A

Muscle cell cytoplasm

128
Q

T-tubules

A

Tunnel extensions of sarcolemma; propogates AP which then stimulates Ca++ release from SR

129
Q

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

A

Tubular network around myofirbrils that stores & supplies Ca++ to sarcomeres to initiate contraction (crossbridge formation)

130
Q

A Band

A

Thin and thick proteins; DOES NOT shorten during contraction

131
Q

I Band

A

No thick proteins; DOES shorten during contraction

132
Q

What’s the maximal contractual length of a skeletal myofiber?

A

70% shorter than resting length (ex: starts at 3 cm and contracts to 1 cm)

133
Q

What’s optimal muscle fiber overlap?

A

Skeletal Mm produce maximum tension over a narrow range of sarcomere lengths. If stretched too much, the muscle loses power because of little overlap of the myosin heads & actin binding sites. Too much overlap reduces tension because of disruption of normal bonding relationships (too crowded). Other Mm, bones, & ligg limit the degree of stretching & compression of any one muscle. Tension produced by a contraction varies with the resting (initial) sarcomere length, as well as neurogenic input (Ach release from the nerve).

The force of contraction in a muscle is dependent on the number of muscle fibers stimulated & frequency of stimulation. The force is also dependent on belly shape, orientation of the fibers to the applied force, and maximal cross-sectional area of the fibers.

134
Q

Which 3 structures form a tendon?

A

Epimysium, Perimysium, Endomysium

135
Q

What are the 4 functions of the plantar aponeurosis?

A
  1. Extends line of pull for calcaneal tendon to pes digits
  2. Provides leverage in plantarflexion
  3. Supports/ maintains arch of foot
  4. Protects bottom of pes
136
Q

What is the skeletal M morphological hierarchy from large to small?

A

belly wrapped in EPIMYSIUM — fascicles wrapped in PERIMYSIUM — muscle fibers wrapped in ENDOMYSIUM — myofibrils — sarcomeres — A & I bands (dArk & lIght)

137
Q

Describe the Sliding Filament Theory

A

As skeletal M contracts, I band shortens & A band stays the same as overlap occurs. As AP travels down T-tubules, Ca++ is released from SR and binds to troponin which moves the tropomyosin off the actin. Then the myosin head binds to the open site forming a crossbridge and a power stroke occurs (shortening). Maximal overlap occurs at ⅓ of its original length.

138
Q

What is muscle tension determined by?

A

Tension in a muscle belly is determined by frequency of stimulation and the number of muscle fibers stimulated.

139
Q

How strong are the epimysium/perimysium/endomysium ends (aka tendon framework), & periosteum that encapsulate the musculoskeletal system?

A

Very strong. It is a woven into lattice work so the tendon can bull the bone off of the muscle. More common for a tendon to pull off the bone than for the tendon to rupture.

140
Q

What forms hypodermis?

A

Adipose tissue!!!

  • thick & extensive fatty layer deep to skin.
  • Made of: loose connective tissue, adipose tissue, areolar tissue
141
Q

What part articulates in the glenoid fossa?

A

Head of humerus

142
Q

Where does the semilunar notch articulate?

A

articulates w/ trochlea of humerus (trochlear notch of ulna)

143
Q

The four rotator cuff Mm?

A

Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Major, Subscapularis

144
Q

What’s Shoulder bursitis?

A

Inflammation of bursae in shoulder joint

145
Q

Why don’t the humeral head & glenoid fossa form a deep ball& socket?

A

It sacrifices stability for mobility. ABduction & flexion of the arm involve not only the shoulder jt, but also the clavicle & scapula. Motion at the glenohumeral joint accounts for only 10 out of every 15 degrees of movement.

146
Q

What are the 8 functions of the skeletal system?

A
  1. Moveable framework
  2. Protects organs
  3. Red marrow
  4. Detoxification
  5. Maintains acid/base balance
  6. Tranduces sound
  7. Yellow marrow
  8. Stores salts

Mnemonic: My Poor Red Dog May Turn Yellow Soon

147
Q

How is membranous bone formed?

A
  • Direct ossification within soft connective tissue (no cartilaginous precursor)
  • Bone usually deposited in sheet like fashion
  • Two main types: Dermal & Sesamoids
    Ex: patella, sesamoids, nasal, frontal, paritels, temporalis, occiptal, mandible
148
Q

How is endochondral bone formed?

A
  • Elements preformed in hyaline cartilage is then dissolved and bone deposited into that space
    Ex: long bones, phalanges, tarsals, carpals, scapulae, hyoid, ribcage, vertebrae, coxa, & “inner” cranial bones
  • IMPORTANT: Collagen & hydroxyapatite crystals are deposited
149
Q

What are the two main components of bone tissue

A

collagen lattice + calcium phosphate salt crystals

150
Q

Osteoprogenitor cells

A

Mesenchymal cells that differentiate into osteoblasts

151
Q

Osteoblasts

A

BUILD bone; make the organic lattice & promote deposition of calcium salts around themselves

152
Q

Osteocyte

A

An osteoblast that gets trapped in its own collagen & calcium phosphate salt (bone) matrix; it can no longer move (topographic name change)

153
Q

Canaliculi

A

cell extensions )”little canals”) of the osteocytes that interconnect w/ other osteocytes & interstitial fluid next to blood & lymph capillaries

154
Q

Lacuna (“little lake”)

A

The space enclosed by bone that an osteocyte sits within.

155
Q

Resorption

A

Dissolution of bone by osteoclasts; the opposite, the laying down of bone matrix by osteoblasts & osteocytes, is Deposition.

156
Q

Lamellae

A

Layer of bone deposition, layers tend to be planar or concentric

157
Q

Haversian Canal (for AvVvL)

A

Central canal of an osteo that hosues AaVv, lymph vessels & Nn; usually run parallel (w/ its osteon) to the long axis of the bone

158
Q

Osteon

A

Concentric “bullseye” of lamellae that have a central haversian canal; cylindrical shape

159
Q

Spongy bone characteristics

A

“Little beams”; beams of bone that form spongy bone; NO haversian canals

160
Q

9 Steps of building a long bone

A
  1. Formed in cartilage
  2. Grows and ossifies gradually
  3. periosteum forms around diaphysis and contains osteoblasts
  4. Endosteum forms on inside of medullary cavity
  5. Primary ossification from center of diaphysis moving outward and hollows center
  6. Secondary ossification at epiphyses & in large tuberosities
  7. Cartilaginous epiphyseal plate forms
  8. periosteum and endosteum remodel to maintain bones shape with growth
  9. Max height is reached; epiphyseal plate is ossified into epiphyseal line.
161
Q

9 functions of integumentary system

A
  1. Holds together in flexible wrapper
  2. prevents rapid Dessication
  3. Protects body from external harm (Radiological, biological or chemical)
  4. contains Receptors (pain. pressure, sensation, etc)
  5. finishes making vitamin-D
  6. produces eccrine Sweat to cool body
  7. excretes Waste
  8. communicates Genetic and health info
  9. Emotional expressions

Mneumonic: How DO People Remember Dancing Silly With Grandpa Ed

162
Q

What are the main protein and tissue types of the dermis?

A

Collagen; irregular dense connective tissue

163
Q

What are the main protein and tissue types of the epidermis?

A

Keratin; stratified squamous epithelium

164
Q

Functions of the dermis?

A

Supplied w/ blood vessels, lymph vessels, Nn, & sensory endings

165
Q

Functions of the epidermis?

A

Has no vesssels & is nourished through diffusion from underlying tissue

166
Q

Functions of the hypodermis?

A

To tie the skin to the body but leave slack for skin to ride over underlying structures to prevent damage when stretched; adds thermoregulatory control.

167
Q

Functions of keratinocytes

A

Cells that make keratin

168
Q

Functions of keratin

A

Tough, waterproof protein in epidermis & its outgrowths (hair & nails)

169
Q

Epithelium is avascular, so how does the epidermis obtain nutrients/get rid of most wastes?

A

Epidermis is noursished through diffusion from underlying tissue, as in all epithelium.

170
Q

What are the major difference between the CNS and PNS systems?

A

CNS:

  • brain and spinal cord
  • rapid acting
  • electrochemical signals

PNS:

  • nerves and ganglia
  • more “leisurely”
  • hormones released into the blood that acts on tisues
171
Q

What comprises the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord

172
Q

What comprises the PNS

A

12 pairs cranial Nn, 31 pairs of spinal Nn, 1 pair of sympathetic trunks

173
Q

What is the break down of the 31 Spinal Nerves?

A
  • 8 pairs cervical spinal Nn –but note that there are 7 cervical vertebrae in mammals.
  • 12 pairs thoracic spinal Nn
  • 5 pairs lumbar
  • 5 pairs sacral
  • 1 pair coccygeal Nn (usually)

Total = 31 pairs of spinal Nn

174
Q

What is CSF & what are its functions?

A 
CSF = Cerebrospinal fluid
Functions:
- support CNS
- chemically protects CNS
- physically protects CNS
- shock absorber
- nourishes the CNS inside & out
- median of exchange for nutrients and waste
175
Q

What are neuroglia and their functions?

A

Nerve glue that supports and maintains cells
Functions:
- Separates and protects neurons
- Provides supportive framework for neural tissue
- Acts as a phagocyte
- Helps regulate the composition of interstitial fluid

176
Q

What’s the difference between gray & white matter?

A

Grey matter:

  • includes neural somas (interneuron somas and motore neuron somas) and is processed and transmitted by it
  • contains cell bodies
  • unmylinated

White matter:

  • myelinated
  • contains axons
  • only transmits impulses
177
Q

Why are neurons myelinated?

A

Myelination speeds up nerve impulses

178
Q

Except for receptor soma, all other neuron cell bodies are located in what two places?

A
  1. The brain

2. Gray matter of the spinal cord and dorsal root ganglia of PNS

179
Q

Soma

A

cell body with nucleus

180
Q

Dendrites

A

Root like processess; conduct impulse toward axon end

181
Q

Axon

A

Conducts impulse away

182
Q

Axon terminals

A

Transfer impulse to another cell

183
Q

Myelination

A

Expanded plasmalemma (electrical insulation)

184
Q

Schwann cell

A

Surround all PNS axons, some axons are myelinated

185
Q

Satellite cells

A

Surround neuron cell bodies in peripheral ganglia

186
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

Gaps between schwann cells - speed up nerve impulse by “jumping”

187
Q

Myelin sheath

A

Inner layers of “Extra” cell membrane

188
Q

Synapse

A

Gap between presynaptic & postsynaptic neurons

189
Q

Neurotransmitter

A

Stored vesicles until needed. Can stimulate or inhibit.

190
Q

Ach (acetylcholine)

A

Type of neurotransmitter; stimulates skeletal muscle contraction

191
Q

Are unmyelinated PNS nerves supported by schwann cells? If so, what is the anatomical difference between un- & myelinated axons

A

Yes, they are supported. Unmyelinated axons do not grow, they have extra plasmalemma layers

192
Q

What are the function classifications of afferent sensory neurons?

A

Carry nerve impulses from receptors to the CNS

193
Q

What are the function classifications of efferent sensory neurons?

A

Carry nerve impulses away from CNS to effectors

194
Q

Interneurons

A

Connects neurons to neurons & are only found in CNS. Responsible for distribution of sensory info & coordination of motor activity

195
Q

What are sensation examples for external environment special senses?

A

sense of smell (cranial N I), taste (cranial N VII, IX, X), sight (cranial N II), hearing (VIII)

196
Q

What are sensation examples for external environment nonspecial senses?

A

Touch, pressure, temperature, etc.

197
Q

What are sensation examples for internal environment proprioception?

A

Keeping track of your body in space: equilibrium, tendons, jts & Mm

198
Q

What are sensation examples for internal environment visceroception?

A

Sensing the viscera

199
Q

What are the peripheral nervous system functional divisions?

A

Somatic (voluntary):

  • Afferent Sensory: sensory info from the skin, etc
  • Efferent Motor: excites muscles

Visceral (involuntary) –vertebrates are 2 in 1 animals in several ways!
Autonomic
- Afferent Sensory Division: sensory info from organs
- Efferent Motor Divisions:
*Sympathetic Division: fight, fright, flight motor innervation.
*Parasympathetic Division: digest, rest, repose motor innervation.

200
Q

What passes through the vertebral canal?

A

The spinal cord?

201
Q

What passes through the intervertebral foramina?

A

The spinal nerve

202
Q

What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the cervical plexus?

A

C1-C5; phrenic N

203
Q

What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the brachial plexus?

A

C5-C8, T1; Median, ulnar, axillary, etc.

204
Q

What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the lumbar plexus?

A

T12, L1-L4; Obturator N, Femoral N, etc.

205
Q

What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the sacral plexus?

A

L4-S4; sup/inf gluteal, sciatic, tibial, common fibula Nn, etc.

206
Q

What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the coccygeal plexus?

A

S4-Co1

207
Q

What plexus does the femoral N branch from

A

Lumbar plexus

208
Q

What plexus does the obturator N branch from

A

Lumbar plexus

209
Q

What plexus does the sciatic N branch from

A

Sacral plexus

210
Q

The spinal cord ends at what level in adults?

A

L1/L2

211
Q

Parasympathetic fibers innervate what?

A

Vagus N X - GI & viscera

212
Q

What carries the PNS sympathetic innervation?

A

The sympathetic trunk

213
Q

Are sympathetic Nn motor, sensory or both?

A

Both

214
Q

What is the plexus nerve hierarchy?

A

Roots, trunks, divisions, cord, & branches

Mneumonic: Robert Taylor Drinks Cold Beer

215
Q

Reflex

A

Automatic, fast nervous system responses to stimuli

216
Q

Spinal Arc Reflex

A

Automatic response system that consists of a receptor, afferent neuron, synapse, efferent neuron & effector (such as a muscle of gland). Arcs may include more than one synapse.

217
Q

Stretch Reflex Arc

A

Automatic response in which a muscle stretch receptor runs to spinal cord, synapses with a motor neuron that twitches a muscle (Ex: knee jerk when the doctor hits your patellar tendon with his hammer.

218
Q

Flexor Reflex Arc

A

Automatic response that contracts flexor Mm to pull the body part away from the stimulus.

219
Q

Crossed Extensor Reflex Arc

A

At the same time as the flexor reflex, the automatic response of the extensor reflex happens on the opposite side of the body; extensors contract to ward off the stimulus; for example, you place your left manus on the stove burner, and without conscious thought, your left arm flexes to pull the searing manus away from the heat (flexor reflex), and at the same time your right arm extends to ward off & protect yourself from the maniacal stove.

220
Q

Tendon Reflex Arc

A

Inhibits muscular action to reduce tendon tension to prevent damage.

221
Q

List the pathway of a simple reflex arc (with an interneuron)

A

Afferent sensory neuron of ventral ramus → spinal N → dorsal root & its ganglion → interneuron in gray matter of spinal cord → efferent motor neuron in gray matter → ventral root → spinal N → ventral ramus of spinal N → efferent motor neuron transmits signal to effector muscle.

222
Q

What Mm bound the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Ext pollicis longus & brevis

223
Q

What cranial N supplies smell?

A

Olfactory N I

224
Q

What cranial N innervates…

skeletal motor: mastication Mm (masseter, temporalis, etc.)

sensory innervation: face, mouth & 2/3 of tongue?

A

Trigeminal N V

225
Q

What cranial N innervates..

skeletal motor: Mm of pharynx & larynx

sensory innervation: pharynx, larynx, thoracic & abdominal viscera

parasympathetic motor innervation: heart, lung & abdominal viscera

A

Vagus N X

226
Q

What cranial N supplies sight?

A

Optic N II

227
Q

What cranial N innervates..

skeletal motor: ALL fascial Mm, including platysma

parasympathetic motor innervation: glands: submandibular & sublingual salivary, lacrimal

A

Fascial N VII

228
Q

What cranial N innervates..

skeletal motor: med, inf, & sup rectus Mm; inf oblique; & levator palebra

parasympathetic motor innervation: involuntary Mm if ciliary body & iris

A

Oculomotor N III

229
Q

What cranial N innervates..

skeletal motor: stylopharyngeus M

Sensory innervtion: 1/3 of tounge, pharynx, middle ear

parasympathetic motor innervtion: parotid salivary gland

A

Glossopharyngeal N IX

230
Q

What cranial N innervates..

skeletal motor: sternocleidomastoid & trapezius Mm

A

Spinal Accessory N XI

231
Q

What cranial N innervates..

skeletal motor: tounge Mm

A

Hypoglossal N XII

232
Q

What cranial N innervates..

skeletal motor: sup oblique of eye

A

Trochlear N IV

233
Q

What cranial N innervates..

skeletal motor: lateral rectus of eye

A

Abducens N VI

234
Q

What cranial N supplies equillibrium and hearing?

A

Auditory N VIII

235
Q

Which 4 cranial Nn are mixed?

A

Trigeminal N V, Fascial N VII, Glossopharyngeal N IX, Vagus N X

(5,7,9,10)

236
Q

Which 3 cranial N supply taste?

A

Fascial N VII, Glossopharyngeal N IX, Vagus N X

7,9,10

237
Q

Which 5 cranial N supply a special sense

A

Olfactory N I, Optic N II, Fascial N VII, Glossopharyngeal N IX, Vagus N X

(1,2,7,9,10)

238
Q

What three cranial Nn innervate skelatal Mm and what Mm do they innervate?

A
  • Trigemingal Nerve V (sub 3): Masseter and Temporalis
  • Fascial N VII: The face and platysma
  • Accessory Nerve XI: Trapezius and Sternocleidomastoid
239
Q

What’s respiratory surfactant?

A

Molecules reduce water’s surface tension, preventing the alveoli from collapsing when the lungs contract.

240
Q

What is the ventilatory pathway?

A

conchae of nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → primary bronchus → secondary bronchus → tertiary bronchus → bronchioles → alveolar duct & alveolus.

241
Q

Which lung has a middle lobe?

A

RIght lung

242
Q

What controls passive inspiration?

A

Diaphram 75% of work, ext intercostals & scalenes

243
Q

What controls passive expiration?

A

virtually no cost, relax muscels used for passive inspiration, rebound ribcage, elastic lung tissue & water film of alveoli

244
Q

What is the difference between diaphragm action and function?

A

Action = increase thoracic volume

Function = aid in inhalation and exhalation & contracts to laugh, sneeze, cough, sigh, & spasms to hic up

245
Q

What are the functions of the circulatory system?

A
  1. transportation of O2, nutrients, water, hormones & metabolic wastes (including CO2)
  2. regulation of pH & electrolyte composition of interstitial fluids
  3. defense against toxins & pathogens
  4. tissue repair/ restriction of fluid loss
  5. provides the major control on the transportation of blood

Mneumonic: TO regulate toxins Try blood

246
Q

What are the functions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. Ventilate lungs to uptake O2
  2. Waste removal: ventilate lungs to excrete CO2
  3. filter, heat, & humidify air for lungs
  4. moves air through the larynx for phonation / resonates sound for speech
  5. brings airborne molecules to olfactory epithelium for olfaction & pheromones to vomeronasal organ

Mneumonic: Venting Will Filter More Molecules

247
Q

How do lungs filter?

A

Cilia filters foreign objects out of air breathed into the nasal tract

248
Q

What Mm are used during active INspiration?

A

Ext intercostals, Pectoralis major & minor, Scalenes (ant, middle & post), Sternocleidomastoid, & Levator costae. Also the Erector spinae contract to extend the back, decreasing the thoracic curvature to increase the thoracic volume

249
Q

What Mm are used during active EXspiration?

A

Internal intercostals, Transversus thoracis, 4 Ab Mm (External oblique, Internal oblique, Transversus abdominis, Rectus abdominis) Latissimus dorsi, Quadratus lumborum, Serratus posterior inferior.

Anatomy Muscle Tables (8 decks)

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