Checked Limitations

Question 1

FOM Chapter 11 Circle-to-Land Approach Maneuver * Weather minimums are a xxxxft ceiling and x miles visibility. Both xxxxxxx and xxxxxxxxxx criteria are required. Review the Jeppesen approach chart to see if it specifies minimums higher than xxx/x. If so; then those higher minimums are required to execute the circle-to-land approach maneuver. * Use a minimum descent altitude of xxxx ft above airport elevation unless restricted to a higher altitude in the circle-to-land minimums section on the approach chart.

Answer 1

FOM Chapter 11 Circle-to-Land Approach Maneuver * Weather minimums are a 1000ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility. Both ceiling and visibility criteria are required. Review the Jeppesen approach chart to see if it specifies minimums higher than 1000/3. If so; then those higher minimums are required to execute the circle-to-land approach maneuver. * Use a minimum descent altitude of 1000 ft above airport elevation unless restricted to a higher altitude in the circle-to-land minimums section on the approach chart.

Question 2

AOM Chapter 3 * A tripped circuit breaker may only be reset xxxx. Allow approximately xxx minutes for cooling before resetting. An in-flight reset should only be accomplished if; in the judgment of the Captain; regaining use of that system is xxxxxx to the xxxxxxxxxxxxxx.

Answer 2

AOM Chapter 3 * A tripped circuit breaker may only be reset once. Allow approximately two minutes for cooling before resetting. An in-flight reset should only be accomplished if; in the judgment of the Captain; regaining use of that system is critical to the safe conduct of the flight.

Question 3

* Flight Crews must xxxxxxxxxxx respond to TCAS information (both TAs and RAs) by using the TCAS (traffic avoidance) guidelines located in the QRH Maneuvers chapter.

Answer 3

* Flight Crews must immediately respond to TCAS information (both TAs and RAs) by using the TCAS (traffic avoidance) guidelines located in the QRH Maneuvers chapter.

Question 4

* Pilots are authorized to xxxxxxx from an ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with the TCAS II Resolution Advisory (RA).

Answer 4

* Pilots are authorized to deviate from an ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with the TCAS II Resolution Advisory (RA).

Question 5

Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude *

• NG xx000 feet *

Answer 5

Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude *

• NG 41000 feet *

Question 6

* With engine bleed air switches xx; do not operate the air conditioning packs in HIGH for xxxxxxx; xxxxxxxx; or xxxxxxx.

Answer 6

* With engine bleed air switches ON; do not operate the air conditioning packs in HIGH for takeoff; approach; or landing. (Unless directed otherwise by the QRH)

Question 7

Maximum Allowable Altitude for APU NG * Operation xxxxxx feet

Answer 7

Maximum Allowable Altitude for APU NG * Operation 41000 feet

Question 8

Maximum Allowable Altitude for APU NG * Electric Only xxxxxx feet

Answer 8

Maximum Allowable Altitude for APU NG * Electric Only 41000 feet

Question 9

Maximum Allowable Altitude for APU NG* Bleed Air Only xxxxxx feet

Answer 9

Maximum Allowable Altitude for APU NG* Bleed Air Only 17000 feet

Question 10

Maximum Allowable Altitude for APU NG* Bleed Air and Electric xxxxxx feet

Answer 10

Maximum Allowable Altitude for APU NG* Bleed Air and Electric 10000 feet

Question 11

Cargo Bay * Aircraft must land within xx minutes (8E : xxx minutes) of initial discharge of the fire suppression system.

Answer 11

Cargo Bay * Aircraft must land within 60 minutes (8E : 180 minutes) of initial discharge of the fire suppression system.

Question 12

Electrical Power * NG On the ground; limit xxx generator operation (engine driven) to a maximum of xxx amps. * Do not remove AC power from the aircraft for at least xx seconds after xxx shutdown.

Answer 12

Electrical Power * NG On the ground; limit one generator operation (engine driven) to a maximum of 215 amps. * Do not remove AC power from the aircraft for at least 30 seconds after IRS shutdown.

Question 13

Flight Controls * Do not use speedbrakes in flight below xxxx feet AGL * In flight; do not extend the speedbrake lever beyond the xxxxxx xxxxxx. * In flight; do not use speedbrakes with xxxxx greater than xx.

Answer 13

Flight Controls * Do not use speedbrakes in flight below 1000 feet AGL * In flight; do not extend the speedbrake lever beyond the flight detent. * In flight; do not use speedbrakes with greater than flaps 10.

Question 14

* Alternate flap duty cycle in flight is xxx complete cycle; then x minutes off. A complete cycle is movement from position 0 to xx and back to 0. The alternate flap switch must be in the xx position for xx seconds before reversing the direction of flap movement.

Answer 14

* Alternate flap duty cycle in flight is one complete cycle; then 5 minutes off. A complete cycle is movement from position 0 to 15 and back to 0. The alternate flap switch must be in the OFF position for 15 seconds before reversing the direction of flap movement.

Question 15

* Do not extend flaps above xx000 feet pressure altitude.

Answer 15

* Do not extend flaps above 20000 feet pressure altitude.

Question 16

* Max Fuel Tank Temperature PLUS xx C * Min Fuel Tank Temperature -xx C Note: Jet A freeze point is -xxC; and other listed fuels freeze at lower temperatures.

Answer 16

* Max Fuel Tank Temperature PLUS 49 C * Min Fuel Tank Temperature -37 C Note: Jet A freeze point is -40C; and other listed fuels freeze at lower temperatures.

Question 17

* Main tanks must be full if the center tank quantity is greater than xxxx pounds. Note 5: xxxx pounds may be retained in the center tank provided the xxxxxxx of xxxxxxx have been considered. Note 6: Center tank fuel pumps must be xx for all operations with more than xxxx pounds of fuel in the center tank. Note 7: Some MEL items can override this limitation.

Answer 17

* Main tanks must be full if the center tank quantity is greater than 1000 pounds. Note 5: 1000 pounds may be retained in the center tank provided the effects of balance have been considered. Note 6: Center tank fuel pumps must be ON for all operations with more than 1000 pounds of fuel in the center tank. Note 7: Some MEL items can override this limitation.

Question 18

* Use ____ tank to depletion followed by ____ tank fuel.

Answer 18

* Use center tank to depletion followed by wing tank fuel.

Question 19

* For ground operation; center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned to xx unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds xxxx pounds; except when defueling or transferring fuel.

Answer 19

* For ground operation; center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned to ON unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds 1000 pounds; except when defueling or transferring fuel.

Question 20

Note: Fuel may be transferred from tank to tank or the aircraft may be defueled with Passengers onboard; provided the fuel quantity in the tank from which fuel is being taken is maintained at not less than xxxx lb. Deplane all Passengers and non-essential Crew Members when defueling a tank or transferring fuel from a tank that has a fuel quantity below xxxx lb until the process has been completed and the respective fuel boost pumps are turned xxx.

Answer 20

Note: Fuel may be transferred from tank to tank or the aircraft may be defueled with Passengers onboard; provided the fuel quantity in the tank from which fuel is being taken is maintained at not less than 2000 lb. Deplane all Passengers and non-essential Crew Members when defueling a tank or transferring fuel from a tank that has a fuel quantity below 2000 lb until the process has been completed and the respective fuel boost pumps are turned off.

Question 21

* xx Corresponding center tank fuel pump switch must be positioned to xxx when a center tank LOW PRESSURE light illuminates. Note: When established in level flight attitude; both center tank pump switches should be positioned xx again if the center tank contains usable fuel. Note: If the center tank is empty; both center tank fuel pump switches must be positioned xxx when the first center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.

Answer 21

* NG Corresponding center tank fuel pump switch must be positioned to OFF when a center tank LOW PRESSURE light illuminates. Note: When established in level flight attitude; both center tank pump switches should be positioned ON again if the center tank contains usable fuel. Note: If the center tank is empty; both center tank fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF when the first center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.

Question 22

* Center tank fuel pumps must not be xx unless personnel are available on the flightdeck to monitor the xxx xxxxxxxx xxxxxx.

Answer 22

* Center tank fuel pumps must not be ON unless personnel are available on the flightdeck to monitor the low pressure lights.

Question 23

* Flight Crews must not reset tripped fuel xxxxxxxx xxxxxxxxx; fuel xxxx or fuel pump control xxxxxxx xxxxxxxx.

Answer 23

* Flight Crews must not reset tripped fuel quantity indicator; fuel pump or fuel pump control circuit breakers.

Question 24

* xx Holding in icing conditions with xxxxx xxxxxxxx is prohibited.

Answer 24

* NG Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited.

Question 25

Specific Engine Limits * Maximum EGT for Ground Start xxx C *

Answer 25

Specific Engine Limits * Maximum EGT for Ground Start 725 C *

Question 26

* Operate engines at or near idle; after rollback; for a minimum of xxx minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust.

Answer 26

* Operate engines at or near idle; after rollback; for a minimum of two minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust.

Question 27

* Operate engines at or near idle for a minimum of xxx minute prior to shutdown.

Answer 27

* Operate engines at or near idle for a minimum of one minute prior to shutdown.

Question 28

* Reverse thrust is for xxxxxx use only.

Answer 28

* Reverse thrust is for ground use only.

Question 29

* Do not operate the xxxxxxx xxxxx during fueling; near fuel spills; or near people.

Answer 29

* Do not operate the weather radar during fueling; near fuel spills; or near people.

Question 30

* The xxxxxxxxx reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be accomplished when directed by the xxx. Allow approximately xxx minutes for cooling before resetting. Resetting a tripped circuit breaker other than when directed by the xxx must be done as follows: * A tripped circuit breaker may only be reset xxxx. Allow approximately xxx minutes for cooling before resetting. An xxxxxxxxx reset should only be accomplished if; in the judgment of the Captain; regaining use of that system is xxxxxxxx xx xxx xxxx xxxxxxx xx xxxxxx.

Answer 30

* The in-flight reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be accomplished when directed by the QRH. Allow approximately two minutes for cooling before resetting. Resetting a tripped circuit breaker other than when directed by the QRH must be done as follows: * A tripped circuit breaker may only be reset once. Allow approximately two minutes for cooling before resetting. An in-flight reset should only be accomplished if; in the judgment of the Captain; regaining use of that system is critical to the safe conduct of flight.

Question 31

Checklist titles on the QRC with a red background indicate xxxxxxxxx checklists that contain xxxxxxxxx xxxxxx xxxxx… Pilots are responsible for memorizing all items above the xxx separator symbol on the QRC.

Answer 31

Checklist titles on the QRC with a red background indicate non-normal checklists that contain immediate action items… Pilots are responsible for memorizing all items above the red separator symbol on the QRC.

Question 32

Checklist titles on the QRC with a black background indicate checklist that contain xxxxx xxxxxxxxx xxxxx.

Answer 32

Checklist titles on the QRC with a black background indicate checklist that contain quick reference items.

Question 33

* In a non-normal checklist; a xxx separator symbol separates xxxxxxxxx xxxxxx xxxxx from xxxxxxxxx xxxxx…

Answer 33

* In a non-normal checklist; a red separator symbol separates immediate action items from reference items…

Question 34

…In a non-normal checklist; a black separator symbol separates xxxxx xxxxxxxxx xxxxx from xxxxxxxxx xxxxx.

Answer 34

…In a non-normal checklist; a black separator symbol separates quick reference items from reference items.

Question 35

IN ALL SITUATIONS *

• Maintain xxxxxxxx xxxxxxx *
• Analyze xxx xxxxxxx *
• Take xxxxxxxxxxx xxxxxx *
• Maintain xxxxxxxxxxx xxxxxxxxx

Answer 35

IN ALL SITUATIONS *

• Maintain Aircraft Control *
• Analyze The Problem *
• Take Appropriate Action *
• Maintain Situational Awareness