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737 / SWA study > 2018 recurrent SPE questions > Flashcards

2018 recurrent SPE questions Flashcards

1
Q

How would you define risk?

A

Risk is an expression of the probability and magnitude of an unwanted outcome. It occurs at many levels (e.g., loss of safety, not reaching business goals, and loss of operational effectiveness).

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2
Q

How can you control risk?

A

Risk is controlled by balancing the factors that increase risk with resources and strategies that decrease the potential for the undesirable outcome and/or increase the likelihood of a positive outcome.

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3
Q

What are the four principles of RRM?

A
  •  Accept no unnecessary risk
  •  Anticipate and manage risk by planning
  •  Accept necessary risk only when benefits

outweigh the cost

  •  Make risk decisions at the right level
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4
Q

What are risk factors?

A

Risk factors are anything that increase risk and

decrease performance.

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5
Q

What are the three categories of risk factors, as

stated in the RRM model?

A
  • Task loading
  •  Additive conditions
  •  Crew factors
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6
Q

Define task loading.

A

Task loading is the perceived amount of time

available to accomplish the required tasks. Crew

Members should remain vigilant in recognition of task

overloading. Crew Members should also avoid task

under-loading, as long periods of low task loading can

lead to inattention or complacency and increase risk.

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7
Q

Define additive conditions.

A

Additive conditions are any factor that adds to task

loading or causes a distraction (e.g., the environment,

equipment problems, operational problems, and

organizational influences). Unpredictable situations or

lack of information are additive conditions that can

increase risk. Crew Members should beware of

focused attention and/or tunnel vision from

themselves and others.

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8
Q

Describe the RRM Target.

A

The target is an indicator of how much potential risk is

being faced. The target is color coded into green,

yellow, and red areas, where the rings further from

the center represent increasing levels of risk. Crew

Members should continually work towards operating

in the green area.

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9
Q

What does the green area represent?

A

The green area of the RRM target represents a high

likelihood of a positive outcome. This is a combination

of good situational awareness, management

strategies, and resources in place to capture errors.

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10
Q

What might help keep you in the green?

A

Effective communication assists proactive

management to anticipate problems, minimize errors,

provide enhanced situational awareness, and balance

operational priorities.

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11
Q

What does the yellow area represent?

A

The yellow area of the RRM target represents

increased risk due to higher task loading, additive

conditions, and/or Crew factors.

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12
Q

How might you sense you are operating in the

yellow and what might we do to change that?

A

When operating in the yellow, attention narrowing

may increase the chance of errors going unnoticed.

Also, situational awareness could be decreasing.

Operating in the yellow area is an indication that it

may be time to re-prioritize.

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13
Q

What does the red area represent?

A

The red area of the RRM target represents a high

potential for a serious error or operational failure.

Additionally, the time available and/or resources are

not in place to capture errors.

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14
Q

What is the hazard associated with operating in the

red and what might you do to mitigate it?

A

Operating in the red area means that there is a

danger that situational awareness has severely

diminished, and tunnel vision may occur. A recovery

is necessary, and communication must become more

directive.

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15
Q

What are the RRM Resource Blocks?

A
  •  Policies, Procedures, and Flows
  •  Checklists
  •  Automation
  •  Briefings and External Resources
  •  Knowledge, Skills, and Techniques
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16
Q

What does ABCD stand for?

A

ABCD stands for:

Assess

Balance

Communicate risk and intentions, and

Do and debrief

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17
Q

What actions are you taking when you Assess a

situation?

A

While maintaining situational awareness, continuously

evaluate what is happening now to identify, process,

and comprehend the critical elements of information

and determine how it affects the future outcome.

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18
Q

What actions are you taking when you Balance a

situation?

A

To attempt to balance a situation, make decisions

based on policies, procedures, and the operational

priorities (i.e., safety, service, and efficiently on time).

This supports effective workload management and

task redundancy.

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19
Q

How do you Communicate risk and intentions?

A

You must communicate risk and intentions effectively,

timely, constructively, and appropriately, to help

establish a shared mental model.

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20
Q

What does Do and Debrief accomplish?

A

Do and Debrief promotes active involvement and

constant self-evaluation. By debriefing and learning

from the occurrences, Crew Members continuously

work toward improving performance and reducing risk

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21
Q

For Pilot Flying briefing purposes, where can you

find the minimum climb gradient?

A

This information may be included in the SID and/or

Jeppesen -9A page.

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22
Q

When is it required to land at the nearest suitable

airport?

A

Landing at the nearest suitable airport is required

when directed by a QRH checklist.

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23
Q

If the aircraft has an engine failure and it is

successfully restarted, are you still required to land

at the nearest suitable airport?

A

Yes. Subsequently restarting the engine does not

relieve this requirement for landing at the nearest

suitable airport.

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24
Q

Do you have to land at the nearest suitable airport if

you had an APU fire that was extinguished?

A

No. FOM Bulletin 17-36 and QRH Revision 17-01

now allow flight to continue after the Pilot complies

with the NNC procedure and the APU fire switch

extinguishes. The decision to continue is at the

Captain’s discretion and the fire must be positively

confirmed to be completely extinguished.

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25
Q

Are you required to have a 2000’ or greater

stopping margin to conduct a takeoff from a runway

intersection?

A

No.

Policy - An intersection takeoff may only be

performed if the Flight Deck Crew determines that

performance data is available and used for that

intersection takeoff.

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26
Q

As a Flight Crew, what are your responsibilities to

execute or direct a go around/missed approach if

the stabilized approach criteria are not met?

A

It is the duty and responsibility of any Flight Deck

Crew Member to execute or direct a goaround/

missed approach when the stabilized

approach criteria are not met. Additionally, any time

the approach or landing appears unsafe, execute or

direct a go-around/missed approach. When a goaround/

missed approach is called for, the Pilot Flying

must immediately execute the go-around/missed

approach.

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27
Q

Where can the most current chart showing ACARS

and Southwest Company Radio Network

Frequencies be found?

A

The current data coverage chart is available on the

SIP page via the hyperlink or on myMobile365 via the

following path,

My Publications > Collections >

Operating/Reference Manuals > ARINC and

Southwest Company Radio Network Charts and

Frequencies.

28
Q

What are the advantages of using CPDLC DCL?

A
  •  Revised clearances can be sent to the aircraft prior to departure (unlike ACARS Pre-Departure Clearance [PDC]).
  •  Revised routings are transmitted to the aircraft and can be loaded, reducing Pilot input errors.
  •  Improved workflow for ATC and Pilots when last minute changes occur.
29
Q

How do you know if an aircraft is equipped to utilize

CPDLC DCL?

A

The REMARKS section of the Dispatch Release

states “AC EQUIP – FANS CPDLC.”

30
Q

How do you know if a particular city is participating

in the CPDLC DCL program?

A

Participating CPDLC cities are identified by reference

to the DATACOM information box of the airport SIP

states “CPDLC.” Tap the CPDLC hyperlink to

redirect to CPDLC DCL Reference Guide.

31
Q

After selecting the ATC LOGON/STATUS page and

entering the KUSA code, how do you load the flight

number into the MCDU?

A

The flight number needs to be preceded by “SWA” at

LSK 2L (e.g., SWA1234, SWA123, SWA12). Do not

use leading zeroes.

32
Q

What if the flight number field on the ATC LOGON /

STATUS page has been prepopulated but without

the SWA prefix?

A

If the flight number field is pre-populated without the

SWA prefix, you will need to reenter the flight number

including the SWA prefix.

33
Q

What needs to be done if you get a LOGON

REJECTED at LSK 1R and RE-LOGON TO ATC

COMM message in the scratch pad?

A

This indicates an incorrect ATC identifier, flight

number, and/or tail number. Most logon errors can be

corrected by verifying and re-entering the correct data

into the ATC LOGON / STATUS 1/2 page.

34
Q

What does the *ATC icon displayed on the DU

indicate?

A

This symbol indicates a new message or clearance

has not been acknowledged or answered. Do not

depart with open CPDLC messages. Ensure the icon

is cleared from the upper DU prior to takeoff

35
Q

What is the allowable time frame for Dispatch to

send a release to the originating station?

A

Dispatch plans to send each release to the originating

station approximately 90 minutes prior to the

estimated departure time but no later than 30 minutes

prior to departure.

36
Q

When a diversion plan is developed, how can we

verify the fuel onboard is sufficient?

A

Refer to the Alternate Planning Tables in B737CL/NG

AOM 18 In-Flight Performance Data or B737MAX

AOM 18 In-Flight Performance Data to estimate the

fuel burn from destination to the alternate airport. The

values in the tables are not specific to the destination

and alternate; therefore, the required fuel to alternate

in the tables may differ slightly from the fuel computed

by the Dispatcher.

37
Q

What is the specific flight profile used to determine

the Fuel to Alternate numbers found in the Alternate

Planning Tables?

A

The flight profile is based on a climb from 1,500 ft

MSL to the altitude indicated, and then a descent

back to sea level plus a 30 NM bias for fuel burn.

38
Q

What is a fuel burn planning number I can use to

estimate the burn while holding?

A

The NG is planned at 4,500 pph.

The MAX8 is planned at 3,800 pph.

39
Q

What fuel burn rate does Dispatch use when

computing contingency fuel?

A

The NG is planned at 4,500 pph.

The MAX8 is planned at 4,100 pph.

40
Q

How much fuel is required to meet the FAA reserve

fuel requirements?

A

These values should be adjusted for variables such

as MEL/CDL items, ATC limitations, or any other

known circumstance that will affect 45 minutes of

flight at normal cruising fuel consumption.

The NG reserve fuel requirement is 3,500 lbs. The

MAX8 reserve fuel requirement is 3,100 lbs.

41
Q

With this shift in our fuel policies to the more

representative metric of time, what other changes

have been implemented to aid us in planning?

A

The SWIFT Computer system has been updated to

include planned arrival fuel endurance time on the

Dispatch Release. It is located next to the PLAN ARR

FUEL in the fuel stack.

42
Q

Now that LNAV and VNAV modes are authorized

for Ground-Based Non-Precision approaches, how

does that affect the Company policy that only

allowed use of LNAV /VNAV on the final approach

segment of RNAV approaches?

Is this allowed in the MAX?

A

The policy restricting the use of LNAV on the final

approach segment was rescinded with FOM Bulletin

16-20. That Bulletin was incorporated into AOM 17-

  1. As a reminder, raw data must be monitored

No. Currently, using LNAV/VNAV for Ground-Based

Non-precision approaches is not allowed in the MAX

because raw data cannot be monitored.

43
Q

When do you need to operate the TCAS in either

TA/RA or TA Only modes?

A

Operations in the Traffic Advisory (TA )Only mode

must be done only in accordance with guidance in the

QRH, and as directed in the SIP pages.

44
Q

What is the AOM guidance if an engine fluid leak is

discovered during an Exterior Preflight Inspection?

A

If a fluid leak (other than a continuous stream) from

an engine drain is discovered during the Exterior

Preflight Inspection, the engine may be started using

normal procedures.

45
Q

What FMC programming needs to be done if you

receive a runway change after completion of the

Before Push checklist?

A

If a runway change occurs, acquire PWB data,

program the FMC, and verify the results.

Select the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page. Verify the

runway and intersection (if applicable) displayed in

the PWB data agree with the intersection (if

applicable) and runway displayed at LSK 5L.

46
Q

When are you required to perform the Departure

Plan Checklist?

A

Accomplish the Departure Plan Checklist anytime a

change is made to the departure runway, the SID, or

takeoff performance after the Before Push Checklist

is accomplished.

47
Q

What are the required conditions that allow cold

soaked fuel frost (CSFF) on the upper wing

surfaces on an NG aircraft?

A
  •  The CSFF is on or between the black lines

defining the allowable CSFF area.

  •  Outside air temperature (OAT) is at or above 4°C

(39°F).

  •  Fuel tank temperature is at or above -16°C (3°F).
  •  There is no precipitation or visible moisture (rain,

snow, drizzle, or fog with less than 1 mile

visibility).

Note: Aircraft without depicted allowable CSFF areas

are not allowed to take off with any frost on the upper

wing surface.

48
Q

If conditions or ATC restrictions prevent flying at the

planned altitude, (e.g., convective weather, poor

ride quality) is encountered, what guidance is

available to determine an alternative cruise altitude?

A

Reference the ALTITUDE/ROUTE OPTIONS section

of the Dispatch Release for alternative altitude fuel

requirement impacts. It may be beneficial to fly below

the FMC optimum altitude if actual cruise winds

facilitate a higher ground speed.

49
Q

If we encounter turbulence enroute, how can we

determine an alternate cruise altitude that will

ensure a 1.5 G buffet limit?

A

If greater than light turbulence, convective activity, or

mountain wave activity is anticipated or encountered,

select an altitude at least 3,000 ft (NG) or 3,300 ft

(MAX) below the FMC MAX ALT and appropriate for

the direction of flight. This guarantees 1.5 G buffet

protection.

50
Q

Has our policy regarding the use of speedbrakes

with the flaps extended changed for the MAX?

How about the NG?

A

Yes, the Extension of the speedbrakes to the FLIGHT

DETENT position with up to and including flaps 10 is

approved for use on both the NG and the MAX.

51
Q

Why are we seeing a different WiFi panel in some

aircraft?

A

Southwest is implementing a multi-vendor In-Flight

Entertainment and Connectivity (IFEC) solution by

retrofitting a portion of the fleet with a new Panasonic

WiFi system.

52
Q

How do we tell which system we have and do they

work the same?

A

Identifying placards are being installed on all aircraft

showing either “GE/ROW 44 Wi-Fi” or “Panasonic Wi-

Fi”. The broadband control units for either unit will still

be located in the same aft overhead panel space and

function in similar fashion.

53
Q

How are any irregularities or contingencies handled

with the two systems?

A

The aircraft specific AOMs will address possible

issues with unique sections for each unit.

54
Q

With the departure of the Classic’s and introduction

of the MAX into the fleet, has anything changed with

our pushback procedures?

A

Besides the taller nose gear on the MAX causing the

possible need of a step stool for the ramp to access the

External Power panel, there have been several

modifications to the dialogue and procedures used

during pushback. Reference either Bulletin 17-32 or

(once incorporated) AOM Chapter 7 for details.

55
Q

Southwest has a 10 knot maximum tailwind

limitation with one exception. What city has that

exception?

A

One exception has been authorized for San Jose

Costa Rica to allow greater operational flexibility. This

was done following two years of AQP maneuver

observation training and extensive operational risk

assessment,

56
Q

What is the Standard Takeoff Minimum for our B737

aircraft?

A

One statute mile or RVR 5000 visibility.

57
Q

What authorizes us to depart with takeoff minimums

below Standard?

A

Our OpSpecs authorize this under certain conditions. Reference: OpSpecs C056 & C078

58
Q

How can I determine what these conditions are and

apply them to a particular case?

A

A Lower than Standard Takeoff Visibility

Requirements table is located on the Takeoff – Cruise

side of the B737 Reference card. Utilizing OpSpec

requirements, this table is designed to step through

the airport lighting and RVR capabilities that allow

various takeoff visibility requirements

59
Q

Where can you find the takeoff minimums for

runway 13?

A

The LGA 10-9A plate, Take-off Minimums.

60
Q

The TERPS standard minimum climb gradient is

200’/NM. Is the departure off runway 13 going to

require more than that?

A

Yes. The 10-9a page shows that Standard (or lower)

Takeoff Minimums for runway 13 will require a

minimum climb of 280’/NM to 500’.

61
Q

Does the GLDMN SID require a more restrictive

climb gradient?

A

Yes. The GLDMN SID Obstacles information shows a

number of minimum climb gradient requirements. You

will need a minimum climb of 563’/NM to 710’, then

continue the climb meeting ATC minimum climbs of

615’/NM to 2,500’, 605’/NM to 4,000’, and 367’/NM to

5,000’.

62
Q

What is meant when there is a specific mention of

ATC for a climb gradient requirement?

A

While compliance with climb gradients required for

procedure design constraints, obstacle clearance,

and/or airspace restrictions is mandatory, ATC

required crossing restrictions may be amended or

canceled at ATC’s discretion. If an ATC required

climb gradient is causing an issue, make a call to see

if ATC might cancel the requirement.

63
Q

How would you determine your climb performance

capabilities through the PWB system with all those

varying numbers?

A

If there is more than one climb gradient published for

a SID, request takeoff data for the first climb gradient

that is applicable to an altitude above 1,000 ft AGL.

64
Q

Is the Jeppesen -9a always the final point for

determining our takeoff minimums?

A

No. While almost always a good single source point

of information, there are occasions where it will not

display our full OpSpecs Takeoff Minimums

capability. Always reference your SID for Takeoff

Minimums notes. If Standard Takeoff Minimums can

be applied, we are authorized to conditionally go

lower than Standard. Use the aforementioned table

on the B737 Reference Card to determine your

minimums.

65
Q

Where can you find our procedures relating to

determining takeoff minimums and other related

information?

A

FOM 9.2 covers this topic fully, including equipment

requirements for various lower than standard takeoff

visibilities.

66
Q

Is there something else you should check to see if

there is anything unusual that might affect the

takeoff minimums?

A

Review the NOTAMs carefully to see if there any

issues that may affect the takeoff minimums.

737 / SWA study (8 decks)

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