2018 recurrent SPE questions

Question 1

How would you define risk?

Answer 1

Risk is an expression of the probability and magnitude of an unwanted outcome. It occurs at many levels (e.g., loss of safety, not reaching business goals, and loss of operational effectiveness).

Question 2

How can you control risk?

Answer 2

Risk is controlled by balancing the factors that increase risk with resources and strategies that decrease the potential for the undesirable outcome and/or increase the likelihood of a positive outcome.

Question 3

What are the four principles of RRM?

Answer 3

•  Accept no unnecessary risk
•  Anticipate and manage risk by planning
•  Accept necessary risk only when benefits

outweigh the cost

•  Make risk decisions at the right level

Question 4

What are risk factors?

Answer 4

Risk factors are anything that increase risk and

decrease performance.

Question 5

What are the three categories of risk factors, as

stated in the RRM model?

Answer 5

• Task loading
•  Additive conditions
•  Crew factors

Question 6

Define task loading.

Answer 6

Task loading is the perceived amount of time

available to accomplish the required tasks. Crew

Members should remain vigilant in recognition of task

overloading. Crew Members should also avoid task

under-loading, as long periods of low task loading can

lead to inattention or complacency and increase risk.

Question 7

Define additive conditions.

Answer 7

Additive conditions are any factor that adds to task

loading or causes a distraction (e.g., the environment,

equipment problems, operational problems, and

organizational influences). Unpredictable situations or

lack of information are additive conditions that can

increase risk. Crew Members should beware of

focused attention and/or tunnel vision from

themselves and others.

Question 8

Describe the RRM Target.

Answer 8

The target is an indicator of how much potential risk is

being faced. The target is color coded into green,

yellow, and red areas, where the rings further from

the center represent increasing levels of risk. Crew

Members should continually work towards operating

in the green area.

Question 9

What does the green area represent?

Answer 9

The green area of the RRM target represents a high

likelihood of a positive outcome. This is a combination

of good situational awareness, management

strategies, and resources in place to capture errors.

Question 10

What might help keep you in the green?

Answer 10

Effective communication assists proactive

management to anticipate problems, minimize errors,

provide enhanced situational awareness, and balance

operational priorities.

Question 11

What does the yellow area represent?

Answer 11

The yellow area of the RRM target represents

increased risk due to higher task loading, additive

conditions, and/or Crew factors.

Question 12

How might you sense you are operating in the

yellow and what might we do to change that?

Answer 12

When operating in the yellow, attention narrowing

may increase the chance of errors going unnoticed.

Also, situational awareness could be decreasing.

Operating in the yellow area is an indication that it

may be time to re-prioritize.

Question 13

What does the red area represent?

Answer 13

The red area of the RRM target represents a high

potential for a serious error or operational failure.

Additionally, the time available and/or resources are

not in place to capture errors.

Question 14

What is the hazard associated with operating in the

red and what might you do to mitigate it?

Answer 14

Operating in the red area means that there is a

danger that situational awareness has severely

diminished, and tunnel vision may occur. A recovery

is necessary, and communication must become more

directive.

Question 15

What are the RRM Resource Blocks?

Answer 15

•  Policies, Procedures, and Flows
•  Checklists
•  Automation
•  Briefings and External Resources
•  Knowledge, Skills, and Techniques

Question 16

What does ABCD stand for?

Answer 16

ABCD stands for:

Assess

Balance

Communicate risk and intentions, and

Do and debrief

Question 17

What actions are you taking when you Assess a

situation?

Answer 17

While maintaining situational awareness, continuously

evaluate what is happening now to identify, process,

and comprehend the critical elements of information

and determine how it affects the future outcome.

Question 18

What actions are you taking when you Balance a

situation?

Answer 18

To attempt to balance a situation, make decisions

based on policies, procedures, and the operational

priorities (i.e., safety, service, and efficiently on time).

This supports effective workload management and

task redundancy.

Question 19

How do you Communicate risk and intentions?

Answer 19

You must communicate risk and intentions effectively,

timely, constructively, and appropriately, to help

establish a shared mental model.

Question 20

What does Do and Debrief accomplish?

Answer 20

Do and Debrief promotes active involvement and

constant self-evaluation. By debriefing and learning

from the occurrences, Crew Members continuously

work toward improving performance and reducing risk

Question 21

For Pilot Flying briefing purposes, where can you

find the minimum climb gradient?

Answer 21

This information may be included in the SID and/or

Jeppesen -9A page.

Question 22

When is it required to land at the nearest suitable

airport?

Answer 22

Landing at the nearest suitable airport is required

when directed by a QRH checklist.

Question 23

If the aircraft has an engine failure and it is

successfully restarted, are you still required to land

at the nearest suitable airport?

Answer 23

Yes. Subsequently restarting the engine does not

relieve this requirement for landing at the nearest

suitable airport.

Question 24

Do you have to land at the nearest suitable airport if

you had an APU fire that was extinguished?

Answer 24

No. FOM Bulletin 17-36 and QRH Revision 17-01

now allow flight to continue after the Pilot complies

with the NNC procedure and the APU fire switch

extinguishes. The decision to continue is at the

Captain’s discretion and the fire must be positively

confirmed to be completely extinguished.

Question 25

Are you required to have a 2000’ or greater stopping margin to conduct a takeoff from a runway intersection?

Answer 25

No. Policy - An intersection takeoff may only be performed if the Flight Deck Crew determines that performance data is available and used for that intersection takeoff.

Question 26

As a Flight Crew, what are your responsibilities to execute or direct a go around/missed approach if the stabilized approach criteria are not met?

Answer 26

It is the duty and responsibility of any Flight Deck Crew Member to execute or direct a goaround/ missed approach when the stabilized approach criteria are not met. Additionally, any time the approach or landing appears unsafe, execute or direct a go-around/missed approach. When a goaround/ missed approach is called for, the Pilot Flying must immediately execute the go-around/missed approach.

Question 27

Where can the most current chart showing ACARS and Southwest Company Radio Network Frequencies be found?

Answer 27

The current data coverage chart is available on the SIP page via the hyperlink or on myMobile365 via the following path, My Publications \> Collections \> Operating/Reference Manuals \> ARINC and Southwest Company Radio Network Charts and Frequencies.

Question 28

What are the advantages of using CPDLC DCL?

Answer 28

*  Revised clearances can be sent to the aircraft prior to departure (unlike ACARS Pre-Departure Clearance [PDC]). *  Revised routings are transmitted to the aircraft and can be loaded, reducing Pilot input errors. *  Improved workflow for ATC and Pilots when last minute changes occur.

Question 29

How do you know if an aircraft is equipped to utilize CPDLC DCL?

Answer 29

The REMARKS section of the Dispatch Release states “AC EQUIP – FANS CPDLC.”

Question 30

How do you know if a particular city is participating in the CPDLC DCL program?

Answer 30

Participating CPDLC cities are identified by reference to the DATACOM information box of the airport SIP states “CPDLC.” Tap the CPDLC hyperlink to redirect to CPDLC DCL Reference Guide.

Question 31

After selecting the ATC LOGON/STATUS page and entering the KUSA code, how do you load the flight number into the MCDU?

Answer 31

The flight number needs to be preceded by “SWA” at LSK 2L (e.g., SWA1234, SWA123, SWA12). Do not use leading zeroes.

Question 32

What if the flight number field on the ATC LOGON / STATUS page has been prepopulated but without the SWA prefix?

Answer 32

If the flight number field is pre-populated without the SWA prefix, you will need to reenter the flight number including the SWA prefix.

Question 33

What needs to be done if you get a LOGON REJECTED at LSK 1R and RE-LOGON TO ATC COMM message in the scratch pad?

Answer 33

This indicates an incorrect ATC identifier, flight number, and/or tail number. Most logon errors can be corrected by verifying and re-entering the correct data into the ATC LOGON / STATUS 1/2 page.

Question 34

What does the \*ATC icon displayed on the DU indicate?

Answer 34

This symbol indicates a new message or clearance has not been acknowledged or answered. Do not depart with open CPDLC messages. Ensure the icon is cleared from the upper DU prior to takeoff

Question 35

What is the allowable time frame for Dispatch to send a release to the originating station?

Answer 35

Dispatch plans to send each release to the originating station approximately 90 minutes prior to the estimated departure time but no later than 30 minutes prior to departure.

Question 36

When a diversion plan is developed, how can we verify the fuel onboard is sufficient?

Answer 36

Refer to the Alternate Planning Tables in B737CL/NG AOM 18 In-Flight Performance Data or B737MAX AOM 18 In-Flight Performance Data to estimate the fuel burn from destination to the alternate airport. The values in the tables are not specific to the destination and alternate; therefore, the required fuel to alternate in the tables may differ slightly from the fuel computed by the Dispatcher.

Question 37

What is the specific flight profile used to determine the Fuel to Alternate numbers found in the Alternate Planning Tables?

Answer 37

The flight profile is based on a climb from 1,500 ft MSL to the altitude indicated, and then a descent back to sea level plus a 30 NM bias for fuel burn.

Question 38

What is a fuel burn planning number I can use to estimate the burn while holding?

Answer 38

The NG is planned at 4,500 pph. The MAX8 is planned at 3,800 pph.

Question 39

What fuel burn rate does Dispatch use when computing contingency fuel?

Answer 39

The NG is planned at 4,500 pph. The MAX8 is planned at 4,100 pph.

Question 40

How much fuel is required to meet the FAA reserve fuel requirements?

Answer 40

These values should be adjusted for variables such as MEL/CDL items, ATC limitations, or any other known circumstance that will affect 45 minutes of flight at normal cruising fuel consumption. The NG reserve fuel requirement is 3,500 lbs. The MAX8 reserve fuel requirement is 3,100 lbs.

Question 41

With this shift in our fuel policies to the more representative metric of time, what other changes have been implemented to aid us in planning?

Answer 41

The SWIFT Computer system has been updated to include planned arrival fuel endurance time on the Dispatch Release. It is located next to the PLAN ARR FUEL in the fuel stack.

Question 42

Now that LNAV and VNAV modes are authorized for Ground-Based Non-Precision approaches, how does that affect the Company policy that only allowed use of LNAV /VNAV on the final approach segment of RNAV approaches? Is this allowed in the MAX?

Answer 42

The policy restricting the use of LNAV on the final approach segment was rescinded with FOM Bulletin 16-20. That Bulletin was incorporated into AOM 17- 03. As a reminder, raw data must be monitored No. Currently, using LNAV/VNAV for Ground-Based Non-precision approaches is not allowed in the MAX because raw data cannot be monitored.

Question 43

When do you need to operate the TCAS in either TA/RA or TA Only modes?

Answer 43

Operations in the Traffic Advisory (TA )Only mode must be done only in accordance with guidance in the QRH, and as directed in the SIP pages.

Question 44

What is the AOM guidance if an engine fluid leak is discovered during an Exterior Preflight Inspection?

Answer 44

If a fluid leak (other than a continuous stream) from an engine drain is discovered during the Exterior Preflight Inspection, the engine may be started using normal procedures.

Question 45

What FMC programming needs to be done if you receive a runway change after completion of the Before Push checklist?

Answer 45

If a runway change occurs, acquire PWB data, program the FMC, and verify the results. Select the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page. Verify the runway and intersection (if applicable) displayed in the PWB data agree with the intersection (if applicable) and runway displayed at LSK 5L.

Question 46

When are you required to perform the Departure Plan Checklist?

Answer 46

Accomplish the Departure Plan Checklist anytime a change is made to the departure runway, the SID, or takeoff performance after the Before Push Checklist is accomplished.

Question 47

What are the required conditions that allow cold soaked fuel frost (CSFF) on the upper wing surfaces on an NG aircraft?

Answer 47

*  The CSFF is on or between the black lines defining the allowable CSFF area. *  Outside air temperature (OAT) is at or above 4°C (39°F). *  Fuel tank temperature is at or above -16°C (3°F). *  There is no precipitation or visible moisture (rain, snow, drizzle, or fog with less than 1 mile visibility). Note: Aircraft without depicted allowable CSFF areas are not allowed to take off with any frost on the upper wing surface.

Question 48

If conditions or ATC restrictions prevent flying at the planned altitude, (e.g., convective weather, poor ride quality) is encountered, what guidance is available to determine an alternative cruise altitude?

Answer 48

Reference the ALTITUDE/ROUTE OPTIONS section of the Dispatch Release for alternative altitude fuel requirement impacts. It may be beneficial to fly below the FMC optimum altitude if actual cruise winds facilitate a higher ground speed.

Question 49

If we encounter turbulence enroute, how can we determine an alternate cruise altitude that will ensure a 1.5 G buffet limit?

Answer 49

If greater than light turbulence, convective activity, or mountain wave activity is anticipated or encountered, select an altitude at least 3,000 ft (NG) or 3,300 ft (MAX) below the FMC MAX ALT and appropriate for the direction of flight. This guarantees 1.5 G buffet protection.

Question 50

Has our policy regarding the use of speedbrakes with the flaps extended changed for the MAX? How about the NG?

Answer 50

Yes, the Extension of the speedbrakes to the FLIGHT DETENT position with up to and including flaps 10 is approved for use on both the NG and the MAX.

Question 51

Why are we seeing a different WiFi panel in some aircraft?

Answer 51

Southwest is implementing a multi-vendor In-Flight Entertainment and Connectivity (IFEC) solution by retrofitting a portion of the fleet with a new Panasonic WiFi system.

Question 52

How do we tell which system we have and do they work the same?

Answer 52

Identifying placards are being installed on all aircraft showing either “GE/ROW 44 Wi-Fi” or “Panasonic Wi- Fi”. The broadband control units for either unit will still be located in the same aft overhead panel space and function in similar fashion.

Question 53

How are any irregularities or contingencies handled with the two systems?

Answer 53

The aircraft specific AOMs will address possible issues with unique sections for each unit.

Question 54

With the departure of the Classic’s and introduction of the MAX into the fleet, has anything changed with our pushback procedures?

Answer 54

Besides the taller nose gear on the MAX causing the possible need of a step stool for the ramp to access the External Power panel, there have been several modifications to the dialogue and procedures used during pushback. Reference either Bulletin 17-32 or (once incorporated) AOM Chapter 7 for details.

Question 55

Southwest has a 10 knot maximum tailwind limitation with one exception. What city has that exception?

Answer 55

One exception has been authorized for San Jose Costa Rica to allow greater operational flexibility. This was done following two years of AQP maneuver observation training and extensive operational risk assessment,

Question 56

What is the Standard Takeoff Minimum for our B737 aircraft?

Answer 56

One statute mile or RVR 5000 visibility.

Question 57

What authorizes us to depart with takeoff minimums below Standard?

Answer 57

Our OpSpecs authorize this under certain conditions. Reference: OpSpecs C056 & C078

Question 58

How can I determine what these conditions are and apply them to a particular case?

Answer 58

A Lower than Standard Takeoff Visibility Requirements table is located on the Takeoff – Cruise side of the B737 Reference card. Utilizing OpSpec requirements, this table is designed to step through the airport lighting and RVR capabilities that allow various takeoff visibility requirements

Question 59

Where can you find the takeoff minimums for runway 13?

Answer 59

The LGA 10-9A plate, Take-off Minimums.

Question 60

The TERPS standard minimum climb gradient is 200’/NM. Is the departure off runway 13 going to require more than that?

Answer 60

Yes. The 10-9a page shows that Standard (or lower) Takeoff Minimums for runway 13 will require a minimum climb of 280’/NM to 500’.

Question 61

Does the GLDMN SID require a more restrictive climb gradient?

Answer 61

Yes. The GLDMN SID Obstacles information shows a number of minimum climb gradient requirements. You will need a minimum climb of 563’/NM to 710’, then continue the climb meeting ATC minimum climbs of 615’/NM to 2,500’, 605’/NM to 4,000’, and 367’/NM to 5,000’.

Question 62

What is meant when there is a specific mention of ATC for a climb gradient requirement?

Answer 62

While compliance with climb gradients required for procedure design constraints, obstacle clearance, and/or airspace restrictions is mandatory, ATC required crossing restrictions may be amended or canceled at ATC’s discretion. If an ATC required climb gradient is causing an issue, make a call to see if ATC might cancel the requirement.

Question 63

How would you determine your climb performance capabilities through the PWB system with all those varying numbers?

Answer 63

If there is more than one climb gradient published for a SID, request takeoff data for the first climb gradient that is applicable to an altitude above 1,000 ft AGL.

Question 64

Is the Jeppesen -9a always the final point for determining our takeoff minimums?

Answer 64

No. While almost always a good single source point of information, there are occasions where it will not display our full OpSpecs Takeoff Minimums capability. Always reference your SID for Takeoff Minimums notes. If Standard Takeoff Minimums can be applied, we are authorized to conditionally go lower than Standard. Use the aforementioned table on the B737 Reference Card to determine your minimums.

Question 65

Where can you find our procedures relating to determining takeoff minimums and other related information?

Answer 65

FOM 9.2 covers this topic fully, including equipment requirements for various lower than standard takeoff visibilities.

Question 66

Is there something else you should check to see if there is anything unusual that might affect the takeoff minimums?

Answer 66

Review the NOTAMs carefully to see if there any issues that may affect the takeoff minimums.