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PSYC 1200 > chapters 4-6 > Flashcards

chapters 4-6 Flashcards

1
Q

sensation

A

the process of detecting external events by the sense organs

Sensory adaptation: ex: getting used to a bright light after being in a dark room for a long time

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2
Q

transduction

A

process in which physical or chemical stimulation is converted into a neural impulse that is relayed to the brain

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3
Q

Perception

A

involved attending to, organizing, and interpreting stimuli that we sense
-occurs in our brain

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4
Q

absolute threshold

A

the minimum amount of energy or quantity of a stimulus required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented

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5
Q

difference threshold

A

the smallest detectable difference between stimuli

-ex: adding hot sauce to your food , the amount you add depends on how much you need to add to notice the change

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6
Q

signal detection theory

A

states that whether a stimulus is perceived depends on both sensory experience and judgment made by the subject

  • ex: on edge because you heard about a bear sighting, you’re walking in the woods and you’re hearing things, you don’t know if it’s real or if you’re imagining it
  • *more likely to report sound if you’re by yourself at night in the dark, rather than with people in the daylight
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7
Q

subliminal perception

A

-we detect subliminal stimuli
*activation of certain regions of the brain
Ex: we see it but we may not report having seen it because it was under our absolute threshold

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8
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

figure-ground principle

A

objects and figures in our environment tend to stand
out against a background

Ex: holding a convo in a noisy and crowded room, the person you’re talking to would be the figure and the noise at the party would be the ground

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9
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

proximity

A

objects in close proximity tend to be treated as a group

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10
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

similarity

A

Similarity: objects of similar shape, colour, or orientation tend to be grouped

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11
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

continuity

A

items seen as whole figures, even if broken into segments

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12
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

closure

A

we fill in gaps to complete a whole

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13
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

Top-down processing

A

occurs when prior knowledge and expectation guide what is perceived

-ex: looking for a friend in a crowded room, we already know what they look like, this description will help us when we are looking for them instead of just getting a description of a person

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14
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

Bottom-up processing

A

is constructing a whole stimulus or concept from bits of raw sensory information
Ex: driving in a foreign country, you build a representation of what road signs mean because you are not used to them, often use this process when we are seeing things for the first time

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15
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

selective attention

A

involves focusing on one particular event or task

-more likely if we’re learning a new task

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16
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

divided attention

A
  • involves paying attention to several stimuli or tasks at once
  • self proclaimed multitaskers perform worse on cognitive tests, they’re easily distracted

-impairs your memory in the moment
Ex: one group had to remember words, another group had to remember the words and do another task at the same time, the multitasking students struggled to remember the words
-all people are bad multitaskers

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17
Q

Gestalt principles of perception:

intentional blindness

A

a failure to notice clearly events or objects because attention is directed elsewhere

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18
Q

sclera

A

white outer layer of the eye

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19
Q

cornea

A

Clear layer that covers the front of the eye, contributes to our ability to focus the light

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20
Q

pupil

A

Regulates amount of light let into eye by changing it’s size, dilates to allow more light and constricts to allow less

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21
Q

iris

A

round muscle that adjusts the size of the pupil (gives the eye color)

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22
Q

lens

A

clear structure that focuses light on the back of the eye

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23
Q

the retina:

cones

A

photoreceptors sensitive to wavelengths of light we perceive as colour; active in normal lighting conditions

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24
Q

the retina:

fovea

A

cone rich region in center of retina on which light is focused (highest amount of cones in this area) explains why objects in our direct line of sight are clear and anything around you is not as clear (seeing something in the corner of your eye)

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25
Q

the retina:

rods

A

photoreceptors on periphery of retina that are highly sensitive to low light levels, unlike cones which are responsible under good lighting conditions (responsible for peripheral vision, picking up movement from the corner of your eye)

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26
Q

dark adaptation

A

the process by which rods and cones gain sensitivity to low light levels

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27
Q

the optic nerve:

bipolar neurons

A

synapse onto photoreceptors

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28
Q

the optic nerve:

ganglion cells

A

long axon tracts that go to the brain, transmits signals from bipolar neurons to brain

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29
Q

the optic disc

A

area on retina lacking rods and cones (blind spot)

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30
Q

the optic nerve

A

axon tracts from ganglion cells leading to brain

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31
Q

trichromatic theory

A

maintains that colour vision is determined by three different cone types that are sensitive to short, medium, and long wavelength light

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32
Q

opponent process theory

A

states that we perceive colour in terms of opposite ends of the spectrum (red to green, yellow to blue, white to black)

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33
Q

optic chiasm

A

crossover point for optic nerve at midpoint of the brain (each eye has connections that are sent to the opposite and the same side of the eye)

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34
Q

lateral geniculate nucleus

A

region within the thalamus that directs visual information throughout the brain

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35
Q

feature detection cells

A

neurons that respond selectively based on specific aspects of a stimulus (e.g., angles and edges) as well as to specific regions of the visual field

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36
Q

ventral stream

A

extends from visual cortex to temporal lobe
–Responsible for object and face recognition
–Pareidolia (explains why we see faces in places where there aren’t actually any)
and prosopagnosia (brain damage unable to recognize someone’s face, there is less activity in the fusiform area than there should be)
–Fusiform face area: devoted to recognizing faces
–Perceptual constancy

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37
Q

greeble experiment

A

fusiform face area responsible for visual expertise
-after training the individuals to recognize which greeble goes into which group, it was easier to recognize and the fusiform area was more activated

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38
Q

perceptual constancy

A

the ability to perceive objects as having constant shape, size and colour despite changes in perspective

  • we can judge the angle of an object
  • ex: looking at a door when it’s closed, it’s a rectangle, even when the door opens and it is no longer a rectangle, we still perceive it as being a rectangle
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39
Q

lightness constancy

A

maintain perception under uneven illumination

-even if the light information may change, we don’t perceive it as a change in colour

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40
Q

dorsal stream

A

extends from visual cortex to the parietal lobe

–Responsible for depth and motion perception

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41
Q

binocular depth cues

A

distance cues that are based on the differing perspectives of both eyes

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42
Q

convergence

A

occurs when the eye muscles contract so that both eyes focus on a single object
–Ex: Fingertip to nose, closing your left eye vs closing your right eye

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43
Q

retinal disparity

A

the difference in relative position of an object as seen by both eyes
–Stereoscopic vision
-combining information from both eyes is what gives us the 3D perception of the world

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44
Q

monocular depth cues

A

these are depth cues that we can perceive with only one eye

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45
Q

accomodation

A

curving of lens to focus on nearby objects

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46
Q

motion parallax

A

used when surroundings are in motion (looks like your surroundings are in motion, objects that are further back tend to look like they’re moving slower)

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47
Q

pitch of a sound

A

perceptual experience of sound wave frequencies (high frequency sound: high pitch, short wave lengths)
-frequency range differs by species

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48
Q

loudness

A

perceptual experience of amplitude (high amplitude are louder than low amplitude waves

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49
Q

3 components of the outer ear

A

pinna (helps channel and direct sound into our auditory canals), auditory canal, eardrum (membrane that vibrates when breached by sound waves

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50
Q

3 bones of middle ear

A

ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes) eardrum is attached to these bones so these vibrate when the eardrum vibrates

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51
Q

component of the inner ear

A

cochlea (fluid filled cavity: converts the sound into a neural impulse)

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52
Q

place theory of hearing

A

how we perceive pitch is based on the location (place) along the basilar membrane that sound stimulates, high frequency sounds tend to stimulate hairs closer to the cochlea and low frequency sounds tend to stimulate hairs further from the cochlea

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53
Q

frequency theory

A

states the perception of pitch is related to the frequency at which the basilar membrane vibrates

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54
Q

volley principle

A

–Neurons fire in rapid succession

-one neuron cannot fire more than 1000 times per second but a group of neurons can

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55
Q

cochlear nucleus

A

crossover of auditory signals to contralateral hemisphere

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56
Q

medial geniculate nucleus

A

structure within thalamus responsible for routing of auditory information

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57
Q

primary auditory cortex

A

major perceptual center of the brain involved in perceiving what we hear (primary organization)
•Organized similar to the cochlea (tonotopic map

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58
Q

multimodal integration

A

Combining sensations from different modalities into single integrated perception
-Ex: experience of flavour, combination of taste and sense of smell

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59
Q

mcgurk effect

A

–Occurs in the midbrain by the superior (visual) and inferior (auditory) colliculi
-what we see can influence what we hear

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60
Q

sound localization

A

process of identifying where sounds come from
-if someone on your left says your name, the sound will hit your left ear slightly before and more intensely than your right ear
•Controlled by inferior colliculus

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61
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

detect pressure and touch

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62
Q

nociceptors

A

detect heat and pain

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63
Q

acuity

A

ability to discern to points of pressure

  • two point threshold test
  • more sensitive regions detect that there are two separate points of pressure being applied as opposed to less sensitive regions that cannot identify these two points
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64
Q

haptics/haptic perception

A

active, exploratory aspect of touch sensation and perception

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65
Q

tactile agnosia

A

a person is unable to recognize objects by their haptic perception, these people struggle to identify simple shapes by only touching them if they cannot see them

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66
Q

kinesthesis

A

is our sense of bodily motion and position

  • receptors for this sense are found in our joints
  • works in conjunction with haptics to grasp and move objects
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67
Q

nociception

A

the activity of the nerve pathways that respond to uncomfortable stimulation

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68
Q

gate-control theory

A

explains our experience of pain as an interaction between nerves that transmit pain messages and those that inhibit these messages

  • the cells in the spinal cord regulate how much pain actually reach our brain
  • stimulation from the small fibres makes us experience pain (nociceptors) and the large fibres help reduce pain (mechanoreceptors)
  • ex: rubbing your toe after stubbing it helps “close the gates”
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69
Q

empathy study

A

–Participants watched video of actor that they empathized with or did not empathize with
–Rated their pain to heat stimuli while watching actor experience similar pain
-participants reported the level of pain experienced and they reported greater experiences of pain when they had to empathize with the person in the video
-Participants could easily be biasing their behaviour

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70
Q

olfactory epithelium

A

thin layer of cells that are lined by sensory receptors called cilia

71
Q

what is the role of cilia

A

transmit transduced signal to olfactory bulb via the olfactory tract

72
Q

olfactory system

A

gives us our sense of smell

-80% of our sensation of food comes from this system

73
Q

consciousness

A

a person’s subjective awareness, including thoughts, perceptions, experiences of the world, and self-awareness

74
Q

circadian rythm

A

internally driven daily cycle of approximately 24 hours, affects psychological processes, determine when we feel hungry and when we are best able to concentrate during the day

75
Q

what 2 things keep us on a 24 hour cycle?

A

1) Entrainment: synchronization between biological rhythms and external cues (light, temperature, clock)
2) Endogenous rhythms: biological rhythms generated by our body that are independent of light
- people typically have a 24/25 hour sleep cycle even without sunlight

76
Q

beta waves

A

awake

77
Q

alpha waves

A

drowsy state; loss of attention

78
Q

explain what happens during stage 1 of our sleep cycle

A

breathing, heart rate and blood pressure decrease

79
Q

explain what happens in stage 2 of our sleep cycle

A

become less responsive to external stimuli; sporadic brain activity (useful for memory storage)
-approximately 20 mins

80
Q

explain what happens during stages 3-4 of our sleep cycle

A

brain activity slows; difficult to wake

81
Q

REM sleep

A

stage of sleep characterized by quickening brain waves, deep relaxation, inhibited body movement, and rapid eye movements (REM)

82
Q

how long is the average sleep cycle?

A

90-100 minutes

83
Q

later REM sleep cycles can be from ___-___ minutes long

A

40-60

84
Q

restore and repair hypothesis

A

the body needs to restore energy levels and repair any wear and tear on the body from the day’s activities
-this theory suggests that we sleep more after long hard days but that is not the case

85
Q

preserve and protect hypothesis

A

suggests that sleep preserves energy and protects the individual organism from harm
–Sleep differences between predator and prey species
-we tend to sleep when we are most at risk from predators

86
Q

sleep displacement

A

occurs when an individual is prevented from sleeping at the normal time
ex: jetlag

87
Q

manifest dream content

A

the images and story lines that we dream about

88
Q

latent content

A

the actual symbolic meaning of a dream built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges

89
Q

activation-synthesis hypothesis (dreams)

A

suggests that dreams arise from brain activity originating from bursts of excitatory messages arising from the brainstem
-dreams are entirely random

90
Q

why is activation-synthesis hypothesis an incomplete model of dreaming?

A

-patients with damage to their brainstem still dream, so this seems to be an incomplete model of dreaming

91
Q

problem-solving theory (dreams)

-fast forward playback

A

thoughts and concerns are continuous from waking to sleeping, and that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake
-dreams are not random but are for processing problems
fast forward playback: the cells that were active while we were learning new skills are active when we are asleep but in a fast forward kind of motion

92
Q

does REM sleep affect all memory?

A

–Affects learning of complex tasks and problems
–Late REM phases especially important for learning
-not all memory is affected by REM sleep
-learning more complicated tasks are associated with REM sleep

93
Q

onset insomnia

A

difficulty falling asleep

  • measured by your tiredness and not the amount of hours of sleep you get
  • affects 10% of the population
94
Q

maintenance insomnia

A

difficulty falling back asleep

95
Q

terminal insomnia

A

waking up too early

96
Q

primary insomnia

A

due to internal source (ex: worrying)

97
Q

secondary insomnia

A

result of other disorders (depression, back pain, drugs)

98
Q

nightmares

A

particularly vivid and disturbing dreams that occur during REM sleep
-nightmares are abnormal dreams, not everyone recalls them

99
Q

night terrors

A

intense bouts of panic and arousal that awaken the individual, typically in a heightened emotional state
-1% of adults and ⅙ % of children
•NREM sleep
•Intense panic and arousal

100
Q

sleep apnea

A

temporary inability to breathe during sleep
•Airway becomes obstructed
•Damage to medulla

101
Q

narcolepsy

A

-a disorder in which a person experiences extreme daytime sleepiness and even sleep attacks
•Few seconds to a few minutes
•Immediately into REM sleep
•Lack of brain cells that produce orexin

102
Q

hypnosis

A

a procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility

103
Q

what are the 3 kinds of hypnotic suggestions?

A
  • Ideomotor: actions to be performed
  • Challenge: actions not to be performed
  • Cognitive-perceptual: prompt remembering/forgetting or altered perceptions
104
Q

theories of hypnosis:

dissociation theory

A

explains hypnosis as a unique state in which consciousness is divided into two parts: an observer and a hidden observer
•Driving on “Autopilot”

105
Q

theories of hypnosis:

social-cognitive theory

A

emphasizes the degree to which beliefs and expectations contribute to increased suggestibility
•Conform to expectations

106
Q

restless leg syndrome

A

persistent feeling of discomfort in the legs and the urge to continuously shift them into different positions

107
Q

REM behavior disorder

A

act out dreams due to failure to inhibit motor signals

108
Q

somnambulism (sleep walking)

A

a disorder that involves wandering and performing other activities while asleep

109
Q

when might be a good time to use hypnosis?

A 
1) medical treatment
•Medical treatments
•Pain relief
2) Hypnosis originally used to recover memories
• Lead to recovery of false memories
-evidence cannot be used in court
110
Q

brain death

A

condition in which the brain, specifically including the brain stem, no
longer functions
•No potential for recovery

111
Q

coma

A

a state marked by complete loss of consciousness
•Body is still aside from minor twitches
•No pupillary response

112
Q

persistent vegetative state (PVS)

A

a state of minimal to no consciousness
•Eyes open but do not track movement
•Normal sleep cycles
•Best hope for recovery before 6 months
-Some PSV patients show signs of consciousness
•fMRI techniques suggest comprehension of commands and mental imagery
•Misdiagnosis of vegetative state

113
Q

minimally conscious state

A

disordered state of consciousness marked by the ability to show some behaviours that suggest partial consciousness, even if on an inconsistent basis
•behaviours beyond reflexes

114
Q

locked in syndrome

A

patient is aware and awake but, because of an inability to move, appears unconscious
•Diminished brain activity as conscious awareness decreases

115
Q

psychoactive drugs

A

substances that affect thinking, behaviour, perception, and emotion

116
Q

6 short term effects of psychoactive drugs

A
  • Agonistic or antagonistic effects
  • Amount of neurotransmitter released at synapse
  • Preventing reuptake
  • Blocking the receptor
  • Binding to the receptor in place of the neurotransmitter
  • Promote receptor formation/depletion
117
Q

nucleus accumbens

A

a prime area of activation when a person engages in pleasurable/rewarding behaviour

118
Q

3 long term effects of psychoactive drugs

A
  • tolerance
  • physical dependence
  • psychological dependence
119
Q

tolerance

A

when repeated use of a drug results in a need for a higher dose to get the intended effect
-more common in drugs that are ingested orally

120
Q

tolerance:

  • metabolic and cellular tolerance
  • Down regulation
A

–Metabolic and cellular tolerance: reducing the amount of drug that’s available in our blood stream
–Down regulation: changing the number of receptors available to be stimulated
-this is because cells like to maintain homeostasis

121
Q

physical dependence

A

the need to take a drug to ward off unpleasant physical withdrawal
-ex: frequent coffee drinkers might get headaches if they don’t have their coffee

122
Q

psychological dependence

A

the need to take a drug to ward off negative emotions
–No physical symptoms
-often people start doing drugs to get temporary relief

123
Q

what type of person is more likely to use and abuse drugs?

A

people with impulsive personality traits and people that start at a younger age

124
Q

context dependent overdose

A

this happens when the addict takes a drug in a different environment

125
Q

stimulants: (cocaine, amphetamines, ecstacy (MDMA))
- psychological effects
- chemical effects
- tolerance rate
- dependence rate

A

–Euphoria, increased energy, lowered inhibitions
–Increased dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine (mood, feelings of reward and energy levels)
–Tolerance develops quickly
–High risk of dependence

126
Q

long term effects of meth:

physical deterioration and cognitive deterioration

A

Physical deterioration:
•Hygiene is neglected
•Drug cocktail often includes ingredients such as hydrochloric acid and farm fertilizer
-people get easily addicted to meth
Cognitive deterioration:
•Structural abnormalities in cells of the frontal lobes: results in the difficulty of the executive functions of the frontal lobe (memory, attention)
•Users develop difficulties ignoring irrelevant thoughts
•E.g. Stroop test

127
Q

hallucinogens: (LSD, ketamine, DMT, psilocybin, salvia divinorum)
- psychological effects
- chemical effects
- tolerance rate
- dependence rate

A

–Experiences range from euphoria to fear, panic, paranoia
–Increased serotonin, blocks glutamate receptors
–Tolerance develops slowly
–Low risk of dependence

128
Q

marijuana:

  • psychological effects
  • chemical effects
  • tolerance rate
  • dependence rate
A

–Euphoria, relaxation, distorted sensory experiences, paranoia
–THC (tetrahydrocannabinol) mimics brain chemicals (anandamide) involved in sleep and memory by binding to cannabinoid receptors
-anandamide: involved in sleep cycle, mood, appetite
–Tolerance develops slowly
–Low risk of dependence

129
Q

marijuana effects on the brain

A

–Worse memory(short term and long term), attention, and decision-making than controls, motor control
–Altered brain activity compared to controls even when successfully completing tasks
–Distribution of cannabinoid receptors in the brain correspond to cognitive deficits

130
Q

opiates: (morphine, heroin, fentanyl, oxycodone, codeine, opium)
- psychological effects
- chemical effects
- tolerance rate
- dependence rate

A

–Intense euphoria, pain relief
–Stimulate endorphin receptors: pain relief
–Tolerance develops quickly
–Very high risk of dependence

131
Q

what can be taken as a treatment for opiate dependence?

A

Methadone as a treatment: takes the edge off the withdrawal symptoms without getting that high

132
Q

sedatives ‘downers’: (barbiturates & benzodiazepines)

  • psychological effects
  • chemical effects
  • tolerance rate
  • dependence rate
A

–Drowsiness, relaxation, sleep
–Increase GABA activity
–Tolerance develops quickly
–High risk of dependence

133
Q

what’s the difference between barbiturates and benzodiazepines?

A

Barbiturates: fatal overdose, earlier form of sedatives, people take this to try and relax, to get sleep (disrupts REM sleep)
Benzodiazepines: high abuse potential, but they don’t have the same potential of fatal overdose, act on our GABA system, reduces feelings of anxiety and panic

134
Q

alcohol:

  • psychological effects
  • chemical effects
  • tolerance rate
  • dependence rate
A

–Euphoria, relaxation, lowered inhibitions
–Increase GABA activity(depress the central nervous system, impairment in balance and motor coordination), then stimulates endorphin and dopamine receptors
-inhibits the frontal lobes (inhibition lowered)
–Tolerance develops gradually
–Moderate-high risk of dependence

135
Q

biphasic effect of alcohol

A

2 phases of alcohol in the body (stimulant and depressant)

  • Phase 1: initial increase in blood alcohol content
  • Phase 2: after about .5%, people start to feel the depressing effects (point of diminishing returns)
136
Q

Learning

A

is a process by which behaviour or knowledge changes as a result of experience

137
Q

cognitive vs associative learning

A

–Cognitive learning: reading, listening, and taking tests to acquire new knowledge
–Associative learning: pairing of stimuli (pairing holidays with certain smells and heights)

138
Q

classical conditioning

A

learning that occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response that was originally caused by another stimulus

  • all species use classical conditioning to learn
  • foundation of learning
  • very effective
139
Q

Hebb’s rule

A

“cells that fire together wire together” when a weak connection between neurons is stimulated at the same time as a strong connection, the weak connection is strengthened

140
Q

acquisition phase

A

initial phase of learning in which a response is established

  • neutral stimulus (NS) is paired with unconditioned response (US)
  • they need to be paired consistently enough so that the tone is as often predicted as the food
141
Q

extinction phase

A

the loss or weakening of a CR when a CS and US no longer occur together

142
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

reoccurrence of a previously extinguished response

-previous learning is never gone, just become less potent-can be reactivated

143
Q

generalization

A

process in which a response that originally occurs to a specific stimulus also occurs to a different, though similar stimulus

144
Q

discrimination

A

occurs when an organism learns to respond to one original stimulus but not to a new stimuli similar to the original stimulus

145
Q

conditioned emotional responses

A

consists of emotional and physiological responses that develop to a specific type of object or situation

146
Q

preparedness

A

refers to the biological predisposition to rapidly learn a response to a particular class of stimuli

147
Q

conditioned taste adversion

A

the acquired dislike or disgust of a food or drink because it was paired with illness
•Often learned in one trial
•New foods are more prone to conditioned taste aversion

148
Q

evaluative conditioning

A

when one stimulus takes on the emotional ‘valence’(attractiveness) of other stimuli
-ex: propaganda

149
Q

third person effect of evaluative conditioning

A

people assume that these advertisements are more effective in influencing other people other than themselves

  • is learning occurring in our subconscious awareness?
  • most likely
150
Q

higher order association

A

When a CS (conditioned stimulus) functions as though it were a UCS (unconditioned stimulus)
ex: using the bell that was conditioned to make the dog salivate and pairing it with a red light, the red light becoming a conditioned stimulus that results in the same conditioned response

151
Q

operant conditioning

A

is a type of learning in which behaviour is determined by consequences

  • individual operates on the environment before the behavior occurs
  • involves voluntary actions (speaking, movements)
  • reinforcement is a consequence of the behavior (reinforcing or punishing)
152
Q

Edward Thorndike: puzzle boxes with cats

A

measured how long it took cats to escape from the puzzle boxes
-after repeated trials the cats were able to escape more rapidly

153
Q

Edward Thorndike: Law of effect

A

Responses followed by satisfaction will occur again; those not followed by satisfaction will become less likely

154
Q

B.F. Skinner: coined operant conditioning

A

used operant boxes (Skinner boxes) an area where the stimulus can be presented to an animal and the animal can make a choice

155
Q

reinforcement

A

a process in which an event or stimulus (reinforcer) that follows a response increases the likelihood of that response occurring again

156
Q

punishment

A

a process in which an event or stimulus (punisher) decreases the future probability of a response

157
Q

primary reinforcer

A

consist of reinforcing stimuli that satisfy basic motivational needs (ex: food)

158
Q

secondary reinforcer

A

consist of reinforcing stimuli that acquire their value through learning (ex: money)

159
Q

dopamine rich structure within our basal ganglia associated with rewards and reinforcement

A

nucleus accumbens

160
Q

negative reinforcement: avoidance learning

A

removing the possibility of a stimulus occurring (taking a detour to avoid traffic)

161
Q

negative reinforcement: escape learning

A

occurs if a response removes a stimulus that is already present (being exposed to loud music and covering your ears)

162
Q

the effectiveness of a punishment depends on what 6 things?

A
  • Being understood
  • Severity
  • Initial punishment level: start out high
  • Contiguity: not waiting too long, need to be closely related in time
  • Consistency
  • Showing appropriate behaviours
163
Q

discriminative stimulus

A

is a cue or event that indicates a response, that if made, will be reinforced
-Delayed reinforcement reduces strength of stimulus-response pairing

164
Q

shaping

A

a procedure in which a specific operant response is created by reinforcing successive approximations of that response

  • gradually reinforcing behaviours that resemble the wanted behavior
  • step-by-step
165
Q

applied behavior analysis

A

-closely observing and reinforcing behaviours
•Used with developmental conditions (e.g., autism)
•Used to shape desirable behaviours

166
Q

schedules of reinforcement

A

rules that determine when reinforcement is available

167
Q

continuous reinforcement

A

occurs when every response made results in reinforcement

•Vending machines

168
Q

partial (intermittent) reinforcement

A

occurs when only a certain number of responses are rewarded, or a certain amount of time must pass before reinforcement is available
-VLT’s

169
Q

fixed ratio schedule

A

reinforcement is delivered adger a specific number of responses have been completed

170
Q

fixed interval schedule

A

reinforces the first response occurring after a set amount of time passes
-more responses as the time of reward approaches

171
Q

variable interval schedule

A

the first response is reinforced following a variable amount of time

  • fluctuation in the amount of time
  • ex: meteor shower
172
Q

variable ratio schedule

A

the number of responses required to receive reinforcement varies according to an average

  • very brief pauses after reinforcement
  • very effective because it’s unknown when the reward is coming but it’s known that there is a possibility that it is there
173
Q

partial reinforcement effect

A

organisms conditioned under partial reinforcement resist extinction longer than those under continuous reinforcement
–Problem gambling

174
Q

__________ can form when it is not clear what behavior led to the reward (ex: athletes that have routines before a game)

A

superstitions

PSYC 1200 (5 decks)

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