chapter 9-11 Flashcards

1
Q

anthropometics (Sir Francis Galton)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

intelligence

A

the ability to think, understand, reason, and adapt to overcome obstacles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

mental age

A

the average intellectual ability score for children of a specific age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the average mental age of a 7 year old child? what would be considered being behind?

A

7 would be average, anything under 7 would be behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Standford-Binet test (Lewis Terman)

A

a test intended to measure innate (genetic) intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

intelligence quotient

A
  • a measure in which the mental age of an individual is divided by the person’s chronological age and then multiplied by 100
  • breaks down with age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the pros and the cons of using IQ as a method of intelligence testing?

A
  • pro: reinforced the view that intelligence is genetic, gives you a permanent score
  • con: method assumes that intelligence is always increasing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Wechsler adult intelligence scale (WAIS)

A

the most commonly used intelligence most commonly used in adolescents and adults

  • deviation IQ: compares a person’s IQ with the average score of that age group
  • separated into general ability index and cognitive proficiency index
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the general ability index?

A

includes the verbal comprehension index (similarities, vocabulary, information) and the perceptual reasoning index (block design, matrix reasoning, visual puzzles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the cognitive proficiency index?

A

includes the working memory index (digit span, arithmetic) and the perceptual speed index (symbol search, coding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Raven’s progressive matrices

A

an intelligence test that emphasizes problems that are intended not to be bound to a particular language or culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the pros of Raven’s progressive matrices intelligence test?

A
  • free from culture bias
  • scores correlate with WAIS
  • other tests had more bias, this was a good alternative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

problems with the racial superiority interpretation

A
  • culturally biased test content
  • culturally processed test process
  • stereotype threat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the stereotype threat?

A

occurs when negative stereotypes about a group cause group members to under-perform on ability tests

  • ex: if a black person is reminded that they are often scored more poorly, they are more likely to do worse on the test, giving neutral instructions reduces this risk
  • people are not necessarily consciously aware of this
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

entity theory

A

the belief that intelligence is a fixed a characteristic and relatively difficult (or impossible ) to change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

incremental theory

A

the belief that intelligence can be shaped by experiences, practice, and effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

people who held the ______ theory were more likely to give up while facing problems which resulted in failure

A

entity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

people who held the ______ theory were more persistent and showed an improvement in intelligence over time

A

incremental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Spearman’s general intelligence factor ‘g’

A

thought to represent a person’s “mental energy”, ability to learn, reason, and solve problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

does spearman’s general intelligence factor ‘g’ tell us the whole story?

A

no, there is the case of savants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a savant?

A

individuals with low mental capacity in most domains but extraordinary abilities in other specific areas such as music, mathematics, or art

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False?

a person can develop savant abilities after having suffered a brain injury

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

50% of savants often have which mental disability?

A

autism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

spearman’s two factor model

A

“g”: general , overarching intelligence

“s”: specific-level, skill based intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Thurstone re-examined spearman’s general intelligence tests and found ______________

A

7 primary mental abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the hierarchical model of intelligence?

A

lower level abilities (like “s” and those proposed by Thurman) are nested within general intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence

A

intelligence consists of 3 domains:

  1. analytical: verbal, mathematical, problem-solving
  2. practical: ability to address real world problems
  3. creative: ability to create new ideas to solve problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Gardener’s multiple intelligences model

A
  • 8 different forms of intelligence exists
  • lead to the idea of learning styles: the hypothesis that individuals are fundamentally different in how they best acquire information (ex: visual learners)
  • very little scientific support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

fluid intelligence

A

a type of intelligence that is used to adapt to new situations and solve new problems without relying on previous knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

crystallized intelligence

A

a form of intelligence that relies on extensive experience and knowledge and, therefore, tends to be relatively stable and robust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

type of intelligence that peaks over adulthood and decreases over time

A

fluid intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

type of intelligence that progresses over time rather than decreasing with age

A

crystallized intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

brain size is a good measure of intellectual ability

True or False?
explain.

A

false, -ex: women’s brains are often smaller than men’s but there’s no difference in intellectual ability
-the amount of tissue in a person’s cortex is what makes a difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

___% of the variability in intelligence can be amounted to the amount of “folds” in someone’s brain

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

gyri

A

ridges of the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

number and size of gyri are greater in species with more __________

A

complex cognitive abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the proof that there are other ways of generating complex cognitive process other than by the size of the gyri?

A

avian brains lack convulsions but they are still capable of complex cognition
-relative brain size is the other factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are 3 things that allow complex cognitive processes?

A
  • relative brain size
  • neuron density
  • organization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which animal has the biggest relative brain size?

A

humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what do twin and adoption studies show about biological influences on intelligence?

A

as genetic relatedness increases, so does the similarity of IQ’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are 2 environmental influences on intelligence?

A
  • health/nutrition (healthy students attend school more frequently)
  • income (high income households have better access to high quality schools, low income households are more likely to have stressors that distract learning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Flynn effect

A

the steady population increases in intelligence test score over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

developmental psychology

A

-the study of change and stability of human physical, cognitive, social, and behavioral characteristics across the lifespan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

early development influences later behaviours

True or False?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

methods for measuring developmental trends

cross-sectional design

A

used to measure and compare samples of people at different ages at a given point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the cons of cross-sectional design?

A
  • risk of cohort effects: consequences of being born at a specific moment in time/year/generation.
  • a number of different factors can influence physical and mental development and while doing a cross-sectional study, the older people being studied would not have gone through the same things as the younger people which can bias the results in many ways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

methods for measuring developmental trends

longitudinal design

A

follows the development of the same set of individuals through time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the cons of longitudinal design?

A
  • long and costly

- risk of attrition: you may lose participants as they drop out or die during the study so the same size diminishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

germinal stage

A

first stage of prenatal development and spans from conception to 2 weeks beyond fertilization
-cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

embryonic stage

A
  • weeks 2 through 8

- embryo starts to develop major physical structures such as the heart, lungs, arms, hands, feet, and nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

fetal stage

A
  • weeks 8 through birth
  • skeletal, organ, and nervous systems become more developed and specialized
  • fetus begins to move, develops sleep schedules, and responds to external stimuli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

explain the development of the fetal brain by the 4th week of pregnancy

A

the fetal brain begin to divide between forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

explain the development of the fetal brain by the 11th week of pregnancy

A

the fetal brain differentiates between hemispheres, cerebellum, and brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what happens to the fetal brain during the final month of pregnancy?

A

myelination of the brain occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

teratogen

A

a substance, such as a drug, that is capable of producing physical defects to the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome

A

involves abnormalities in mental functioning, growth, and facial development in the offspring of women who consume alcohol during the pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

smoking increases the risks of _______, _______, and _______ during pregnancy

A

miscarriage, death, premature birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

FAS children are often born __% underweight

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

describe the sensory awareness of a child that is 4 months into the gestation period

A

the brain starts receiving signals from the eyes and the ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

describe the sensory awareness of a child that is 7-8 months into the gestation period

A

fetus is actively listening to external stimuli

-this is why babies prefer maternally associated sounds immediately after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the pacifier method?

A
  • a study that had the mothers read a dr Seuss book 6 weeks prior to their due date
  • at birth the babies were given a pacifier that could be used to control a tape recording controlling an audio version of books
  • the babies could quickly learn to continue playing auditory stimuli that they wanted to continue playing, they would ‘suck’ more at dr Seuss stories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how does the sound of a baby’s cry prove that the fetus is listening to external stimuli during gestation period?

A

the baby cries in an accent indicating that it is attending to the language structure of the surrounding environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

explain the vision of a child at birth, 2 months, 4 months, and 6-12 months

A

Can see 12-15 inches at birth
-immediately prefer to look at face-like stimuli

Colour vision develops at around 2 months

Depth perception develops around 4 months

20/20 by 6-12 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

explain a child’s smell and taste at birth

A
  • cringe at foul odors
  • innate preference for sweet tastes and aversion to sour and bitter tastes
  • discriminate mother’s breast milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

reflexes

A

Involuntary muscular reactions to specific types of stimulation
-Provide infants with a basic set of responses for feeding and interacting with caregivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

rooting reflex

A

elicited by stimulation to the corners of the mouth, which causes infants to orient themselves towards the stimulation and make sucking motions. the rooting reflex helps the child begin feeding immediately after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

moro reflex

A

also known as the “startle: reflex, occurs when infants lose support of their head. infants grimace and reach their arms outward and then inward as a hugging motion. this may be a protective reflex that allows the infant to hold on to the mother when support is suddenly lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

grasping reflex

A

elicited by stimulating the infants palm. the infant’s grasp is remarkably strong and facilitates safely holding onto one’s caregiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

unlike reflexes, motor skills depend on ______

A

practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

explain motor development in a child’s brain in its first year of life

A

-cerebral cortex thickens, first in sensory and motor areas, then perceptual areas, and even in ‘higher order’ thinking areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

synaptogenesis

A

the forming of new synaptic connections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

synaptic pruning

A

the loss of weak nerve cell connections

-this is to improve neural efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Jean Piaget

cognitive development

A

the study of changing abilities and processes of memory, thought, and reasoning that occur throughout the life span

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Jean Piaget believed that knowledge is accumulated by which 2 processes? explain both and give examples

A

1) Assimilation: occurs when new information is added but interpreted based on previous knowledge
- ex: having a certain schema of what a horse is until it’s modified
2) Accommodation: occurs when belief structures are modified based on experience
- ex: calling a zebra a horse until they are differentiated into different species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

according to Jean Piaget, cognition develops through 4 stages. What are these stages?

A
  • sensorimotor
  • preoperational
  • concrete operational
  • formal operational
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

sensorimotor stage (0-2 years)

A

the period in which childrens’ thinking and understanding about the world is based on sensory experiences and physical actions they perform on objects
(Infants thinking and exploration of the world is based on their immediate interactions (things that are in their current reach) unlike adults that can imagine things or people that are not currently in their environment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

object permanence

A

the ability to understand that objects still exist even when they cannot be seen or touched

  • this is a major milestone of the sensorimotor stage
  • infants struggle with A-not-B errors until the end of the stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

preoperational stage (2-7 years)

A

Characterized by understanding of symbols, pretend play, and mastery of the concept of conservation

  • by the end of this stage, children will no longer make scale errors
  • struggle with perspective taking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

conservation

A

The knowledge that the quantity or amount of an object is not related to the physical arrangement and appearance of that object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

concrete operational stage (7-11 years)

A

is when children develop skills in using and manipulating numbers, as well as logical thinking

  • during this stage, children begin to understand transitivity (ex: if A>B and B>C, then A>C)
  • still struggle with more abstract thinking (ex: inability to mentally represent alternate realities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Formal operational stage (11-adulthood)

A

Involves the development of advanced cognitive processes such as abstract reasoning and hypothetical thinking

  • scientific thinking (ex: gathering evidence and testing possibilities)
  • shift from learning my trial and error to deductive reasoning and simulating potential outcomes before acting
  • metacognition (thinking about their thoughts)
82
Q

core knowledge hypothesis

A

Is a view on development that proposes that infants have inborn abilities for understanding some key aspects of their environment

83
Q

what is the evidence that Piaget underestimated the cognitive abilities of infants (i.e. habituation dishabituation method)

A
  • habituation: a decrease in responding with repeated exposure to an event
  • dishabituation: an increase in responsiveness with the presentation of a new stimulus
84
Q

give an example of the violation of expectation paradigm

A

Ex: when in the magic trick, there is expected to be 2 teddy bears behind the screen but there is only one

85
Q

Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development

A

Development is ideal when a child attempts skills and activities that are just beyond what he or she can do alone, but has guidance from adults who are attentive to his or her progress

86
Q

scaffolding

A

The approach to teaching in which the teacher matches guidance to the learner’s needs
-ex: spotter in weight lifting

87
Q

attachment

A

An enduring emotional bond formed between individuals

88
Q

explain Harry Harlow’s unethical monkey experiment

A
  • monkeys were put in a room with two fake mothers, one made of cloth and one made of wire
  • Monkey infants seek out cloth ‘mother’ for comfort rather than wire ‘mother’ that fed them
89
Q

what is the ‘strange situation’

A

1) child plays in a room with the caregiver and a stranger present
2) caregiver leaves room momentarily
3) Behavior of child categorized during caregiver’s absence and upon return

90
Q

secure attachment

A
  • child may or may not cry during caregiver’s absence

- seeks contact upon return

91
Q

resistant insecure attachment

A
  • child is upset when caregiver leaves

- child is angry at caregiver upon return

92
Q

avoidant insecure attachment

A
  • child is not upset when caregiver leaves

- does not seek contact upon caregiver’s return

93
Q

disorganized insecure attachment

A
  • child does not have consistent behavior when caregiver leaves or returns
  • child may freeze or seem uncertain of what to do
94
Q

which form of attachment is related to better social skills/romantic relationships later on in life?

A

secure attachment

95
Q

what is self-awareness? When does it emerge?

A

The ability to recognize one’s individuality

-18-24 months

96
Q

what is the mirror mark test?

A

a child is marked with something (paint or sticker) where they could only see that mark if they looked at themselves in the mirror, they must remove it (this proves that they know what they look like)

97
Q

egocentric

A

world is interpreted and perceived in terms of one’s own perspective

98
Q

what is theory of mind? when does this ability emerge?

A

The ability to recognize that the thoughts, beliefs, and expectations of others are distinct from one’s own
-emerges at approximately 4 years old

99
Q

what are false belief tasks?

A

ex: Sally Ann test: showing a comic to a child, the child is supposed to take the perspective of sally, if they are sally, they have to know that sally does not know where the marble is so she will look in the basket

100
Q

instrumental helping

A

providing practical assistance

101
Q

empathetic helping

A

providing help to make someone feel better

102
Q

attachment behavioural system

A

psychobiological drive to meet one’s own need for security

103
Q

caregiving behavioural system

A

psychobiological drive focused on meeting the needs of others

104
Q

Attachment system is _______ and tends to _______ the caregiving system

A

primary, override

105
Q

Parenting: conditional approaches

A

Sole use of operant techniques for adjusting children’s behaviours

  • behaviour can be dependent on reward
  • increases introjection
106
Q

what is introjection?

A

Internalization of the conditional regard of significant others (i.e., pressure to do well)

107
Q

inductive discipline

A

Explaining the consequences of a child’s actions on other people

108
Q

the ________ stimulates the release of testosterone and estrogen which creates intense and volatile emotions

A

hypothalamus

109
Q

cognitive reframing

A

Learning to look at our experiences through a different ‘frame’
-one of the most powerful strategies

110
Q

ability to delay gratification

A

Putting off immediate temptations in order to focus on longer-term goals
-children that are better at this at a young age tend to have a better life outcome

111
Q

identity

A

A self-image and a perception of one’s unique and individual characteristics

  • personal qualities
  • social qualities
  • future goals
112
Q

role confusion

A

Occurs when there is conflict between internal forces of the self and external forces of society

113
Q

adolescence identity crisis

A

Curiosity, questioning, and exploration of different identities

114
Q

What is a plausible explanation why adolescents tend to take more risks?

A

Ongoing changes in prefrontal cortex (myelination, synaptic pruning) during adolescence

  • region involved in impulse control, mood, planning, organizing, and reasoning
  • adolescents much more likely to make risky decisions, especially with peers
  • risk-taking also depends on temperamental factors (people who are more extroverted tend to be more susceptible to the feeling of reward when taking risks)
115
Q

Kohlberg’s moral development

A

Moral reasoning progresses through stages, each more adequate at responding to moral dilemmas

116
Q

what is the trolley problem?

A

A trolley is hurtling down the tracks towards a group of five unsuspecting people. You are standing next to a lever that, if pulled, would direct the trolley onto another track, thereby saving the five individuals. However, on the second track stands a single, unsuspecting person, who would be struck by the diverted trolley.

117
Q

what is preconventional morality and how can it be applied to the trolley problem?

A

Characterized by self-interest in seeking or avoiding punishment
-considered a very basic and egocentric form of moral reasoning (often used by children)

Applied to trolley problem:
-“I would not flip the trolley track switch because I would get in trouble”

118
Q

what is conventional morality and how can it be applied to the trolley problem?

A

Regards social conventions and rules as guides for appropriate moral behaviour
-directives from parents, teachers, and the law are used as guidelines for moral behaviour (often used by adults)

Applied to trolley problem:
-“I would not flip the switch. It is illegal to kill, and if I willfully intervened I would have probably violated the law”

119
Q

what is postconventional morality and how can it be applied to the trolley problem?

A
  • considers rules and laws as relative
  • right and wrong are determined by more abstract principles of justice and rights

Applied to trolley problem:
“I would flip the switch. The value of five lives exceeds that of one, so saving them is the right thing to do even if it means I am killing one person who would have otherwise not died”

120
Q

social intuitionist model

A

Suggests we rationalize our gut instincts, rather than using reason to reach the best conclusion

121
Q

what is moral dumbfounding? give examples

A

Dogmatic insistence on a moral judgment for which no good reasons can be given
-ex: ripping up a Canadian flag or eating your dog if he gets hit by a car and dies

122
Q

Erikson’s adult stages of psychosocial development

Young adulthood (18-40)

A

-major challenge is intimacy versus isolation

  • separate from parents
  • work on intimate relationships
  • failure can result in isolation
123
Q

Erikson’s adult stages of psychosocial development

Adulthood (40-65)

A
  • major challenge is generativity versus stagnation

- attempting to produce something of value (ex: work or family)

124
Q

Erikson’s adult stages of psychosocial development

Aging (65+)

A
  • major challenge is ego integrity versus despair

- reflect on fulfillment of life (or not

125
Q

Is Erikson’s adult stages of psychosocial development useful?

A

This theory is useful, but not a lot of empirical support that these stages actually exist (more of a general guide of challenges that people face in their adult life)

126
Q

Marriage is associated with ________ and ________

A

longer life and happiness

127
Q

there is a __% divorce rate in Canada

A

40

128
Q

Gottman’s four horsemen of the apocolypse

A
  • 4 traits that if you find in a relationship, you can predict that it will fail in the future
    1) criticism
    2) contempt
    3) defensiveness
    4) stonewalling
129
Q

explain how criticism can be useful in a relationship

A

-can be good in a relationship if it is constructive, but is a problem when people start to always blame the other person

130
Q

explain how defensiveness can be useful in a relationship

A
  • refuse to take responsibility and accuse the other person of also doing things wrong
  • better approach is to take responsibility of at least part of the conflict
131
Q

explain how contempt can be useful in a relationship

A
  • when partners start to feel superior to another in one way
  • sarcastic comments, eye rolling (most damaging predictions of marriage failure)
  • trying to see things from the other persons point of view is helpful
132
Q

explain how stonewalling can be useful in a relationship

A
  • when someone emotionally shuts out the other person
  • refuses to respond to the other partner
  • people do this because they feel emotionally overwhelmed
  • honesty is the best aid
133
Q

All memory systems decline with age

True or False?

A

False. Crystalized and semantic memories are largely unaffected with age
-ex: if you get older adults to study a list of words and present them with a test list, they are just as accurate as younger people

134
Q

What are 4 things that change in cognitive behaviour as we age?

A
  • some memory systems decline
  • decision-making becomes more conservative
  • brain exhibits reduced plasticity (use it or lose it)
  • positive emotions increase with age
135
Q

younger subject tend to recall all 3 categories (positive, negative, neutral) equally, as older subject tend to bias _______ information

A

positive

136
Q

dementia

A

Mild to severe disruption of mental functioning resulting in memory loss, disorientation, poor judgment, and decision making

137
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

A form of dementia

-degenerative and terminal condition resulting in severe damage to the entire brain

138
Q

__% of people over the age of __ have some sort of dementia

A

14, 71

139
Q

what is thought to be the main cause of brain damage in Alzheimer’s patients?

A
  • neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques

- these affect how our brain is able to transmit singals

140
Q

motivation

A

Concerns the physiological and psychological processes underlying the initiation of behaviors that direct organisms toward specific goals

141
Q

drives

A

The physiological triggers that tell us we may be deprived of something and cause us to seek out what is needed, such as food

142
Q

incentives

A

Stimuli we seek to reduce the drives such as social approval and companionship, food, water, and other needs

143
Q

satiation

A

The point in a meal when we are no longer motivated to eat

144
Q

the _______ hypothalamus can act as an “on switch” for our eating behavior and our _______ hypothalamus acts as our “off switch”

A

lateral, ventromedial

145
Q

damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus often results in _______

A

obesity

146
Q

the lateral hypothalamus can be inhibited by the ___________

A

paraventricular nucleus

147
Q

glucose

A

A sugar that serves as a primary energy source for the brain and the rest of the body

148
Q

insulin

A

Hormone secreted by the pancreas which helps cells absorb glucose for future use

149
Q
  • the influx of ______ in our blood causes a release of ______
  • as ______ rises, it has the psychological effect of reducing hunger, once all the ______ is absorbed, we feel hunger again
A

glucose, insulin, insulin, glucose

150
Q

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

A

Released by neurons as intestines expand

151
Q

what is the appetizer effect?

A
  • classical conditioning
  • any cue that predicts that food is coming will act as a conditioned stimulus
  • food acts as a stimulus for more food
152
Q

unit bias

A

The tendency to assume that the unit of sale of portioning is an appropriate amount to consume

153
Q

what was the conclusion of the bottomless bowl experiment?

A

people ate on average 70% more when getting the bottomless bowl condition
-these people didn’t feel as if they ate more

154
Q

what is the delboeuf illusion?

A

how the portion of food is presented

-drawing people’s attention to this illusion, diminishes this illusion

155
Q

what are the three main social factors when it comes to eating?

A

1) Social facilitation
- eating more (you tend to stay at the table longer when you’re with people

2) Impression management
- eating less (some people try to control their eating behaviours because they don't want to be judged)

3) Modeling 
- eating whatever they eat
- conforming to social setting (Ex: second helpings)
156
Q

obesity

A

A disorder of positive energy balance, in which energy intake exceeds energy expenditure

157
Q

what are 4 things that facilitate obesity?

A
  • Food diversity
  • abundance of energy rich foods
  • cost of healthy alternatives
  • convenience of unhealthy options
158
Q

anorexia nervosa

A

Eating disorder that involves

1) Self-starvation
2) Intense fear of weight gain
3) Distorted perception of body image
4) Denial of serious consequences of severely low weight
159
Q

bulimia nervosa

A

Eating disorder characterized by periods of

1) Food deprivation
2) Binge-eating
3) Purging - also characterized by impulsiveness and recognition of disturbing behaviour
160
Q

what are often the causes of eating disorders like anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?

A

combination of stress and psychological problems

161
Q

libido

A

The motivation for sexual activity and pleasure

162
Q

are there gender differences in libido?

A

Yes, men tend to get sexually aroused easier

-females are more choosy, we only have a limited amount of eggs we can produce, unlike men

163
Q

Kinsey reports (1938, 1952)

A
  • comprehensively documented male/female sexual behaviours

- methods were poor by modern standards

164
Q

kinsey scale

A

Heterosexuality and homosexuality described along a continuum

165
Q

what are the cons of the kinsey scale?

A

Generalized with limited samples

  • mostly used prisoners and prostitutes
  • sex offenders as well and didn’t report them to the police
166
Q

sexual response cycle

A

The phases of physiological change during sexual activity, which comprises four primary stages

1) Excitement
2) Plateau
3) Orgasm
4) Resolution
- refractory period
167
Q

according to Meston and Buss’ interviews, what are 4 main things that motivate college student to have sex?

A

1) Physical reasons
2) Help attain a goal
3) Emotional reasons
4) Because of insecurities

168
Q

according to Mesont and Buss’ interviews, non-college populations had different reasons for engaging in sexual activity, what are they?

A

-nurturance, stress relief, having childre

169
Q

sexual orientation

A

A consistent preference for sexual relations with members of the opposite sex, same sex, or either sex

170
Q

what are 3 proposed explanations to sexual orientation?

A
  • Freud (1905): domineering mother, weak father
  • Ellis and Ames (1987): early seduction (from older siblings or play mates)
  • More recently : choice vs. biology
171
Q

what is the evidence in the male brain that differs heterosexual from homosexual men? Is this information sufficient?

A

Some evidence of a smaller hypothalamus in homosexual men compared to heterosexual

  • results have been difficult to replicate
  • pattern of brain activation may be more important
172
Q

Higher genetic correlations between ______ twins than ______ twins for gay males

A

identical, fraternal

173
Q

there is little evidence that homosexuality is influenced by ______

A

culture, (Ex: going to a same sex school or having homosexual parents)

174
Q

gender roles

A

The accepted attitudes and behaviors of males and females in a given society
-these can be flexible over time, ex: it is more common for men and women to live in the same household before marriage

175
Q

sexual scripts

A

The set of rules and assumptions about the sexual behaviours of males and females
-ex: men are responsible for initiating romantic encounters

176
Q

sex guilt

A

Negative emotional feelings for having violated culturally accepts standards of appropriate sexual behaviour
-ex: having sex before marriage in a very conservative culture

177
Q

what is the need to belong? Is this essential to our survival?

A

The motivation to maintain relationships that involve pleasant feelings such as warmth, affection, appreciations, and mutual concern for each person’s well-being

  • is said to be as important as food or water
  • more effective when the relationship is permanent rather than the quantity of relationships
  • often the reason why people stay in abusive relationships even when they have a strong support system
178
Q

passionate love

A

Associated with a physical and emotional longing for the other person
-oxytocin and dopamine reward

179
Q

companionate love

A

Related to tenderness and affection to a person with which one shares their life
-better predictor of long term stability in a relationship

180
Q

commitment depends largely on what 3 things?

A
  • strength of initial attraction
  • number of barriers to leaving a relationship
  • availability of alternatives
181
Q

achievement motivation

A

The drive to perform at high levels and accomplish significant goals

182
Q

approach goals

A

Enjoyable and pleasant incentives that we are drawn toward

-ex: praise and financial awards

183
Q

avoidance goals

A

Unpleasant outcomes such as shame, embarrassment, or emotional pain, which we try to avoid

184
Q

procrastination is more likely when having what kind of goals?

A

avoidance goals

185
Q

self-determination theory

A

Ability to achieve one’s goals and attain psychological well-being is influenced by the degree to which one is in control of the behaviours necessary to achieve these goals

186
Q

self-efficacy

A

An individual’s confidence that he or she can plan and execute a course of action in order to solve a problem

187
Q

intrinsic motivation

A

Motives that reflect the desire to understand or overcome a challenge

  • the genuine desire to master a task just for the sake of doing it
  • the activity itself is the reward
188
Q

extrinsic motivation

A

Motives that are geared toward gaining rewards or public recognition

189
Q

over-justification effect

A

A decrease in intrinsic motivation with the delivery of a reward

190
Q

what is contract year syndrome?

A
  • players performed significantly better in their contract year
  • the year after the contract was secure, their performance showed a large decrease
191
Q

3 stages of emotion

A
  • subjective thought and experience
  • accompanying patterns of physical arousal
  • characteristic behavioural expressions
192
Q

physiology of emotion

the initial response

A

Early brain activity ‘tags’ potentially important stimuli for further processing

  • autonomic nervous system comes into play
  • continual communication between amygdala, sensory/motor areas, and frontal lobes
193
Q

James-Lang theory of emotion

A

Physiological reactions to stimuli precede and give rise to the emotional experience

194
Q

cannon-bard theory of emotion

A

Brain first generates subjective emotional feelings, which then trigger physiological responses almost simultaneously

195
Q

facial feedback hypothesis

A

Suggests our emotional expressions can influence our subjective emotional states

  • participants who were forced to smile reported elevated happiness, unlike participants forced to pout
  • This hypothesis is limited to feelings of happiness and sadness
  • lacks generalizability
196
Q

two-factor theory of emotion

A

It is our interpretation of why we are aroused that creates the emotional experience

197
Q

misattribution of arousal

A

The process by which people make a mistake in assuming what is causing them to feel aroused

198
Q

emotional dialects

A

Variations across cultures in how common emotions are expressed

199
Q

display rules

A

The unwritten expectations we have regarding when it is appropriate to show a certain emotion
-individualistic vs. collectivistic cultures

200
Q

polygraph

A

Measures changes in heart rate and perspiration

-unreliable for lie detection

201
Q

microexpressions

A

Facial expressions made within a fraction of a second that can be detected before emotions are suppressed
-can indicate when a person is concealing an emotion but not why they are concealing it