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EMT 2023 > Chapters 1,2,3 > Flashcards

Chapters 1,2,3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Any emergency medical responder is operating as a designated agent of the

A

Medical Director

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2
Q

EMS personnel can treat an unconscious patient because the law acknowledges that a rational person with consent to treatment if they were unconscious, the principal is known as ————-consent

A

Implied

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3
Q

A policy said by an EMS medical Director that allows EMT to administer glucose to patients in certain circumstances without speaking to the physician is an example of a

A

Standing order

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4
Q

Leaving a patient after care has been initiated in before the patient has been transferred to someone equal or greater medical training is known as

A

Abandonment

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5
Q

Publishing, a false written statement about a person that damages, the reputation or character, is known as

A

Oral defamation

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6
Q

EMTs using a protocol book to guide them in delivering medical care to an injured patient. This is known as————— medical control

A

Off-line

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7
Q

The actions in care that an emergency medical worker is legally allowed to perform or referred to as their

A

Scope of practice

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8
Q

The majority of emergency medical services courses or talk today or based on models developed by the

A

National Highway, traffic safety administration

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9
Q

Children and mentally, incompetent adults are legally allowed to provide consent for their own treatment

A

False

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10
Q

Miners who are married, or of a certain age, and who are legally able to give consent for medical care, or known as

A

Emancipated

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11
Q

The___________ is legally responsible for the clinical and patient care aspects of an emergency medical service system

A

Medical Director

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12
Q

The right of a patient to make decisions about their medical care is termed

A

Patient autonomy

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13
Q

And EMTs obligation in certain situations to provide care to a patient is referred to as an

A

Duty to act

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14
Q

Making a false spoken statement that damages, a persons, reputation or character, is known as

A

Slander

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15
Q

The system of internal and external reviews and audit for all aspects of an emergency care system is known as

A

Quality improvement

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16
Q

Mentally competent adult of legal age who except care from an EMS crew, or said to give__________ consent

A

Expressed

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17
Q

Which agency is the federal source for the EMT education standards

A

National Highway, traffic safety administration 

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18
Q

What is the primary job of the EMT?

A

Ensure personal safety

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19
Q

This act of legislation protects people with disabilities from being denied access to programs and services that are provided by the state or local governments

A

Americans with disabilities act

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20
Q

What is not a component of an EMS system under the EMS agenda for the future

A

Certification reciprocity

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21
Q

What is an example of secondary prevention?

A

Providing cervical spine immobilization

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22
Q

The roles and responsibilities of an EMT include all of the following, except:

A. Performing a patient assessment
B. Upholding, medical and legal standards.
C. Providing legal advice to patients.
D. Ensuring and protecting patient privacy.

A

C. Providing legal advice to patients.

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23
Q

An example of teamwork in diplomacy is

A

Being able to communicate, while giving respect to the listener

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24
Q

The health insurance, portability and accountability act (HIPPA):

A

Limits the availability of a patient’s health care information

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25
Q

What is continuous quality improvement (CQI) and how is it used to help you ensure the safety of patient

A

Continuous quality improvement is a circular system of continuous internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system. By looking at all the components of an EMS system, the CQI process seeks to identify areas that need improvement and enables the problems to be resolved throughout remediation and training rather than through punitive measures. 

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26
Q

Why is EMS research a vital part in the evolution of patient management?

A

Research provides data that identify treatments that are beneficial and/or
lifesaving for trauma patients and knows that or not. Participation in EMS research empowers the EMT to help shape the future of trauma care.

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27
Q

Emergency care for a patient identified as an organ donor should not differ from the care provider to any other patient.

True
False

A

True

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28
Q

What NREMT certifications is considered to be the highest level a healthcare worker can obtain?

A

Paramedic

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29
Q

The level of EMS that involves medical training for those who are usually first on the scene of an emergency is:

A

Emergency medical responder

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30
Q

When a patient refuses care, he or she must sign a(n):

A

Release of liability form

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31
Q

Good Samaritan laws do not prevent someone from initiating a lawsuit, nor will they protect the rescuer from being found liable for acts of gross negligence and other violations of the law.

True
False

A

True

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32
Q

The first priority of any emergency medical responder is to:

A

Insure personal safety

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33
Q

An order from an EMS system on duty physician given by a radio is an example of:

A

On-line medical control

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34
Q

It is not necessary to explain all procedures and risk of treatment to the rational, conscious patient.

True
False

A

False

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35
Q

An unconscious patient must regain consciousness before consent can be granted and treatment can begin.

True
False

A

False

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36
Q

All of the following are considered signs incompatible with life except:

A patient that was involved in a motorcycle accident and has been decapitated

A patient last seen yesterday and is found to have stiff arms and legs

A patient that is found in their bed with very cold skin and signs of dependent lividity

A patient that was just seen five minutes ago and is found unconscious in the bathroom

A

A patient that was just seen five minutes ago and is found unconscious in the bathroom

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37
Q

An emergency medical responder’s duty to act continues throughout the call or until care is transferred to someone with equal or greater expertise.

True
False

A

True

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38
Q

The first concern of any emergency medical responder always must be______safety.

A

Personal

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39
Q

Adult patients who are mentally competent, have the legal right to refuse emergency medical care

True
False

A

True

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40
Q

A federal law that was enacted in 1996 that gives a patient rights over their healthcare information is known as.

A

HIPAA

41
Q

A legal document usually signed by the patient and their physician which states that the patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts, is called a(n):

A

DNR order

42
Q

When handling potential crime scene evidence, always place the item(s) in a:

A

Brown paper bag

43
Q

Expressed consent must be obtained from patients who are able to give it.

True
False

A

True

44
Q

If a jury finds that an EMT has a duty to a patient, that he/she failed to carry out that duty properly, and that his/her action caused harm to the patient, the emergency care worker could be convicted of:

A

Negligence

45
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms or not usually associated with stress?

Headaches
Risk-taking
Night sweats
Isolation

A

Night Sweats

46
Q

How can you help your partner to manage his stress?

Suggest that he relax, and have a few drinks after his shifts

Suggest a vacation

Suggest that the supervisor give him time off

Suggest that he participate in a physical activity away from the workplace

A

Suggest that he participate in a physical activity away from the workplace

47
Q

Which of the following is not a recommended way to manage stress?

Alcohol
Exercise
Proper diet
Sleep

A

Alcohol

48
Q

What are the long term physical effects of stress?

A

Long-term physical effects of stress include change in appetite, Gastrointestinal problems, backaches, headaches, and fatigue.

49
Q

What are the long-term psychologic effects of stress?

A

Long term, psychological reactions to stress, include fear, dull or non-responsive behavior, depression, guilt, oversensitivity, anger, irritability, and frustration.

50
Q

Once your ambulance is dispatched to an emergency, you have an obligation to respond. This is known as.

A

Duty to act

51
Q

Upon arrival at the scene, your partner began assessing vital signs without talking to the patient. This demonstrates:

A

Failure to obtain consent

52
Q

Suppose your partner had introduced himself and asked. If the patient nodded and extended his arm, this will be considered:

A

Expressed consent

53
Q

What is the best way to care for your patient? Once he tells you he does not want to go to the hospital?

A

Let him know how important it is that he excepts transport to the hospital.

54
Q

While caring for a patient, you hear a neighbor cry for help; a child is drowning, just around the corner. You and your partner leave, telling the patient you must respond to this incident and will send another ambulance for him as soon as possible. This decision is an example of:

A

Abandonment

55
Q

On another call that day, your patient consented to treat and transport. After you told her she could be experiencing a serious medical emergency. This is an example of:

A

Serving in the patient’s best interest.

56
Q

If a patient says he has used Heroin recently, who should you tell about this?

A

You should report the heroin use to the nurse, physician assistant, or physician, who excepts transfer of care from you at the hospital. This information will be important to continuity of patient care. As healthcare providers, we should regard drug addiction as an illness, not a crime. You would not need to notify law-enforcement, unless there is extenuating circumstances. 

57
Q

What makes up an emergency Medical Service (EMS)?

A

It’s a system that consist of a team of healthcare professionals that are responsible for and provide care and transportation to the sick and injured.

58
Q

What is the difference between certification and licensure?

A

A certification exam if you switch were all healthcare providers, have at least the same basic level of knowledge and skill.
A license sure is the process by which states ensure applicant competency in an examination setting. This allows states to manage who can function as a healthcare provider.

59
Q

Be familiar with the four different levels of certification through the NREMT.

A

EMR: Emergency medical responder
Provides care before the ambulance arrives.
EMT: Emergency Medical Technician (usually the lowest certification level for ambulance personnel)
Has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillator, and use of airway adjunct in assist patients with certain medication’s
AEMT: Advanced Emergency Medical Technician
Has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy (IV) in the administration of certain emergency medications
Paramedic: (the highest level of EMS certification through the NREMT)
Extensive training in ALS, including endotracheal intubation, emergency, pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills.

60
Q

What “paper” is thought to be the origin of EMS?

A

The white paper; accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

61
Q

What federal department is responsible for EMS?

A

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

62
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for all patient care that occurs in an EMS service?

A

Medical Director

63
Q

What is a PSAP?

A

Public Safety Access Point (PSAP) is the communication center

64
Q

What is EMD?

A

Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD)
Helps the dispatcher and providing callers with vital instructions to help them deal with a medical emergency until EMS crews arrive

65
Q

What are the advantages of having an enhanced 911 system?

A

Enhance 911 system is able to identify the phone number from which the emergency call, but also the exact location Global Positioning System (GPS).

66
Q

What are the two different types of medical direction you can receive as an EMT?

A

On-line which consist of direction given over the phone or radio directly from the Medical Director or designated physician.

Off-line consist of standing orders, training, and supervision authorized by the Medical Director

67
Q

What are the different types of EMS delivery models?

A

(MIH) Mobile Integrated Healthcare and Community Paramedicine

68
Q

What is always your main primary concern/responsibility at the scene of a 911 call?

A

Personal Safety and maintaining your knowledge and skills

69
Q

In medicine, what is rule #1?

A

Do No Harm

70
Q

What the difference between primary and secondary prevention strategies

A

Primary prevention focuses on strategies that will prevent the event from ever happening.

Secondary prevention strategy is the event has already happened. How can we decrease the effects of the event?

71
Q

I what is the difference between ethics and morals?

A

Ethics are the rules you abide by in order to remain within a community or profession.

Morals are your personal values that run to the core of your very being.

72
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

The protection of patient privacy

73
Q

What are the five states of grief that people go through?

A

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance

74
Q

What can you do to improve stress in your life?

A

Physical conditioning and proper nutrition.

75
Q

What is PPE?

A

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
This is protective equipment that an individual wears to prevent exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material.

76
Q

When dealing with a patient that could have a potential contagious disease, what type of mask should you wear as an EMT? What type of mask should a patient wear?

A

The EMT should wear a particular air respirator, such as an N95 mask. Patient should wear a surgical mask unless the patient needs a Nonrebreather mask

77
Q

What are the different routes of transmission in which you can be exposed to a pathogen?

A

Contact (direct or indirect)
Airborne
Foodborne
Vector-borne (transmitted through insects and parasitic worms)

78
Q

What is considered the most effective way to control disease transmission?

A

Proper hand washing

79
Q

All potentially sharp objects be disposed in which type of container?

A

Closed, rigid, marked Biohazard sharps container

80
Q

What guide can you use to help identify potentially hazardous materials at the scene of an accident?

A

The DOT (ERG) Emergency Response Guidebook

81
Q

What is always your first priority at any emergency scene?

A

Personal safety

82
Q

Be familiar with the different types of protective clothing

A

Cold weather clothing
Turnout gear
Gloves
Helmets
Boots
Eye protection
Ear protection
Skin protection
Body armor

83
Q

Be familiar with the different types of consent:
Expressed and informed
Implied
Involuntary
Emancipated Minors

A

Expressed:
This is the type of consent given when the patient verbally or nonverbally expresses, they want you to provide care or transport.

Informed:
This means that you have explain the nature of the treatment being offered along with the potential risk benefits and alternatives to treatment as well as potential consequences of refusing treatment in the patient has given consent

Implied:
This consent applies only when a serious medical condition exist in, should never be used, unless there is a threat to life or limb.

Involuntary:
Assisting patients who are mentally ill developmentally, delayed, or who are in behavioral (psychologic) crisis is complicated. An adult patient who is mentally incompetent is not able to give informed consent.

Emancipated Minors:
These are people who, despite being under the legal age in a given state can be legally treated as adults based on certain circumstances.

84
Q

What is patient autonomy?

A

The right of a patient to make informed choices regarding his or her health care.

85
Q

Can teachers in school officials gives consent for the treatment of a child under their supervision (in loco parentis)?

A

Yes, if a minor is injured and requires medical treatment in a school or camp settings, teachers and school officials may act in loco parentis, which means in the position or place of a parent, and can legally give consent for treatment of the minor if a parent or guardian is not available.

86
Q

When is it okay to restrain a patient?

A

Forcible restraints is sometimes necessary when you are confronted with a patient who is in need of medical treatment and transportation, but is combative and presents a significant physical risk of danger to himself, rescues, or others.

87
Q

What type of patient has the right to refuse treatment/transport?

A

Adult to our conscious, alert, and appear to have decision making capacity have the right to refuse treatment or withdraw from treatment at any time.

88
Q

What is considered a break of confidentiality?

A

Disclosure of certain information, without proper authorization, may result in liability for breach of confidentiality

89
Q

What is a DNR order?

A

Do not resuscitate (also known as a do not attempt resuscitation)

90
Q

What are some definitive signs of obvious death?
Dependent lividity
Rigor mortis
Putrefaction
Decapitation

A

Dependent lividity:
Blood suddenly to the lowest point of the body causing discoloration of the skin

Rigor mortis:
the stiffening of body muscles caused by chemical changes within muscle tissue

Putrefaction:
(Decomposition of body tissues)
Depending on temperature of conditions, this occurs sometimes between 40 and 96 hours after death

Decapitation:
This is the separation of the head from the body

91
Q

What kind of death cases would be handled by the medical examiner?

A

When the person is dead on arrival (DOA)
(sometimes referred to as dead on the scene[DOS]
Death without previous medical care, or when the physician is unable to stay the cause of death
Suicide (self destruction)
Violent death
Poisoning, known or suspected
Death resulting from accident
Suspicion of a criminal act
Infant and child deaths

92
Q

What is the scope of practice?

A

This is most commonly defined by state law, outlines the care you are legally able to provide for the patient. Your medical Director further defines the scope of practice by developing protocols in standing orders.

93
Q

What is the standard of care?

A

The manner in which you must act or behave is called a standard of care

94
Q

What are the four things have to be proved in a court of law for someone to bring a negligence suit against you?

A

Duty
Breach of duty
Damages
Causation

95
Q

When could you be charged with abandonment?

A

once care and started, you have assumed duty that must not stop until an equally competent EMS provider or health care personal equal or greater assumes responsibility.

96
Q

What is the difference between assault and battery?

A

Assault is defined as unlawfully, placing a person in fear of immediate bodily harm. Threatening to restrain a patient who does not want to be transported could be considered assault.

Battery is defined as unlawfully touching a person; this includes providing emergency care without consent.

97
Q

What is the medical definition of kidnapping?

A

The seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force, including transporting a competent adult for a medical treatment without his or her consent

98
Q

What are the two types of defamation of character?

A

Defamation that is in writing, is referred to as libel.
Defamation that is spoken is known as slander.

99
Q

What/who do good Samaritan laws protect?

A

To be protected by the provisions of a good Samaritan law, several conditions most generally be met

You acted in good faith in rendering care

You rendered care without expectation of compensation

You acted with in the scope of your training

You did not act in a grossly negligent manner

EMT 2023 (8 decks)

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