Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AAOS Atlas of Orthoses and Assitive Devices > Chapter Eleven: Orthoses for Osteoporosis > Flashcards

Chapter Eleven: Orthoses for Osteoporosis Flashcards

1
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A disorder in which mineralized bone density is below normal, resulting in a bone structure that is vulnerable to fractures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a compromised bone due to osteoporosis characterized by?

A

A reduction in bone mass that is related to an imbalance in bone formation and resorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common of the metabolic bone diseases?

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does osteopenia mean?

A

Too little bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A decrease in bone mass normally begins when?

A

In a person’s early thirties and continues throughout their life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the different types of osteoporosis?

A

Type I

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is type I osteoporosis?

A

It affects women and is associated with estrogen deficiency occurring 5 to 10 years after menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is primarily affected in Type I osteoporosis?

A

Trabecular osteogenesis which results in a diminished capacity to support compressive loads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are the sites that are at greater risk in Type I osteoporosis?

A

Vertebral bodies,
Distal radius
Hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Type II osteoporosis?

A

Affects both males and females

it is due to calcium deficiency and is associated with aging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are primarily affected in Type II osteoporosis?

A

Trabecular and cortical bone are affected

Cortical bone provides support, especially for bending and torsional loads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What sites of the body are at greater risk with Type II osteoporosis?

A 
Femoral neck
Proximal tibia
Humerus
Pelvis
Vertebral bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a common posutral deformity secondary to Vertebral Compression Fractures?

A

Hyperkyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hyperkyphosis can lead to what?

A 
Ligamentous stretching
Diminished functional vital capacity
Inferior costal margin
Pelvic rim contact Discomfort
Chronic low back pain
Abdominal crowding
Depression
Muscle imbalance
Painful chronic intravertebral pseudarthrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Involutional muscle loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The severity of the Vertebral compression fracture can lead to what?

A

Diminished function,
Decreased mobility
Physical deconditioning
Consequently accelerated bone loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the clinical signs of Vertebral compression fracture?

A 
Sudden onset of back pain
Loss of height
Spinal deformity
Protuberant abdomen
Diminished vital capacity
Lung capacity is reduced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the drug therapies for osteoporosis?

A

Bisphosphonates to decrease bone resorption,
Estrogen/hormone replacement to counteract the postmenopausal increased rate of bone loss, and
Calcitonin to reduce osteoclastic bone resorption.

19
Q

What are the nonpharmacologic treatments of osteoporosis?

A

Exercise
Physical management of pain
Orthotic treatment
Gait training

20
Q

What are some drug therapies that can increase bone mass?

A 
Sodium fluoride
Anabolic steroids
Testosterone
Parathyroid hormone
They may have side effects
21
Q

What is a surgical treatment of vertebral compression fractures?

A

Augmentation of VCF with bone cement
It includes vertebroplasty: in which bone cement is percutaneously injected into the fractured vertebral body to stabilize it
And Kyphoplasty: in which bone cement is injected after percutaneous reduction of the vertebral body deformity using inflatable bone tamps.

22
Q

What orthosis is usually not an option for vertebral compression fractures? Why?

A

Total contact TLSO
Because there may be large spinal deformities which can have an uncomfortable fit over bony prominences or restriction of pulmonary capacity.

23
Q

What does PTS stand for?

A

Posture training support

24
Q

What is a PTS?

A

A weighted kypho-orthosis provides a weight suspended just inferior to the scapulae.

25
Q

When is a PTS indicated?

A

Cases of excess dorsal kyphosis possibly involving iliocostal contact or iliocostal friction syndrome.

26
Q

What are the mechanisms that suggest PTS works?

A

Anterior compression forces on the spine are reduced by the countermoment produced by the posterior weight.
The device encourages active back extension through propioceptive input and helps increase back extensor strength.

27
Q

Why might a lumbosacral corset and dorsolumbosacral corset be used?

A

They reduce pain by axial unloading,
Reduce muscle strain
and Improve standing balance by moving the position of the center of gravity posteriorly.

28
Q

When should corsets not be used?

A

If there is severe respiratory condition present

29
Q

When should a corset be used?

A

For patients with COPD

30
Q

When are three-point hyperextension orthoses indicated?

A

For stable compression fractures in the lower thoracic/upper lumbar spine.

31
Q

What is a clear disadvantage of the hyperextension orthosis?

A

It puts excessive pressure on the pubis and sternum and doesn’t correct the standing posture.

32
Q

What are the orthotic goals of hyperextension orthoses?

A

Unloading of the fracture site to decreases pain and prevent excessive flexion.

33
Q

What are the two orthoses that actually have scientific support for their efficacy on treating vertebral compression fractures?

A

PTS

Spinomed (TLSO-Sagittal plane control)

34
Q

What does spinomed resemble?

A

Knight-Taylor orthosis

35
Q

What are the orthotic goals of the spinomed?

A

Correcting the unbalanced anterior posture in the sagittal plane
Retracting the shoulders,
Increasing back extensor strength
Increase intracavity pressure

36
Q

What are the advantages of the Spinomed?

A 
High patient compliance
Strengthening of the paraspinal muscles
Device's light
Ease of donning and doffing
Hand moldability of the brace
37
Q

What does the posterior shell TLSO consist of?

A

Plastic posterior shell, soft corset front

a system of straps

38
Q

What makes the posterior shell TLSO different from Spinomed?

A

The plastic posterior shell is not designed to be in total contact at the superior portion in the initial phase of orthotic treatment, but it may achieve contact in the later phases.

39
Q

What are the orthotic goals of the posterior shell TLSO?

A

Restoration of sagittal plane standing posture alignment,
reduction of internal rotation of the shoulders
Improvement of vital capacity
Restoration of heel-to-toe gait
Improvement of seated posture

40
Q

What are the disadvantages of the posterior shell TLSO?

A

Difficulty in donning and doffing

Excessive weight.

41
Q

Whta is an example of an inapporpriate device for patients with acute pain from VCF?

A

PTS
It is not deigned to immobilize the fracture site or provide stability. It is only intended for the rehabilitation of chronic pain.

42
Q

What is an example of an inappropriate device for patients with chronic pain from VCF?

A

Hyperextension orthosis

43
Q

Patient assessment of VCFs should include what?

A 
Medical history
Knowledge of the patient's living environment
Patient ability to perform ADLs
Previous/current fractures
Previous/current treatment
Other medical conditions
occurrence of falls
MMT
ROM
Visual/cognitive impairment
Location of pain
chronic/acute

AAOS Atlas of Orthoses and Assitive Devices (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions