Chapter Conducting Fitness Assessments Flashcards

1
Q

1 When conducting fitness assessments for a weight loss client, the Weight Loss Specialist should do which of the following?
Consider limiting movements that require overweight or obese clients to get on and off the ground.
Wait for a medical clearance before any physical assessments are done.
Avoid any modifications to assessments to keep all measures valid.
Assume that overweight and obese clients are not comfortable with physical assessments.

A

Consider limiting movements that require overweight or obese clients to get on and off the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 When determining which fitness assessments to conduct, which of the following would be an example of a relevant assessment?
Assessing anaerobic power for an obese client who wants to lose weight
Assessing lower body muscular endurance for a client who has arthritis in the knees and hips
Assessing strength for a client who has a goal of improving health
Assessing cardiorespiratory fitness for a client who has a long-term goal of running a 5K race

A

Assessing cardiorespiratory fitness for a client who has a long-term goal of running a 5K race

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 If an assessment produces consistent and repeatable results it is said to be which of the following?
Appropriate
Valid
Relevant
Reliable

A

Reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 When monitored over time, which of the following variables helps to identify cardiovascular adaptations, such as becoming more fit, or regressions, such as deconditioning?
Body mass index
Body fat percent
Resting heart rate
Waist-to-hip ratio

A

Resting heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5 Increased resting heart rate is associated with an increase in which variable?
Body mass index
Waist circumference
Body weight
VO2max

A

Body mass index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6 Which term describes the pressure on the arteries during the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle?
Systolic blood pressure
Mean arterial pressure
Diastolic blood pressure
Pulse pressure

A

Systolic blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7 hich blood pressure result would indicate Stage 2 Hypertension and require medical monitoring?
Systolic blood pressure ≤ 120 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ≤ 80 mmHg
Systolic blood pressure ≥ 130 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ≥ 80 mmHg
Systolic blood pressure ≥ 180 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ≥ 120 mmHg
Systolic blood pressure ≥ 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ≥ 90 mmHg

A

Systolic blood pressure ≥ 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ≥ 90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8 Steve is a new client and his blood pressure was recorded as 144/82, what should be done next?
Proceed with the remaining assessments and retake blood pressure before Steve leaves.
Immediately stop the appointment and have Steve obtain a medical clearance.
Have Steve remain seated and rest for another minute and then take the read again to confirm the results.
Let Steve know that his blood pressure is a little high but probably nothing to worry about.

A

Have Steve remain seated and rest for another minute and then take the read again to confirm the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9 Which of the following is the most appropriate anthropometric assessment for overweight and obese individuals?
Body mass index
Resting heart rate
Blood pressure
Skinfold measurements

A

Body mass index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10 Body mass index is determined by which of the following variables?
Waist circumference (cm) ÷ Hip circumference (cm)
Weight (kg) ÷ Height (m2)
Sum of three-site skinfold measurements
Waist circumference (cm) ÷ Height (m2)

A

Weight (kg) ÷ Height (m2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11 Which term describes when a person has an “apple” shape that is characterized as having more fat within the abdominal region?
Hominoid
Android
Anthropomorphic
Gynoid

A

Android

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12 When working with an obese client, which of the following may cause circumference measurement errors?
The inability to identify anatomical landmarks
Not having calibrated skinfold calipers
Using a standard physician’s scale
Using a free-standing stadiometer

A

The inability to identify anatomical landmarks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13 When waist circumference is used as a method to assess health risk, which values indicate a high risk for cardiovascular disease or diabetes?
Men with a waist circumference ≥ 40 cm and women with a waist circumference ≥ 35 cm
Men with a waist circumference ≥ 100 cm and women with a waist circumference ≥ 88 cm
Men with a waist circumference ≥ 80 cm and women with a waist circumference ≥ 68 cm
Men with a waist circumference ≥ 88 cm and women with a waist circumference ≥ 100 cm

A

Men with a waist circumference ≥ 100 cm and women with a waist circumference ≥ 88 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14 Which of the following is a reason to calculate waist-to-hip ratio?
It is a commonly used tool to assess health risk by defining body shape.
It can be used to predict body fat percent.
It is a criteria for whether a medical clearance is required.
It is more accurate than BMI for classifying obesity.

A

It is a commonly used tool to assess health risk by defining body shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15 Which of the following can adversely effect a bioelectrical impedance analysis?
If the client is dehydrated for any reason
If the client has been fasting for more than 4 hours
If the client does the assessment in the evening
If the client has abstained from exercise for 4 or more hours

A

If the client is dehydrated for any reason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16 Which term describes the positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?
Balanced posture
Activating posture
Dynamic posture
Static posture

A

Static posture

17
Q

17 When assessing the posture of an obese client, which challenge should the Weight Loss Specialist be aware of?
If anatomical landmarks cannot be identified, then the assessment may be inaccurate.
Most imbalances will naturally correct with proper weight loss.
Muscle imbalances are not a concern with new weight loss clients.
Obese individuals cannot stand in a neutral position.

A

If anatomical landmarks cannot be identified, then the assessment may be inaccurate.

18
Q

18 The kinetic chain checkpoints include which of the following?
Foot, calf, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, torso, and head/neck
Foot/ankle, knee, lumbar spine, thoracic spine, and cervical spine
Ankle, knee, upper thigh, abdomen, and head
Foot/ankle, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, shoulders, and head/neck

A

Foot/ankle, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, shoulders, and head/neck

19
Q

19 Which distortion pattern is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?
Upper-crossed syndrome
Inferior antagonist syndrome
Pes planus distortion syndrome
Lower-crossed syndrome

A

Pes planus distortion syndrome

20
Q

20 Which distortion pattern is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine?
Lower-crossed syndrome
Upper-crossed syndrome
Pes planus distortion syndrome
Superior agonist syndrome

A

Lower-crossed syndrome

21
Q

21 Vanessa is 5’10” and weighs 195 pounds. Her movement assessment revealed several deviations from optimal patterns. What should the Weight Loss Specialist tell her about the findings?
That these assessments are used to identify whenever a movement differs from an ideal pattern and helps inform programming decisions
That any postural deviation is considered a serious movement impairment
That any deviations from normal patterns can be a sign of significant dysfunction
That she should follow up with a physical therapist or physician to obtain a medical clearance to continue

A

That these assessments are used to identify whenever a movement differs from an ideal pattern and helps inform programming decisions

22
Q

22 Which assessment is typically the first movement assessment conducted for most clients?
Static posture assessment
Pulling assessment
Overhead squat assessment
Pushing assessment

A

Overhead squat assessment

23
Q

23 Which movement pattern does research suggest is predictive of the risk of musculoskeletal injuries in individuals who practice physical exertion?
Squatting
Pulling
Pushing
Lunging

24
Q

24 Steve is a former football player with a BMI of 41 kg/m2. During the overhead squat assessment, he indicates some pain in his knees but says he can push through the pain. What should the Weight Loss Specialist do?
Consider modifying the assessment with a reduced squat depth to see if that minimizes pain.
Inform Steve that it is unsafe to proceed due to the risk of serious injury.
Encourage Steve to push through the pain so that the assessment can be completed.
Immediately stop the assessment and note that the client was unable to properly complete the assessment.

A

Consider modifying the assessment with a reduced squat depth to see if that minimizes pain.

25
Q

25 If movement impairments are discovered during the overhead squat assessment, what should the Weight Loss Specialist communicate to the client?
Communicate to the client that a comprehensive program cannot be created until impairments are addressed.
Inform the client that serious injuries can occur if the movement impairments are not addressed.
Keep a positive approach by explaining the benefits of addressing the various movement impairments that have been displayed.
Let the client know exactly what was observed and how impairments can negatively affect weight loss efforts.

A

Keep a positive approach by explaining the benefits of addressing the various movement impairments that have been displayed.

26
Q

26 If a client cannot balance during a split stance pushing assessment, which of the following should be done?
Eliminate the pushing assessment during the intake appointment and try to evaluate after several weeks.
Have the client remain in a split stance and perform as many repetitions as possible up to 10.
Have the client stand in a symmetrical stance with feet shoulder-width apart and perform 10 repetitions.
Have the client perform as many repetitions as possible of a standard push-up.

A

Have the client stand in a symmetrical stance with feet shoulder-width apart and perform 10 repetitions.

27
Q

27 Which of the following represents the sequencing of posture and movement assessments?
Static posture assessment, upper-extremity pushing and pulling assessments, and overhead squat assessment
Static posture assessment, overhead squat assessment, and upper-extremity pushing and pulling assessments
Overhead squat assessment, static posture assessment, and lower-extremity pushing and pulling assessments
Upper-extremity pushing and pulling assessments, overhead squat assessment, and static posture assessment

A

Static posture assessment, overhead squat assessment, and upper-extremity pushing and pulling assessments

28
Q

28 Which of the following assessments is used to evaluate a client’s capacity to perform work?
Body composition assessments
Anthropometric assessments
Cardiorespiratory assessments
Dynamic movement assessments

A

Cardiorespiratory assessments

29
Q

29 Due to equipment requirements, time involved, and participants’ ability to perform exercise to exhaustion, which of the following is the preferred assessment to determine cardiorespiratory fitness?
Submaximal VO2 test
Muscular endurance test
Anaerobic power test
VO2max test

A

Submaximal VO2 test

30
Q

30 Which of the following techniques is used to express or validate how hard a client feels that they are working during exercise?
VO2max Test
Rating of Perceived Exertion
Objective Heart Rate Measure
Subjective Intensity Scale

A

Rating of Perceived Exertion

31
Q

31 Which of the following is a premise of using a talk test during a cardiorespiratory assessment?
Monitoring a person’s ability to continuously talk has been found to be as accurate as conducting a VO2max test.
Weight loss clients should only work at intensities where they can continuously talk.
Research has demonstrated that anaerobic metabolism is dominant when continuous talking can be maintained.
The exercise intensity that disrupts talking and breathing is connected to specific metabolic events.

A

The exercise intensity that disrupts talking and breathing is connected to specific metabolic events.

32
Q

32 When conducting a ventilatory threshold test, which of the following needs to occur before an assessment of talking can be collected?
An RPE of 12 needs to be recorded.
A steady state heart rate must be observed.
Heart rate must exceed 120 beats per minute.
The client must complete 3 stages of the incremental test.

A

A steady state heart rate must be observed.

33
Q

33 While conducting a ventilatory threshold test with Vanessa, at minute 8 the Weight Loss Specialist notices her speech becomes less smooth and her reported RPE is 6 and the talk test is somewhat challenging. What should the Weight Loss Specialist do?
Reduce the exercise intensity to see if it becomes easy to talk again.
Immediately stop the test and proceed to the cool down.
Attempt one more stage beyond the suspected ventilatory threshold to validate the assessment.
Let Vanessa know that the test is approximately half way done.

A

Attempt one more stage beyond the suspected ventilatory threshold to validate the assessment.

34
Q

34 Which of the following demonstrates the proper progression of assessments during the intake process?
Preparticipation health screening, body composition, physiological assessments, cardiorespiratory assessment, and posture and movement assessments
Preparticipation health screening, cardiorespiratory assessment, body composition, posture and movement assessments, and physiological assessments
Preparticipation health screening, body composition, posture and movement assessments, physiological assessments, and cardiorespiratory assessment
Preparticipation health screening, physiological assessments, body composition, posture and movement assessments, and cardiorespiratory assessment

A

Preparticipation health screening, physiological assessments, body composition, posture and movement assessments, and cardiorespiratory assessment