Chapter 9 - Valuing stocks Flashcards
Recall the law of one price in regards to a stock
Says that the price of the stock MUST be equal to the cash flows that the investors expect to earn from it.
Name the two quantities of concern when valuing stocks
1) Cash flows we expect to receive
2) The discount rate
Recall the investment horizon ‘theorem’
If two investors has the same beliefs/understanding of a stock, their investment horizon will not matter in terms of value and ultimately the price they would want to pay for the share.
Name the sources (potential sources) of cash flows as far as shares are concerned
1) Dividends
2) capital gain
Which part of the shares cash flow is determined by the time horizon?
actually both.
Set up the 1-year cash flow statement of owning some random share that pays dividend
We purchase the share at time=0.
We then receive a dividend at time=1.
We also sell the share at time=1.
-P0 + div1 + P1
AS we know, the cash flows must be discounted.
In this simple case of 1 year etc, we can use a single discount term:
-P0 + (div1 + P1)/discountRate
Since the law says that the price must be equal to the expected PV of the investment, we get the equaiton:
P0 = (1/rate) (div1 + P1)
What rate do we use to discount the cash flows from share ownership?
Earlier, as with most of the bonds, we used the risk free itnerest rate. however, this is not a good idea now, since shares have risk associated with them.
Therefore, we coin a term called “equity cost of capital”.
What is equity cost of capital?
Equity cost of capital refers to the expected return of other investments available in the market with equivalent risk.
from the perspective of the equity investor, the equity cost of capital represent the rate of return required from investing in the firm. It reflects the return they would expect based on the risk profile of the firm.
What is the buy rule for the 1-year valuation of shares
buy if the market price is lower than your expected cash flow returns from owning it. basically the law of one price says tht this is not possible, but here we are.
if we decompose the 1-year fomrula, what result do we get?
We can get the equity cost of capiatal as a sum of two parts:
P0 = div1/(1+r) + P1/(1+r)
1+r = div1 /P0 + P1/P0
r = div1/P0 + P1/P0 - P0/P0
r = div1/P0 + (P1-P0)/P0
First part RHS is called dividend YIELD.
Second part RHS is called capital gain rate.
What is dividend yield
Expected annual dividend (per share) divided by price. It is a percentage that says “for every buck we have invested, we receive the dividend yield in return as dividedn”.
Difference between capital gain and capital gain rate
Capital gain = P1 - P0
Capital gain rate is the ratio where we also divide this difference on the P0. The result is a metric indicating growth.
What do we get if we sum capital gain rate and dividend yield?
Total return
Elaborate on total return
Total return is the expected return that the investor will earn. It should be equal to the equity cost of capital. this means, the expected return of the investment should be equal to the expected return of other investments in the market with similar risk.
This is a weird result, but it actually makes some sense.
The firm must deliver a cash flow/return similar to what the investor is “offered” elsewhere for the same level of risk.
Consider what would happen if this was not the case. If the firm offer less then the equity cost of capital/total return, the investors could earn more cash elsewhere. So they would go elsewhere. This would lower the demand for the stock, which would reduce the price, which would increase the expected capital gain rate. This is a process that continuosly work towards balance.
How can we prove that the valuation of a stock is independent on time horizon
We can consider a two year horizon:
P0 = div1/(1+r) + div2/(1+r)^2 + P2/(1+r)^2
Then we consider the one-year horizon, but this dude wants to buy at P1.
P1 = div2/r + p2/r
Subsituting this inot the other one:
P0 = div1/r +
What is the dividend discount model?
extneded version of cash flows in terms of dividends and capital gain while discounting.
Works for any time frame
What is the simplest way of estimating future dividends?
Assume constant growth of dividends.
The benefit of this is that it is a perpetutiy, which means that we can use the constant growth perpetruity formula:
Price = div1 / (r_e - g)
The constant growth dividend model has a very important result..?
We use the perpetuity formula, and rearrange it:
Price = div1 / (r_e - g)
r_e = div1 / Price + g
div1/price remains constant, because both quantitites are constant.
The interesting result is found by looking at what happens if we isolate g:
g = r_e - div1/p0
We know from earlier that r_e = div1/p0 + (P1-P0)/P0
Therefore, we have that g = (P1 - P0)/P0
this means, g equals the capital gain rate. What does this mean?
Capital gai nrate is the changes in share price.
If g is to be equal to this, it means that the share price must match the growth.
This means that if the dividends grow by 10% yerly, then the share price will grow by 10% yearly as well.