Chapter 9 Quiz Flashcards
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
A. a physician arrives at the scene.
B. all the patients have been triaged.
C. the number of patients is known.
D. area hospitals have been notified.
B. all the patients have been triaged.
An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension
B. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
C. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain
D. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion
B. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
B. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.
C. assess his mental status by having him move his head.
D. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head.
A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:
A. elevate his legs and keep him warm.
B. ensure that his airway is patent.
C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
D. apply direct pressure to the wound.
D. apply direct pressure to the wound.
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
A. most life-threatening condition that you discover.
B. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
D. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than:
A. 30 seconds.
B. 60 to 90 seconds.
C. 90 to 120 seconds.
D. 120 to 180 seconds.
B. 60 to 90 seconds.
You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she:
A. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.
B. is restless and is working hard to breathe.
C. has an increased heart rate and retractions.
D. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.
D. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.
Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
A. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient’s condition.
B. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.
C. During the secondary assessment, the EMT’s primary focus should be on taking the patient’s vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.
D. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.
D. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
A. Acute anxiety
B. Drug overdose
C. Inadequate perfusion
D. Poisoning
A. Acute anxiety
An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:
A. airway, breathing, and circulation.
B. gathering medical history data.
C. providing immediate transport.
D. obtaining baseline vital signs.
A. airway, breathing, and circulation.
