Chapter 9 - EP W/C/A/N Flashcards

1
Q

[WARNING] In the event of a procedural difference between the written and displayed EP, _________.

A

the steps in this chapter take precedence

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2
Q

The most important single consideration is ________. All procedures are subordinate to this requirement.

A

helicopter control

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3
Q

When continued flight is in question, due to loss of Nr or power, the immediate corrective action should be _____.

A

to adjust the collective to maintain Nr within limits and jettisoning of wing stores

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4
Q

Jettisoning of wing stores will reduce power requirement by approx. __% TQ per ___lbs of weight reduction.

A

1% TQ per 200lbs

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5
Q

MSTR WARN and MSTR CAUT buttons should be ______ to allow ______.

A

reset after each malfunction

systems to respond to subsequent malfunctions

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6
Q

If time permits during an emergency situation, the crew must consider ______.

A

transmitting a Mayday call, selecting XPNDR on the EMER Panel and locking shoulder harness

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7
Q

[CAUTION] When shutting down an engine that has malfunctioned in flight, it is important to ________.

A

identify the malfunctioning engine to avoid shutting down the wrong engine

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8
Q

[CAUTION] After shutdown, if TGT rises above ___*C, or there is evidence of combustion, _______.

A

540*C

place the ENG START switch in IGN ORIDE and motor the ENG until TGT

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9
Q

Engine shutdown in flight is usually not an immediate action item unless ______.

A

a fire exists

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10
Q

Before attempting an EMER ENG shutdown in flight, identify the affected engine by checking ________.

A

engine out warning messages on EUFD, ENG page - TGT, TQ, Np, Ng, OIL PSI

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11
Q

What is the after emergency action once emergency actions have been taken and the aircraft is on the ground?

A

Make an entry in Remarks section of DA FORM 2408-13-1 describing the malfunction. GND and FLT Ops will cease on until corrective action has been taken.

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12
Q

[WARNING] Activation of the canopy removal system when ________ are present in the cockpit can result in ______. Alternative?

A

combustible fuel/vapors
an explosion/fire
Consider survival knife if helicopter has rolled onto its side.

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13
Q

[WARNING] Continuing to ______ can cause the actuator to jam and prevent operation of the canopy jettison system.

A

twist the canopy jettison handle while pushing

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14
Q

[WARNING] What do you do if the canopy jettison system fails?

A

Use your survival knife

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15
Q

[WARNING] In all cases of canopy jettison, remain clear of canopy side panels to ________.

A

avoid high velocity canopy fragments

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16
Q

[WARNING] If emergency egress is required before rotor blades have stopped, ___________.

A

ensure MSTR IGN - BATT and cyclic remains centered to prevent rotors from striking personnel, fuselage, ground

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17
Q

With regards to the CANOPY JETTISON system, how many warnings are there and what are they?

A

(6) FIRE / JAM / KNIFE / CLEAR / BATT Egress / VISOR

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18
Q

[WARNING] To prevent eye injury, PLT and CPG ______ should be down prior to canopy jettison. Debris may be expelled ____ outward.

A

helmet visors

50 feet

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19
Q

[NOTE] _________ STORES JETTISON panel can dis-arm it. Once armed, _______.

A

Only the crew station arming the

either crewstation can activate jettison

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20
Q

What is the warning associated with the fire extinguisher?

A

Exposure to high concentrations of the agent can cause frostbite or low-temp burns and should be avoided.

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21
Q

[NOTE] How long must the fire detection test switch be held in position 1 or 2? What happens if you fail to do so?

A

approx. 2 seconds

Crew will not receive a proper response and may not receive full voice warning

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22
Q

[WARNING] Ensure aircraft controls are configured for _______ prior to pressing the ____ pushbutton.

A

single engine operation

FIRE

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23
Q

[WARNING] Pressing the FIRE pushbutton (illuminated or not) will _______. This action can only be reversed from the same crewstation.

A

shut off fuel to the selected ENG or APU

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24
Q

[NOTE] When will the FIRE pushbutton light extinguish? How is the system reset?

A

when the sensors no longer detect a fire

same crewstation must deselect the FIRE pushbutton

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25
[NOTE] What turns off automatically upon illumination of an ENG FIRE pushbutton?
Air Particle Seperator
26
What happens when a FIRE pushbutton is pressed? (6)
Arms Extng System / Shuts off fuel / Shuts off BLEED AIR / Closes fire louvers / Stops voice WRN / Extinguishes MSTR WARN light
27
How many pneumatic fire/overheat detectors are located in the aft deck area?
three
28
[CAUTION] When should the MASTER ZEROIZE switch be used?
only when the compromise of classified information to hostile forces is imminent.
29
What does the MSTR ZEROIZE erase? Not erase?
YES: all low dollar zeroize (comms and XPNDR) in addition to non-volatile memory of FCR and DTC NO: ASE User Data Modules (UDM)
30
When will the ELT arm? | When shall tests be performed (if performed)?
CRASH (gravity) or MANUALLY | first five minutes after the hour
31
How is the underwater acoustic beacon actuated?
by water
32
What does pressing the GUARD button do?
turns UHF to guard freq and auto-RTS to UHF. Pressing again swaps PRI and STBY freq on UHF.
33
What does pressing the XPNDR button do? | Note: works whether in NORM or STBY
7700 in mode 3/A. | Auto-MAYDAY msg to all URNs in BFT
34
What does the "low-dollar" zeroize switch do?
zeoize all classified com data and XPNDR data (mode 4)
35
[WARNING] Prior to movement of either POWER lever, it is imperative that ______.
the malfunctioning ENG and corresponding power lever be identified.
36
The collective should NOT be reduced if an engine fails and the helicopter is below ___ feet.
15
37
During single or dual engine failure, what consideration will reduce immediate power requirements other than wing stores jettison?
right banking turn or right pedal input
38
In AUTO, maintain airspeed of ______. As airspeed increases above ____, _____. Below ____, _____.
77 - 107 KTAS 70-80 KTAS, rate of descent and glide distance increase significantly 70 KTAS, descent increases and glide distance decreases
39
What are the four ways an ENG performance may limit?
TGT FUEL FLOW Ng MACH
40
The aircrew should not engage any hold modes when operating near the _____.
DE Limiter Setting
41
[WARNING] With the POWER levers at FLY, resetting the ENG CHOP button will cause _______.
an erroneous ENG 1 and ENG 2 OUT warning
42
[WARNING] A failed ENG should not be restarted unless ________.
it can be determined that it is reasonably safe to do so
43
[WARNING] When restarting ENG1 after an ENG failure in flight, ____________.
a malfunctioning XFEED valve could cause there remaining ENG to fail
44
[Note] Inflight restarts do not need to ___.
utilize a warm start procedure
45
[WARNING] When may an engine start be attempted after an aborted start?
After the nacelle is opened and inspected for fuel
46
What does advancing the POWER lever to LOCKOUT do?
locks out the DECU thus disabling TGT limiting for that ENG
47
Failure of the alternator will cause _____.
MSTR WARN and ENG OUT voice warning, and a loss of Ng sensor for that engine.
48
What are the three windings of the alternator?
ENG Ignition, Ng sensor, power for DECU
49
[CAUTION] Increasing collective with ENG CHOP without first retarding POWER LEVER to OFF will cause _______.
engine acceleration and uncommanded yaw
50
Loss of Tail Rotor Thrust | [WARNING] If airspeed is allowed to approach ___, the sideslip angle may become sever and _______.
ETL | helicopter control may be lost
51
Loss of tail rotor thrust: ______ will _____, drag, and improve air flow over the vertical fin.
jettisoning of wing stores will reduce gross weight
52
For fixed pitch landings: ADVANCING PWR LEVERS - Nose ____ RETARDING PWR LEVERS - Nose ____
right | left
53
[CAUTION] When a clutch fails to disengage, damage to the affected engine will result (due to ______), if ______.
lack of oil pressure | both engines are not shutdown simultaneoulsy
54
[CAUTION] When a clutch fails to engage, do not _______. Damage may result if there is _____.
shutdown both ENGs simultaneously | sudden engagement
55
[WARNING] Prior to moving POWER lever or pressing any ENG FIRE button, either ____________.
achieve safe single engine airspeed or prepare for a single engine landing
56
[CAUTION] What consideration should be given IOT prevent smoke/fumes from entering crewstations during actual or suspected FIRE incidents?
power off Environmental Control System via AC UTIL page
57
For electrical fire, what considerations must be made prior to shutting off electrical equipment?
Flight Environment (FLT instruments, controls, etc.) Note: with electrical pwr off, ENG A-ICE is automatically turned on
58
[NOTE] In-Flight electrical system malfunction may cause ____ for as long as ___ seconds. On the ground: ___ seconds.
MPD blanking 6 | 12
59
[NOTE] Failure or reset of GEN 2 can result in _____ and ____ and a loss of one or more _____. After completing GEN 2 FAIL EP, _____.
BUCS FAIL FMC DISENGAGE FMC Channels reengage FMC channels
60
[NOTE] A battery charged to __% will normally supply the battery busses for approx. __minutes at __*C.
80% 12 min 25*C
61
[WARNING] With EMER HYD in use, _______.
flight control inputs and elevated G loading must be kept to an absolute minimum
62
[WARNING] In static conditions the EMER HYD will bleed down in approx. ___. At 1 hz rate, this may be as little as _____.
6 minutes | 30-41 seconds
63
[WARNING] EMER HYD - the amount of control may be reduced to zero depending on ______.
the location and severity of HYD fluid loss within UTIL sys
64
[WARNING] Once the EMER HYD button is pressed on, _____.
it must remain on
65
When will flight control loss occur when EMER HYD is engaged?
approx. 1650 psi
66
[WARNING] Failure of ______ would result in complete loss of all AC power and failure of PRI and UTIL HYD sys. LAND WITHOUT DELAY.
PRI and secondary drives to accessory GRBX
67
How many warnings are associated with the HYD system? What are they?
(6) IMMEDIATE ACTION / Less CNTRL Inputs / 6min, 30-41s / LOCATION of LEAK / once ON stays ON / pri/sec drive fail = LAND
68
[WARNING] Activation of the canopy jettison with the cockpit partially or fully submerged will ________.
generate a pressure wave that may result in crew injury / death
69
What is paramount if you are going to ditch overwater? Why?
CANOPY JETTISON | IMPLOSION
70
BUCS - The CPG should only activate the BUCS trigger if _____________.
the PLT is incapable of maintaining control of the aircraft
71
[WARNING] If BUCS has been activated, attempt to land ___________.
as far away from any known transmitters as practical
72
[WARNING] Main Rotor Components: a decision must be made to egress _____.
before or after the main rotor has stopped
73
[CAUTION] If the stabilator schedules down uncommanded, do not _________.
do not reduce collective as it may aggravate the nose-down attitude
74
[CAUTION] Should both EGIs become unaligned, only ________.
position updates can be attempted in flight
75
If EGI in flight alignment is not possible, limit airspeed to ____ and _____.
80 KTAS and monitor STAB position, land as soon as practicable
76
[CAUTION] Do not jettison a Hellfire if _____.
a hangfire is in progress
77
[WARNING] IHADSS/TADS/PNVS - if errors in NOE environment, _____. Do not perform a long ____ in an NOE environment.
exit the NOE environment | SANUC
78
[WARNING] While in single DP operation, the format presented (including WPNs) __________.
could belong to the opposite crewmember
79
Once a DP has failed, it will not be recognized as functioning again for a minimum of ____.
10 seconds
80
What UFD message is an indication of a failed SP switchover?
NO UFD COMMUNICATIONS WITH SP
81
DUAL SP FAILURE - attempting to change NVS mode will result in ___.
extreme NVS system degradation
82
[CAUTION] Delays of up to ___ could be encountered between the onset of a MSTR CAUT/WARN and an autopage.
3 seconds
83
[NOTE] During maneuvering flight, a momentary reduction of OIL PSI may occur in XMSN and NGB. As long as ____, no action is required.
the caution is cleared within 10 seconds of returning to stable flight
84
[NOTE] During approaches, maneuvering flight, the GRBX VIB caution may be indicated. As long as ____, no action is required.
the condition is cleared within 10 seconds after exiting the environment