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Limits and EPs > Chapter 9 - EP W/C/A/N > Flashcards

Chapter 9 - EP W/C/A/N Flashcards

1
Q

[WARNING] In the event of a procedural difference between the written and displayed EP, _________.

A

the steps in this chapter take precedence

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2
Q

The most important single consideration is ________. All procedures are subordinate to this requirement.

A

helicopter control

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3
Q

When continued flight is in question, due to loss of Nr or power, the immediate corrective action should be _____.

A

to adjust the collective to maintain Nr within limits and jettisoning of wing stores

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4
Q

Jettisoning of wing stores will reduce power requirement by approx. __% TQ per ___lbs of weight reduction.

A

1% TQ per 200lbs

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5
Q

MSTR WARN and MSTR CAUT buttons should be ______ to allow ______.

A

reset after each malfunction

systems to respond to subsequent malfunctions

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6
Q

If time permits during an emergency situation, the crew must consider ______.

A

transmitting a Mayday call, selecting XPNDR on the EMER Panel and locking shoulder harness

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7
Q

[CAUTION] When shutting down an engine that has malfunctioned in flight, it is important to ________.

A

identify the malfunctioning engine to avoid shutting down the wrong engine

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8
Q

[CAUTION] After shutdown, if TGT rises above ___*C, or there is evidence of combustion, _______.

A

540*C

place the ENG START switch in IGN ORIDE and motor the ENG until TGT

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9
Q

Engine shutdown in flight is usually not an immediate action item unless ______.

A

a fire exists

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10
Q

Before attempting an EMER ENG shutdown in flight, identify the affected engine by checking ________.

A

engine out warning messages on EUFD, ENG page - TGT, TQ, Np, Ng, OIL PSI

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11
Q

What is the after emergency action once emergency actions have been taken and the aircraft is on the ground?

A

Make an entry in Remarks section of DA FORM 2408-13-1 describing the malfunction. GND and FLT Ops will cease on until corrective action has been taken.

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12
Q

[WARNING] Activation of the canopy removal system when ________ are present in the cockpit can result in ______. Alternative?

A

combustible fuel/vapors
an explosion/fire
Consider survival knife if helicopter has rolled onto its side.

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13
Q

[WARNING] Continuing to ______ can cause the actuator to jam and prevent operation of the canopy jettison system.

A

twist the canopy jettison handle while pushing

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14
Q

[WARNING] What do you do if the canopy jettison system fails?

A

Use your survival knife

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15
Q

[WARNING] In all cases of canopy jettison, remain clear of canopy side panels to ________.

A

avoid high velocity canopy fragments

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16
Q

[WARNING] If emergency egress is required before rotor blades have stopped, ___________.

A

ensure MSTR IGN - BATT and cyclic remains centered to prevent rotors from striking personnel, fuselage, ground

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17
Q

With regards to the CANOPY JETTISON system, how many warnings are there and what are they?

A

(6) FIRE / JAM / KNIFE / CLEAR / BATT Egress / VISOR

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18
Q

[WARNING] To prevent eye injury, PLT and CPG ______ should be down prior to canopy jettison. Debris may be expelled ____ outward.

A

helmet visors

50 feet

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19
Q

[NOTE] _________ STORES JETTISON panel can dis-arm it. Once armed, _______.

A

Only the crew station arming the

either crewstation can activate jettison

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20
Q

What is the warning associated with the fire extinguisher?

A

Exposure to high concentrations of the agent can cause frostbite or low-temp burns and should be avoided.

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21
Q

[NOTE] How long must the fire detection test switch be held in position 1 or 2? What happens if you fail to do so?

A

approx. 2 seconds

Crew will not receive a proper response and may not receive full voice warning

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22
Q

[WARNING] Ensure aircraft controls are configured for _______ prior to pressing the ____ pushbutton.

A

single engine operation

FIRE

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23
Q

[WARNING] Pressing the FIRE pushbutton (illuminated or not) will _______. This action can only be reversed from the same crewstation.

A

shut off fuel to the selected ENG or APU

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24
Q

[NOTE] When will the FIRE pushbutton light extinguish? How is the system reset?

A

when the sensors no longer detect a fire

same crewstation must deselect the FIRE pushbutton

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25
Q

[NOTE] What turns off automatically upon illumination of an ENG FIRE pushbutton?

A

Air Particle Seperator

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26
Q

What happens when a FIRE pushbutton is pressed? (6)

A

Arms Extng System / Shuts off fuel / Shuts off BLEED AIR / Closes fire louvers / Stops voice WRN / Extinguishes MSTR WARN light

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27
Q

How many pneumatic fire/overheat detectors are located in the aft deck area?

A

three

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28
Q

[CAUTION] When should the MASTER ZEROIZE switch be used?

A

only when the compromise of classified information to hostile forces is imminent.

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29
Q

What does the MSTR ZEROIZE erase? Not erase?

A

YES: all low dollar zeroize (comms and XPNDR) in addition to non-volatile memory of FCR and DTC
NO: ASE User Data Modules (UDM)

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30
Q

When will the ELT arm?

When shall tests be performed (if performed)?

A

CRASH (gravity) or MANUALLY

first five minutes after the hour

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31
Q

How is the underwater acoustic beacon actuated?

A

by water

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32
Q

What does pressing the GUARD button do?

A

turns UHF to guard freq and auto-RTS to UHF. Pressing again swaps PRI and STBY freq on UHF.

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33
Q

What does pressing the XPNDR button do?

Note: works whether in NORM or STBY

A

7700 in mode 3/A.

Auto-MAYDAY msg to all URNs in BFT

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34
Q

What does the “low-dollar” zeroize switch do?

A

zeoize all classified com data and XPNDR data (mode 4)

35
Q

[WARNING] Prior to movement of either POWER lever, it is imperative that ______.

A

the malfunctioning ENG and corresponding power lever be identified.

36
Q

The collective should NOT be reduced if an engine fails and the helicopter is below ___ feet.

A

15

37
Q

During single or dual engine failure, what consideration will reduce immediate power requirements other than wing stores jettison?

A

right banking turn or right pedal input

38
Q

In AUTO, maintain airspeed of ______. As airspeed increases above ____, _____. Below ____, _____.

A

77 - 107 KTAS
70-80 KTAS, rate of descent and glide distance increase significantly
70 KTAS, descent increases and glide distance decreases

39
Q

What are the four ways an ENG performance may limit?

A

TGT FUEL FLOW Ng MACH

40
Q

The aircrew should not engage any hold modes when operating near the _____.

A

DE Limiter Setting

41
Q

[WARNING] With the POWER levers at FLY, resetting the ENG CHOP button will cause _______.

A

an erroneous ENG 1 and ENG 2 OUT warning

42
Q

[WARNING] A failed ENG should not be restarted unless ________.

A

it can be determined that it is reasonably safe to do so

43
Q

[WARNING] When restarting ENG1 after an ENG failure in flight, ____________.

A

a malfunctioning XFEED valve could cause there remaining ENG to fail

44
Q

[Note] Inflight restarts do not need to ___.

A

utilize a warm start procedure

45
Q

[WARNING] When may an engine start be attempted after an aborted start?

A

After the nacelle is opened and inspected for fuel

46
Q

What does advancing the POWER lever to LOCKOUT do?

A

locks out the DECU thus disabling TGT limiting for that ENG

47
Q

Failure of the alternator will cause _____.

A

MSTR WARN and ENG OUT voice warning, and a loss of Ng sensor for that engine.

48
Q

What are the three windings of the alternator?

A

ENG Ignition, Ng sensor, power for DECU

49
Q

[CAUTION] Increasing collective with ENG CHOP without first retarding POWER LEVER to OFF will cause _______.

A

engine acceleration and uncommanded yaw

50
Q

Loss of Tail Rotor Thrust

[WARNING] If airspeed is allowed to approach ___, the sideslip angle may become sever and _______.

A

ETL

helicopter control may be lost

51
Q

Loss of tail rotor thrust: ______ will _____, drag, and improve air flow over the vertical fin.

A

jettisoning of wing stores will reduce gross weight

52
Q

For fixed pitch landings:
ADVANCING PWR LEVERS - Nose ____
RETARDING PWR LEVERS - Nose ____

A

right

left

53
Q

[CAUTION] When a clutch fails to disengage, damage to the affected engine will result (due to ______), if ______.

A

lack of oil pressure

both engines are not shutdown simultaneoulsy

54
Q

[CAUTION] When a clutch fails to engage, do not _______. Damage may result if there is _____.

A

shutdown both ENGs simultaneously

sudden engagement

55
Q

[WARNING] Prior to moving POWER lever or pressing any ENG FIRE button, either ____________.

A

achieve safe single engine airspeed or prepare for a single engine landing

56
Q

[CAUTION] What consideration should be given IOT prevent smoke/fumes from entering crewstations during actual or suspected FIRE incidents?

A

power off Environmental Control System via AC UTIL page

57
Q

For electrical fire, what considerations must be made prior to shutting off electrical equipment?

A

Flight Environment (FLT instruments, controls, etc.) Note: with electrical pwr off, ENG A-ICE is automatically turned on

58
Q

[NOTE] In-Flight electrical system malfunction may cause ____ for as long as ___ seconds. On the ground: ___ seconds.

A

MPD blanking 6

12

59
Q

[NOTE] Failure or reset of GEN 2 can result in _____ and ____ and a loss of one or more _____. After completing GEN 2 FAIL EP, _____.

A

BUCS FAIL FMC DISENGAGE
FMC Channels
reengage FMC channels

60
Q

[NOTE] A battery charged to __% will normally supply the battery busses for approx. __minutes at __*C.

A

80% 12 min 25*C

61
Q

[WARNING] With EMER HYD in use, _______.

A

flight control inputs and elevated G loading must be kept to an absolute minimum

62
Q

[WARNING] In static conditions the EMER HYD will bleed down in approx. ___. At 1 hz rate, this may be as little as _____.

A

6 minutes

30-41 seconds

63
Q

[WARNING] EMER HYD - the amount of control may be reduced to zero depending on ______.

A

the location and severity of HYD fluid loss within UTIL sys

64
Q

[WARNING] Once the EMER HYD button is pressed on, _____.

A

it must remain on

65
Q

When will flight control loss occur when EMER HYD is engaged?

A

approx. 1650 psi

66
Q

[WARNING] Failure of ______ would result in complete loss of all AC power and failure of PRI and UTIL HYD sys. LAND WITHOUT DELAY.

A

PRI and secondary drives to accessory GRBX

67
Q

How many warnings are associated with the HYD system? What are they?

A

(6) IMMEDIATE ACTION / Less CNTRL Inputs / 6min, 30-41s / LOCATION of LEAK / once ON stays ON / pri/sec drive fail = LAND

68
Q

[WARNING] Activation of the canopy jettison with the cockpit partially or fully submerged will ________.

A

generate a pressure wave that may result in crew injury / death

69
Q

What is paramount if you are going to ditch overwater? Why?

A

CANOPY JETTISON

IMPLOSION

70
Q

BUCS - The CPG should only activate the BUCS trigger if _____________.

A

the PLT is incapable of maintaining control of the aircraft

71
Q

[WARNING] If BUCS has been activated, attempt to land ___________.

A

as far away from any known transmitters as practical

72
Q

[WARNING] Main Rotor Components: a decision must be made to egress _____.

A

before or after the main rotor has stopped

73
Q

[CAUTION] If the stabilator schedules down uncommanded, do not _________.

A

do not reduce collective as it may aggravate the nose-down attitude

74
Q

[CAUTION] Should both EGIs become unaligned, only ________.

A

position updates can be attempted in flight

75
Q

If EGI in flight alignment is not possible, limit airspeed to ____ and _____.

A

80 KTAS and monitor STAB position, land as soon as practicable

76
Q

[CAUTION] Do not jettison a Hellfire if _____.

A

a hangfire is in progress

77
Q

[WARNING] IHADSS/TADS/PNVS - if errors in NOE environment, _____. Do not perform a long ____ in an NOE environment.

A

exit the NOE environment

SANUC

78
Q

[WARNING] While in single DP operation, the format presented (including WPNs) __________.

A

could belong to the opposite crewmember

79
Q

Once a DP has failed, it will not be recognized as functioning again for a minimum of ____.

A

10 seconds

80
Q

What UFD message is an indication of a failed SP switchover?

A

NO UFD COMMUNICATIONS WITH SP

81
Q

DUAL SP FAILURE - attempting to change NVS mode will result in ___.

A

extreme NVS system degradation

82
Q

[CAUTION] Delays of up to ___ could be encountered between the onset of a MSTR CAUT/WARN and an autopage.

A

3 seconds

83
Q

[NOTE] During maneuvering flight, a momentary reduction of OIL PSI may occur in XMSN and NGB. As long as ____, no action is required.

A

the caution is cleared within 10 seconds of returning to stable flight

84
Q

[NOTE] During approaches, maneuvering flight, the GRBX VIB caution may be indicated. As long as ____, no action is required.

A

the condition is cleared within 10 seconds after exiting the environment

Limits and EPs (6 decks)

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