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Limits and EPs > Chapter 8 - Normal Procedures > Flashcards

Chapter 8 - Normal Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Mission planning begins when the _______ and extends to the ______ of the helicopter. It includes:

A

mission is assigned <> preflight

Check of limits/restrictions, Weight/Balance, PPC, Pubs, Flight Plan, Crew Briefing

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2
Q

Mission related information may be transferred to the aircraft ______.

A

via the DTC

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3
Q

The preflight may be made as comprehensive as _______ at the discretion of the _______.

A

conditions warrant

PC

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4
Q

[WARNING] Do not preflight or postflight until __________.

A

armament systems are safe

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5
Q

[WARNING] All __________ shall be installed when the helicopter is on the ground and removed prior to flight.

A

ASE and pylon safety pins

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6
Q

[WARNING] During preflight, and after _______ when the AWS was used, the barrel will be inspected for ______.

A

all live fires

cracks

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7
Q

[NOTE] Check ________ to verify rocket zone loading in addition to physical check.

A

Load Maintenance Panel (LMP)

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8
Q

[CAUTION] Closing two or more gaspers will cause the blower to operate in a _______, increasing _____. Operating will all gaspers closed may cause ________.

A

stall region….. noise levels

the blower to overheat and shutdown

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9
Q

[CAUTION] To prevent heat damage to the SP, the APU must be started with ____ of the initiation of battery ops when FAT > ___, within ____ when FAT is ____, and within ___ when FAT < ___.

A

1 minute - FAT > 43C
3 minute - FAT 32-43C
20 min - FAT < 32*C

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10
Q

[NOTE] When starting the A/C on EXT PWR, pausing at the BATT position for more than ____ before rotating the MSTR IGN switch to the EXT PWR position will ____.

A

10 seconds

preclude the IDM from functioning

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11
Q

[WARNING] To prevent injury to personnel, ensure _________ are clear prior to operating the APU.

A

pylons/stabilator

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12
Q

[WARNING] Do not _________ with ____ engaged. ______ engagement may be cleared by applying hydraulic power and completing a __________.

A

start engines…. BUCS

BUCS….. FLT CNTRLS IBIT

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13
Q

[NOTE] Loss of aircraft power to DEC will generate ______.

A

No fault codes

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14
Q

[NOTE] Maintenance action is required after _____ failures of the ______ IBIT.

A

two consecutive

FLT CNTRLS

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15
Q

[CAUTION] The crew will ensure that both EGIs have ______. This will prevent erroneous velocity data signals from the EGIs being sent to the FMC, which ______.

A

aligned properly

should prevent an uncommanded scheduling of the stabilator.

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16
Q

[CAUTION] In the event that one or both EGIs will not align after initial startup or after performing ON-ground Manual Reset and Alignment Procedures, _______.

A

the aircraft shall not be flown until cleared by maintenance personnel.

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17
Q

[CAUTION] With both EGIs disabled, _________. Manual control of the stabilator will be required. The ____ will remain operational if required.

A

FMC functions such as SAS and Hold Modes will not be available….. BUCS

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18
Q

[CAUTION] Engine starts above ________, may be unsuccessful and require an abort because of exceeding the temperature limits.

A

6000’ Density Altitude

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19
Q

[CAUTION] If nose gearbox heaters are active and left powered on for an extended period of time, ______________.

A

damage could result to the nose gearbox housing.

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20
Q

[CAUTION] During a rotor brake LOCK start, if rotor blades begin to rotate: Set RTR BRK switch to - ____.

A

OFF

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21
Q

[CAUTION] If ENG 1 or ENG 2 start advisory remains displayed after ________: Position ENG START switch to IGN ORIDE, then _____.

A

66%-68% Ng

OFF

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22
Q

[CAUTION] During ENG Start, TGT must be less than ____ before moving the power lever to IDLE.

A

80*C

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23
Q

A “Normal Start” is used if the engine was shutdown at least _______ ago.

A

4 hours

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24
Q

During WARM start: IGN ORIDE, allow ___ to increase to _____ then OFF. After the first engine is placed in the OFF position, motoring of the second engine is permitted.

A

Ng

18%-20%

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25
Q

When performing a cross-start (no APU), ensure Ng of opposite engine is ___ Ng. This will ensure sufficient IPAS air is supplied.

A

95% Ng

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26
Q

[CAUTION] Prior advancing POWER levers, ensure that both engines are stabilized (________).

A

Np, Ng, TQ, and Oil PSI

27
Q

[CAUTION] While advancing POWER levers to FLY, ensure that both engines indicate a rise in ___ to confirm that the ___________ are engaged.

A

TQ

sprag clutches

28
Q

[CAUTION] If an engine indicates near 0% TQ, _______.

A

retard POWER lever of affected ENG to OFF

29
Q

[WARNING] Do not cycle anti-ice bleed and start valve more than _____ to determine _________. Valve malfunction can cause ENG flameout. Do NOT fly the aircraft if TGT rise is less than ____ or switch cycling is required.

A

ONCE…. proper operation

50*C

30
Q

[CAUTION] When operating at high power settings, ensure anti-ice is in the _ mode. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _ _ _ could result in severe Np/Nr droop.

A

MANUAL

high power settings

31
Q

[NOTE] When using TGT reference table, FAT must be rounded _ and pressure altitude must be _ _ to the nearest value.

A

up

rounded off

32
Q

[NOTE] If the UNLOCK pushbutton fails to illuminate, _ _ _ _ _ _ _ light pedal inputs.

A

taxi forward a short distance while making

33
Q

[CAUTION] Excessive cyclic displacement with low power settings will result in _ _ _.

A

droop stop pounding

34
Q

[CAUTION] Excessive forward cyclic displacement with low power settings will result in _ _ _ _.

A

high strap pack loads

35
Q

[NOTE] If you have been operating the TADS/PNVS on the ground for _ _ _ _, perform a _ before takeoff.

A

15 minutes or longer

SANUC

36
Q

[NOTE] Anytime the load or environmental conditions increase significantly (_ _ _ _, _, or _ _), the aircrew will perform additional power checks.

A

1,000 lbs gross weight, 5*C, or 1,000’ PA

37
Q

NOE/A mode may be engaged at any time, however stabilator will not schedule until TAS < _ KTAS.

A

80 KTAS

38
Q

The MANUAL stabilator mode is used for positioning the stabilator to help minimize _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _.

A

minimize airframe vibrations when hovering in crosswinds or tail winds

39
Q

[NOTE] Prior to landing, external stores may be placed in the _ _ _ by selecting the _ _ button on the WPN UTIL page.

A

ground stow position

GROUND STOW

40
Q

[WARNING] The potential exists for accidental dispensing of CMDS during hot reload. The CMDS must be selected as _ on the _ page of the MPD and the safety pin installed by the ground crew.

A

SAFE on the ASE page

41
Q

[CAUTION] PLT and CPG shall perform their _ _ _ prior to entering the FARP.

A

armament safety checks

42
Q

[CAUTION] Radio transmissions shall be limited to _ _ _ until refueling has been completed.

A

EMERGENCIES ONLY

43
Q

[NOTE] When icing conditions exist or are predicted, the _____ located on each hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ____ position.

A

ARM/SAFE

ARM

44
Q

[NOTE] When icing conditions exist, ensure that TADS/PNVS _______ are free of ___.

A

gear teeth

ice

45
Q

[NOTE] Some thru-flight data will be lost unless the THRU-FLIGHT button is selected within ____ of power-up.

A

one minute

46
Q

[NOTE] Loss of aircraft power to the DEC will generate _______.

A

no fault codes

47
Q

[NOTE] If one or both EGIs displays a position error greater than ____ from the AC’s known position, or if EGI OP Check is out of tolerance, ______.

A

one nautical mile

perform the on ground manual reset and alignment procedure

48
Q

[NOTE] If HDG selection is not displayed or is removed while the current position data is being entered, ________ and then quickly _____ re-enter the current position.

A

perform an INU1 and INU2 reset

within one minute

49
Q

[NOTE] When using TGT reference table, FAT must be rounded ___ and PA must be rounded off to the _____.

A

UP

nearest value

50
Q

[CAUTION] To prevent damage to the engines, the AI system shall be manually activated when _________.

A

the aircraft is flown in visible moisture and the FAT is less than 5*C

51
Q

[CAUTION] When operating at high power settings, ensure AI is in the ____ mode. Failure of the AI/detector during high power settings could result in _____.

A

manual

sever Np/Nr droop

52
Q

[CAUTION] Care should be exercised when operating the helicopter in rough terrain to prevent damage to the _____.

A

underside antennae

53
Q

[CAUTION] When conducting RAPID refueling / rearming, the BFT must be _____.

A

switched OFF to prevent it from emitting network pings

54
Q

[CAUTION] If the APU is INOP got to _______. Failure to comply will result in loss of operating systems displays and indicating systems during shutdown

A

ENGINE SHUTDOWN (EXT PWR) PLT/CPG

55
Q

[CAUTION] If an ENG is shut down EMER Shutdown without cooling for 2 min and it must be restarted, it must be done within ___ or must be allowed to cool for ____.

A

5 minutes

4 hours

56
Q

[CAUTION] In the event of an Nr sensor malfunction, go to ________. Failure to follow this procedure could result in damage to ______.

A 
ENG SHUTDOWN (EXT PWR) PLT/CPG
APU, APU clutch, APU driveshaft and XMSN ACC Gearbox
57
Q

[NOTE] APU may be started at anytime when the aircraft is _____.

A

on the ground

58
Q

How long may HIT/A-ICE checks be deterred when operating in adverse conditions (dust, desert, beach, river bed)

A

5 flight hours maximum

59
Q

[CAUTION] Ice removal shall never be done by _______. Remove ice by _____.

A

scraping or chipping

applying heat or de-ice liquid

60
Q

[WARNING] When between 4.5C and 21C and > 70% humidity: set cockpit temperature to ____ and select ____. Select _____ for the remainder of the flight.

A

60*F DEFOG OFF

CANOPY ANTI-ICE ON

61
Q

[NOTE] If a crewmember must change the cockpit temperature, change the temperature in ______ IOT prevent ____.

A

one cockpit at a time

the possibility of both cockpits fogging at the same time

62
Q

[CAUTION] Between __ and ___*C, the TADS should be manually selected off after powerup IOT prevent degradation / damage.

A

4C - 30C

63
Q

What is the maximum wind velocity for rotor start or stop?

A

45 KTAS

64
Q

For moderate turbulence, what should airspeed be limited to?

A

150 KTAS

Limits and EPs (6 decks)

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