Chapter 9 - Emergency Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

[WARNING] In the event of a procedural difference between the written and displayed EMER procedure, the steps _________ take precedence.

A

in this chapter

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2
Q

During an emergency, what is the most important single consideration?

A

helicopter control

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3
Q

Every ____ lbs. of jettisoned wing stores equates to __ torque reduction.

A

200 lbs = 1% TQ

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4
Q

When continued flight is in question, the immediate corrective action should be to ___________.

A

Adjust collective to maintain Nr within limits and jettisoning of the aircraft wing stores.

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5
Q

What should be reset after each malfunction? Why?

A

MSTR WARN and MSTR CAUT buttons. Subsequent malfunctions

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6
Q

Whenever possible, check the _________ against the _________ to __________.

A

caution or advisory message <> appropriate MPD page <> verify that a malfunction has occurred.

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7
Q

During an emergency, and when time permits, the crew should attempt to ___________.

A

1) transmit a MAYDAY call
2) select the XPNDR button on the emergency panel
3) lock shoulder harnesses

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8
Q

Define LAND WITHOUT DELAY

A

A landing in which the primary consideration is continued control of the aircraft and survival of the occupants. It is meant to be more urgent than Land as Soon as Possible

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9
Q

Define LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

A

Landing at the nearest suitable landing area (i.e. an open field) without delay. The primary consideration is to ensure the survival of the occupants.

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10
Q

Define LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE

A

Landing at a suitable landing area. The primary consideration is the urgency of the emergency.

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11
Q

Define AUTOROTATE

A

Adjusting the flight controls as necessary to establish an autorotational descent and landing.

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12
Q

After shutdown, what should you do if TGT rises above ____*C or if there is evidence as indicated in a rapid rise in TGT?

A

540*C

place the ENG START switch in IGN ORIDE until TGT is below 540*C

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13
Q

Define EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

A

An engine shutdown without delay

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14
Q

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

A

(1) POWER lever (affected engine) - OFF

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15
Q

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN is not an immediate action item in flight unless _______.

A

a fire exists

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16
Q

What are the two methods of WING STORES JETTISON?

A

Emergency and Selective

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17
Q

After a malfunction of equipment has occurred, _____ have been taken and the helicopter is ____, an entry will be made in the ____ Section of DA FORM ____ describing the malfunction. ___ and ____ operations will be ___ until _____.

A

appropriate emergency actions on the ground REMARKS 2408-13-1 Ground and Flight discontinued until corrective action has been taken.

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18
Q

If the aircraft has rolled on its side and fuel vapors have gathered on the ground - _____ can occur if ____ is used.

A

an explosion

canopy jettison

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19
Q

________ can cause the canopy jettison actuator to jam.

What should be done if the canopy jettison doesn’t work?

A

continuing to twist while pushing

use the personal survival knife

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20
Q

If emergency egress is required before the rotor blades have stopped, ensure ______ and _______.

A

MSTR IGN - BATT

cyclic remains centered

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21
Q

EMERGENCY EGRESS

A

Helmet Visors - Down
Area around helicopter - Clear of personnel
CANOPY JETTISON handle - Turn 90*, release, then push to jettison canopy

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22
Q

Debris from the canopy jettison may be expelled ___ outward.

A

50 feet

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23
Q

[NOTE] Only the crew station arming the STORES JETTISON panel can ______. Once armed, ______.

A

disarm it.

either crewstation can activate jettison

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24
Q

[WARNING] Ensure aircraft controls are configured for _____ prior to pressing the FIRE pushbutton.

A

single engine operation

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25
Whether illuminated or not, pressing a fire pushbutton will __________.
shut off fuel to the selected engine or APU
26
What does the MASTER ZEROIZE switch NOT zeroize?
any of the ASE User Data Module (UDM) info
27
On the EMERGENCY panel, what does the zeroize switch actually zeroize?
Mission Data (COMSEC variables, FM Hopsets, Nonvolatile Memory, etc.)
28
What does the GUARD button do on the EMERGENCY panel?
Tunes UHF to guard frequency | Auto-RTS to UHF
29
What does the XPNDR button on the Emergency panel do?
Squawks code 7700 | auto-BFT MAYDAY
30
The collective should not be reduced when an engine fails and the aircraft is hovering below ___ feet.
15 feet
31
During autorotation, the desired airspeed is _______. | Above 70-80 KTAS - ______ increases. Below 70 KTAS, _____ but ____.
77-107 KTAS rate of descent and glide distance increases rate of descent increases, glide distance decreases
32
When executing an autorotation, use aft cyclic to decelerate at ______ AGL.
75 to 125 feet AGL
33
INDICATION: rapid drop in Ng, Np, torque, TGT, oil PSI and the symbolic TQ value on MPD/HMD displays flashing
ENGINE FAILURE
34
If having to perform a hovering autorotation, what is the most important consideration?
maintaining a level attitude
35
The aircrew should not engage any hold modes when operating ____________.
near the dual engine limiter setting
36
**DUAL ENG FAILURE**
(1) Autorotate (2) Chop Button - Reset only if an ENG chop warning message is present. Reset may be accomplished by either crewmember (3) Wing Stores Jettison - As Appropriate
37
When should an ENG restart in flight be attempted? | What is the danger?
If it can be determined that it is reasonably safe. | Malfunctioning XFEED causes remaining ENG to fail
38
Aborted ENG starts may cause fuel to collect in the ENG nacelle. Subsequent starts may be attempted only after __________.
the nacelle is inspected for fuel
39
What are the abort start criteria?
Within 45 seconds of PWR LVR to idle, no TGT / Np / Oil PSI rise. If ENG START advisory removed prior to 52% Ng or apparent TGT will exceed 851*C prior to 63% Ng
40
**ABORT START**
(1) POWER lever - OFF | (2) ENG START switch - IGN ORIDE for 30 seconds and TGT is below 540*C
41
**SINGLE ENGINE FAILURE**
(1) Airspeed - Adjust as Appropriate (2) Wing Stores Jettison - As Appropriate (3) LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE
42
MIN Rate of Descent Airspeed = | MAX Glide Distance Airspeed =
77 KTAS | 107 KTAS
43
**ENG OVERSPEED - Np FAILED HIGH**
(1) Collective - Adjust to maintain Nr within limits If condition persists: (2) POWER lever (affected ENG) - Retard to equalize torque (3) LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE
44
**LOW RPM ROTOR - Np FAILED LOW**
(1) Collective - Adjust to maintain Nr within limits If condition persists: (2) POWER lever (aff eng) - LOCKOUT and then retard to equalize torque output of both engines. (3) If manual control is not possible: (4) POWER lever (aff eng) - IDLE. (5) Land as soon as pract
45
What does advancing the POWER lever to LOCKOUT do?
Locks out the DECU and disables the TGT limiting for that engine
46
INDICATION: engine operation remains normal. Ng indication lost - MSTR WARN light and ENG OUT voice & UFD messages.
complete failure of an alternator
47
What are the three windings on the alternator?
ignition power Ng speed indication DECU
48
INDICATION: loud bang or popping noise, possible aircraft yaw, rapid increase in TGT and fluctuations in Ng, TQ, and Np
ENGINE COMPRESSOR STALL
49
**ENGINE COMPRESSOR STALL**
(1) Collective - Reduce. If condition persists: (2) POWER lever (aff eng) - Retard. If TGT decreases and there is no further evidence of a stall: (3) POWER lever (aff eng) - FLY. If stall condition returns: (4) POWER lever (aff eng) - IDLE. (5) Land as soon as practicable
50
During TAIL ROTOR fixed pitch or lost thrust situations, ________ to reduce gross weight, drag, and improve air flow over the vertical fin.
jettison wing stores
51
**LOSS OF T/R THRUST - CON'T FLIGHT POSSIBLE**
(1) Airspeed - 100 KTAS min (until 10 to 20 ft above touchdown). (2) Wing Stores Jettison - As appropriate. (3) POWER levers - Retard as necessary (5 to 10 ft above touchdown)
52
**LOSS OF T/R THRUST - CON'T FLIGHT NOT POSSIBLE**
(1) Collective reduce (compromise between rate of turn and rate of descent). (2) Wing Stores Jettison - As appropriate. (3) Minimize rate of descent (10 to 20 ft above touchdown). (4) POWER levers - OFF (5 to 10 ft above touchdown)
53
INDICATIONS: erratic TQ indication on affected engine, complete loss of TQ indication on affected engine, Np of affected engine exceeding Nr
MAIN XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE
54
XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE (IN FLIGHT) | Np (affected ENG) is below Nr.
CLUTCH IS DISENGAGED | (1) POWER lever (aff eng) - IDLE. (2) EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (aff eng). (3) Land as soon as practicable
55
XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE (IN FLIGHT) | Np (affected ENG) does not drop below below Nr.
CLUTCH FAILED TO DISENGAGE | 1) POWER lever (aff eng) - IDLE. (2) Land as soon as possible. (3) EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN (both engs simultaneously
56
XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE (ON GROUND) | with indications that a clutch has failed to engage
(1) EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (aff eng only). (2) Check Ng is less than 10% (aff eng). (3) Normal engine shutdown - Perform
57
XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE (ON GROUND) | with indications that a clutch has failed to disengage
EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN (both eng simultaneously)
58
[WARNING] Prior to moving POWER lever or pressing any ENG FIRE button, either _____________.
achieve a safe single engine airspeed or prepare for a single engine landing
59
IOT prevent smoke or fume inhalation, consideration should be given to ___________ during all FIRE incidents. Be advised: ____________.
power off the ECS | prolonged operations with ECS off may cause damage to some avionics systems
60
ENGINE FIRE (in flight)
(1) EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (aff eng) - when conditions permit. (2) Illuminated ENG FIRE button - Press and RDY light illuminates. (3) FIRE DISCH button(s) - Press. (4) Land as soon as possible.
61
ENGINE FIRE (on ground)
(1) EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN. (2) Illuminated ENG FIRE button - Press and RDY light illuminates. (3) FIRE DISCH button(s) - Press.
62
APU FIRE (on ground)
(1) APU - OFF. (2) Illuminated APU FIRE button - Press and RDY light illuminates. (3) FIRE DISCH button(s) - Press
63
APU FIRE (in flight)
(1) Illuminated APU FIRE button - Press and RDY light illuminates. (2) FIRE DISCH button(s) - Press. (3) Land as soon as possible
64
DECK FIRE
Land as soon as possible
65
FUSELAGE FIRE ON GROUND
``` EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN APU - OFF (if applicable) ```
66
If electrical power is lost, what is automatically turned on? (it results in a loss in TQ available)
ENG ANTI-ICE
67
ELECTRICAL FIRE IN FLIGHT
(1) GEN1 and GEN2 - OFF (SYS page) | (2) LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
68
SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION
(1) Airspeed - Slow to 20KTAS maximum (2) Canopy door (affected crew station) - Open to intermediate position (3) Land as soon as possible
69
In the event of an in-flight electrical system malfunction, the power interrupt protection may cause ______. On ground ______ due to extended duration of BIT cycle.
MPD blanking for as long as 6 seconds | 12 seconds
70
Failure or reset of GEN2 can result in ________. What must be done after resetting GEN2?
BUCS FAIL caution and FMC disengage on one or more channels. Re-engage FMC channels.
71
A battery charged to 80% will normally supply the battery busses for approximately ______ at 25*C. Time decreases if the temperature is increased or decreased from 25*C.
12 minutes
72
DUAL GEN FAILURE / COMPLETE LOSS OF ELECTRICAL POWER
(1) GEN1 and GEN2 - Reset Pilot GEN RST panel | If condition persists: (2) Land as soon as possible.
73
SINGLE GEN / RTRU FAILURE
(1) Affected GEN1 or GEN2 - Reset Pilot GEN RST panel | If condition persists: (2) Land as soon as practicable
74
DUAL TRU FAILURE
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
75
With emergency hydraulic power in use _____________ must be kept to an absolute minimum.
flight control inputs and elevated G loading
76
In static conditions the (emer) hydraulics will bleed down in approx. _____. If the controls are moved continuously at approx. 1hz rate, this may be as little as _______.
6 minutes | 30 to 41 seconds
77
Once the EMER HYD pushbutton is pressed ON, it ________. When does flight control loss occur?
must remain on | When emer hyd psi drops to approx. 1650 PSI.
78
PRI HYD PSI LOW & UTIL HYD PSI LOW
(1) EMER HYD button - Press ON (2) LAND WITHOUT DELAY (3) EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN
79
PRI HYD PSI LOW & UTIL HYD LEVEL LOW
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
80
EMER LANDING IN WOODED AREA (power off)
AUTOROTATE - Apply full collective to decay rotor RPM as helicopter settles
81
DITCHING (power on)
1) Approach to a hover, 2) Canopies - Jettison prior to entering water, 3) Pilot shoulder harness - Lock, 4) CPG - Exit helicopter, 5) Hover downwind a safe distance, 6) POWER levers - OFF, 7) Perform hovering autorotation - Apply full collective to decay RPM as helicopter settles, 8) Cyclic - Position in direction of roll, 9) Exit when main rotor has stopped
82
DITCHING (power off)
1) AUTOROTATE - apply full collective to decay rotor RPM as helicopter settles, 2) Canopies - Jettison prior to entering water, 3) Cyclic - position in direction of roll, 4) Exit when main rotor has stopped
83
INDICATIONS: varying degrees of feedback, binding, resistance, sloppiness or abnormal control responses
FAILURE OF COMPONENTS WITHIN FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
84
BUCS FAIL | BUCS ON
(1) Land as soon as possible (2) APU - ON (3) EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN
85
MAIN ROTOR COMPONENTS FAILURE
``` LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN ```
86
Depending on airspeed, what component failure can cause un-commanded scheduling down of the stabilator?
EGI In-Flight Misalignment
87
____ in-flight alignments of the EGI is prohibited.
DUAL
88
EGI IN-FLIGHT MISALIGNMENT
(1) Position update - Perform. Monitor POSITION CONFIDENCE. If misalignment continues: (2) Airspeed - Adjust to 80 KTAS or less. (3) Stabilator - Monitor position. Manually control as required. (4) Land as soon as practicable
89
STABILATOR AUTO MODE FAILURE
(1) RESET button - Press. If automatic mode is not restored: (2) use manual stabilator control
90
STABILATOR AUTO/MANUAL MODE FAILURE
LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE
91
Stabilator malfunction. [WARNING] Do not exceed _____ on the _____ page.
nominal indicated airspeed | FLT or SYS page
92
INDICATION: un-commanded control inputs, unusual rotor disc movement or aircraft attitude/heading changes
STABILIZATION EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTION
93
STABILIZATION EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTION
(1) FMC release button - Press | 2) FMC - re-engage unaffected FMC axes (A/C UTIL page
94
ALL ARMAMENT WING STORES
(1) Airspeed - 130 KTAS maximum | (2) Collective JETT button - Press
95
SELECTED ARMAMENT WING STORES
(1) Airspeed - 130 KTAS maximum (2) Selected STORES JETTISON buttons - Press to ARM (3) JETT button - Press
96
EXTERNAL FUEL WING STORES
(1) Airspeed - 100 KTAS Maximum (2) Selected STORES JETTISON buttons - Press to ARM (3) JETT button - Press
97
CMWS EMER JETTISON
(1) CMDS JETTISON button - Press to ARM (2) JETT button - Press .......... (1) JETTISON switch cover - Open (2) JETTISON switch - Up
98
INDICATION: TADS cannot be selected as a sight or a NVS, laser ranging is inhibited, LINK function is not available.
TADS TEU FAILURE
99
PNVS FAILURE
(1) NVS select switch (Pilot) - TADS
100
IHADSS/HDU FAILURE or STALE
(1) NVS MODE switch - FIXED (2) NVS select switch - TADS or PNVS (3) VID page - PLT or CPG HMD (as necessary)
101
During Single DP operation, both crewmembers share common _______.
symbology and imagery on their HMDs
102
SINGLE DP FAILURE
(1) NVS SELECT switch - Reselect (PNVS or TADS) |
103
[WARNING] While in single DP operation, the format presented (_____________) could __________.
including weapons configuration information | belong to the opposite crewmember
104
DUAL DP FAILURE
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
105
DUAL SP FAILURE
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
106
CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in the APU have detected a fire
APU FIRE
107
CRITERIA: Overheat detectors in aft deck area have detected a fire. EP?
AFT DECK FIRE | LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
108
CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in ENG1 or 2 have detected a fire.
ENGINE 1 or 2 FIRE
109
CRITERIA: Engines were running and ENG1 Ng < 63% (throttle not in OFF) or Np < 94% (throttle in FLY, TQ < 28%)
ENGINE 1 or 2 OUT
110
CRITERIA: ENG Np > 114% and ENG Ng > 52%
ENGINE 1 or 2 OVERSPEED
111
CRITERIA: Engine chop function has been activated
ENGINE CHOP
112
CRITERIA: PRI and UTIL HYD PSI is < 1250 psi
HYDRAULIC FAIL
113
CRITERIA: Nr > 105%
ROTOR RPM HIGH
114
CRITERIA: Nr < 95%
ROTOR RPM LOW
115
CRITERIA: PRI HYD psi < 1250 and UTIL HYD LEVEL is detected as low. EP?
TAIL ROTOR HYD FAILURE | Land as soon as possible
116
CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in the APU have detected a fire
APU FIRE
117
CRITERIA: Thermal flame detectors in aft deck area have detected a fire. EP?
AFT DECK FIRE | Land as soon as possible
118
CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in engine 1 or 2 have detected a fire.
ENGINE 1 FIRE
119
CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in engine 1 or 2 have detected a fire.
ENGINE 1 FIRE
120
[WARNING] Prior to movement of either _________, it is imperative that __________________ be identified.
POWER lever | the malfunctioning engine and the corresponding POWER lever
121
Whether or not an aircraft on single engine can maintain flight is a function of __________.
Aircraft Weight Density Altitude Airspeed
122
Whether or not an aircraft on single engine can maintain flight is a function of __________.
Aircraft Weight Density Altitude Airspeed
123
During SE or DE failure, consideration may be given to making a _____________ or __________ IOT reduce power requirements and restore Nr to 101%
right banking turn | right pedal input
124
During autorotation, attain the desired airspeed of _______. As airspeed increases above 70-80 KTAS, the _________. Below 70 KTAS, the rate of ______, but____.
77-107 KTAS rate of descent and glide distance increase significantly descent will also increase, but glide distance decreases
125
What should be reset after each malfunction? Why?
MSTR WARN and MSTR CAUT buttons. | Subsequent malfunctions
126
During an emergency, and when time permits, the crew must consider doing these actions: ___________.
1) transmit a MAYDAY call 2) select the XPNDR button on the emergency panel 3) lock shoulder harnesses
127
[WARNING] Debris from the canopy jettison may be expelled ___ outward.
50 feet
128
During autorotation, attain the desired airspeed of _______. As airspeed increases above 70-80 KTAS, the _________. Below 70 KTAS, the rate of ______, but____.
77-107 KTAS rate of descent and glide distance increase significantly descent will also increase, but glide distance decreases
129
[CAUTION] When shutting down an ENG that has malfunctioned in flight, it is important to ________.
identify the malfunctioning engine to avoid shutting down the wrong engine
130
What EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT is in the helicopter? | MEET CSP CU
Master Zeroize Switch ELT ENG & APU Fire Detection/Extinquishing System Two First Aid Kits Canopy Jettison Stores Jettison Portable Fire Ext CBR Blower Underwater Acoustic Beacon
131
[WARNING] Debris from the canopy jettison may be expelled ___ outward. PLT and CPG helmet visors should be down prior to canopy jettison.
50 feet
132
What EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT is in the helicopter? | MEET CSP CU
Master Zeroize Switch ELT ENG & APU Fire Detection/Extinquishing System Two First Aid Kits Canopy Jettison Stores Jettison Portable Fire Ext CBR Blower Underwater Acoustic Beacon
133
CMDS jettison as actioned from the selected stores jettison panel will only occur if _________.
CMDS is Armed on the MPD
134
[NOTE] When testing fire detection/extinguishing system, hold the switch in the TEST position for at least _______ IOT get full audio indication.
2 seconds
135
[NOTE] FIRE pushbuttons remain illuminated until _______. For a crew station to reset the system, _________.
sensors no longer detect a fire | that crew station FIRE pushbutton must be deselected
136
What does pressing an illuminated FIRE button do? | (6) AFBLWM
ARMs, shuts off FUEL, BLEED AIR, closes LOUVER doors, stops voice WARNING message, and extinguishes MSTR WARN light
137
***AFT DECK FIRE***
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
138
When will the audio warning HYDRAULIC FAILURE and the UFD warning HYDRAULIC FAIL occur?
PRI and UTIL HYD psi detected as
139
When will the audio warning TAIL ROTOR HYDRAULIC FAILURE and the UFD warning TAIL ROTOR HYD be displayed? What is the EP?
PRI psi
140
[NOTE] During maneuvering flight a momentary reduction of NGB or XMSN (+ACC) may occur, causing a caution indication. As long as _______________.
The caution is cleared within 10 sec after returning to stable flight, no action is required.
141
[NOTE] During approaches and other maneuvering flight conditions, a GEARBOX VIBRATION caution message may be indicated. As long as ___________________.
The caution is cleared within 10 sec after exiting that condition, no action is required