Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Limits and EPs > Chapter 9 - Emergency Procedures > Flashcards

Chapter 9 - Emergency Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

[WARNING] In the event of a procedural difference between the written and displayed EMER procedure, the steps _________ take precedence.

A

in this chapter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During an emergency, what is the most important single consideration?

A

helicopter control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Every ____ lbs. of jettisoned wing stores equates to __ torque reduction.

A

200 lbs = 1% TQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When continued flight is in question, the immediate corrective action should be to ___________.

A

Adjust collective to maintain Nr within limits and jettisoning of the aircraft wing stores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should be reset after each malfunction? Why?

A

MSTR WARN and MSTR CAUT buttons. Subsequent malfunctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Whenever possible, check the _________ against the _________ to __________.

A

caution or advisory message <> appropriate MPD page <> verify that a malfunction has occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During an emergency, and when time permits, the crew should attempt to ___________.

A

1) transmit a MAYDAY call
2) select the XPNDR button on the emergency panel
3) lock shoulder harnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define LAND WITHOUT DELAY

A

A landing in which the primary consideration is continued control of the aircraft and survival of the occupants. It is meant to be more urgent than Land as Soon as Possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

A

Landing at the nearest suitable landing area (i.e. an open field) without delay. The primary consideration is to ensure the survival of the occupants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE

A

Landing at a suitable landing area. The primary consideration is the urgency of the emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define AUTOROTATE

A

Adjusting the flight controls as necessary to establish an autorotational descent and landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

After shutdown, what should you do if TGT rises above ____*C or if there is evidence as indicated in a rapid rise in TGT?

A

540*C

place the ENG START switch in IGN ORIDE until TGT is below 540*C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

A

An engine shutdown without delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

A

(1) POWER lever (affected engine) - OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN is not an immediate action item in flight unless _______.

A

a fire exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two methods of WING STORES JETTISON?

A

Emergency and Selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

After a malfunction of equipment has occurred, _____ have been taken and the helicopter is ____, an entry will be made in the ____ Section of DA FORM ____ describing the malfunction. ___ and ____ operations will be ___ until _____.

A

appropriate emergency actions on the ground REMARKS 2408-13-1 Ground and Flight discontinued until corrective action has been taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If the aircraft has rolled on its side and fuel vapors have gathered on the ground - _____ can occur if ____ is used.

A

an explosion

canopy jettison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

________ can cause the canopy jettison actuator to jam.

What should be done if the canopy jettison doesn’t work?

A

continuing to twist while pushing

use the personal survival knife

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If emergency egress is required before the rotor blades have stopped, ensure ______ and _______.

A

MSTR IGN - BATT

cyclic remains centered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

EMERGENCY EGRESS

A

Helmet Visors - Down
Area around helicopter - Clear of personnel
CANOPY JETTISON handle - Turn 90*, release, then push to jettison canopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Debris from the canopy jettison may be expelled ___ outward.

A

50 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

[NOTE] Only the crew station arming the STORES JETTISON panel can ______. Once armed, ______.

A

disarm it.

either crewstation can activate jettison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

[WARNING] Ensure aircraft controls are configured for _____ prior to pressing the FIRE pushbutton.

A

single engine operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Whether illuminated or not, pressing a fire pushbutton will __________.

A

shut off fuel to the selected engine or APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the MASTER ZEROIZE switch NOT zeroize?

A

any of the ASE User Data Module (UDM) info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

On the EMERGENCY panel, what does the zeroize switch actually zeroize?

A

Mission Data (COMSEC variables, FM Hopsets, Nonvolatile Memory, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the GUARD button do on the EMERGENCY panel?

A

Tunes UHF to guard frequency

Auto-RTS to UHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does the XPNDR button on the Emergency panel do?

A

Squawks code 7700

auto-BFT MAYDAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The collective should not be reduced when an engine fails and the aircraft is hovering below ___ feet.

A

15 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During autorotation, the desired airspeed is _______.

Above 70-80 KTAS - ______ increases. Below 70 KTAS, _____ but ____.

A

77-107 KTAS
rate of descent and glide distance increases
rate of descent increases, glide distance decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When executing an autorotation, use aft cyclic to decelerate at ______ AGL.

A

75 to 125 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

INDICATION: rapid drop in Ng, Np, torque, TGT, oil PSI and the symbolic TQ value on MPD/HMD displays flashing

A

ENGINE FAILURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If having to perform a hovering autorotation, what is the most important consideration?

A

maintaining a level attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The aircrew should not engage any hold modes when operating ____________.

A

near the dual engine limiter setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DUAL ENG FAILURE

A

(1) Autorotate
(2) Chop Button - Reset only if an ENG chop warning message is present. Reset may be accomplished by either crewmember
(3) Wing Stores Jettison - As Appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When should an ENG restart in flight be attempted?

What is the danger?

A

If it can be determined that it is reasonably safe.

Malfunctioning XFEED causes remaining ENG to fail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Aborted ENG starts may cause fuel to collect in the ENG nacelle. Subsequent starts may be attempted only after __________.

A

the nacelle is inspected for fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the abort start criteria?

A

Within 45 seconds of PWR LVR to idle, no TGT / Np / Oil PSI rise. If ENG START advisory removed prior to 52% Ng or apparent TGT will exceed 851*C prior to 63% Ng

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ABORT START

A

(1) POWER lever - OFF

(2) ENG START switch - IGN ORIDE for 30 seconds and TGT is below 540*C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

SINGLE ENGINE FAILURE

A

(1) Airspeed - Adjust as Appropriate
(2) Wing Stores Jettison - As Appropriate
(3) LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MIN Rate of Descent Airspeed =

MAX Glide Distance Airspeed =

A

77 KTAS

107 KTAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

ENG OVERSPEED - Np FAILED HIGH

A

(1) Collective - Adjust to maintain Nr within limits
If condition persists: (2) POWER lever (affected ENG) - Retard to equalize torque
(3) LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

LOW RPM ROTOR - Np FAILED LOW

A

(1) Collective - Adjust to maintain Nr within limits
If condition persists: (2) POWER lever (aff eng) - LOCKOUT and then retard to equalize torque output of both engines. (3) If manual control is not possible: (4) POWER lever (aff eng) - IDLE. (5) Land as soon as pract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does advancing the POWER lever to LOCKOUT do?

A

Locks out the DECU and disables the TGT limiting for that engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

INDICATION: engine operation remains normal. Ng indication lost - MSTR WARN light and ENG OUT voice & UFD messages.

A

complete failure of an alternator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the three windings on the alternator?

A

ignition power
Ng speed indication
DECU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

INDICATION: loud bang or popping noise, possible aircraft yaw, rapid increase in TGT and fluctuations in Ng, TQ, and Np

A

ENGINE COMPRESSOR STALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ENGINE COMPRESSOR STALL

A

(1) Collective - Reduce. If condition persists: (2) POWER lever (aff eng) - Retard. If TGT decreases and there is no further evidence of a stall: (3) POWER lever (aff eng) - FLY. If stall condition returns: (4) POWER lever (aff eng) - IDLE. (5) Land as soon as practicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

During TAIL ROTOR fixed pitch or lost thrust situations, ________ to reduce gross weight, drag, and improve air flow over the vertical fin.

A

jettison wing stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

LOSS OF T/R THRUST - CON’T FLIGHT POSSIBLE

A

(1) Airspeed - 100 KTAS min (until 10 to 20 ft above touchdown). (2) Wing Stores Jettison - As appropriate. (3) POWER levers - Retard as necessary (5 to 10 ft above touchdown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

LOSS OF T/R THRUST - CON’T FLIGHT NOT POSSIBLE

A

(1) Collective reduce (compromise between rate of turn and rate of descent). (2) Wing Stores Jettison - As appropriate. (3) Minimize rate of descent (10 to 20 ft above touchdown). (4) POWER levers - OFF (5 to 10 ft above touchdown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

INDICATIONS: erratic TQ indication on affected engine, complete loss of TQ indication on affected engine, Np of affected engine exceeding Nr

A

MAIN XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE (IN FLIGHT)

Np (affected ENG) is below Nr.

A

CLUTCH IS DISENGAGED

(1) POWER lever (aff eng) - IDLE. (2) EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (aff eng). (3) Land as soon as practicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE (IN FLIGHT)

Np (affected ENG) does not drop below below Nr.

A

CLUTCH FAILED TO DISENGAGE

1) POWER lever (aff eng) - IDLE. (2) Land as soon as possible. (3) EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN (both engs simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE (ON GROUND)

with indications that a clutch has failed to engage

A

(1) EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (aff eng only). (2) Check Ng is less than 10% (aff eng). (3) Normal engine shutdown - Perform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

XMSN INPUT DRIVE CLUTCH FAILURE (ON GROUND)

with indications that a clutch has failed to disengage

A

EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN (both eng simultaneously)

58
Q

[WARNING] Prior to moving POWER lever or pressing any ENG FIRE button, either _____________.

A

achieve a safe single engine airspeed or prepare for a single engine landing

59
Q

IOT prevent smoke or fume inhalation, consideration should be given to ___________ during all FIRE incidents. Be advised: ____________.

A

power off the ECS

prolonged operations with ECS off may cause damage to some avionics systems

60
Q

ENGINE FIRE (in flight)

A

(1) EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (aff eng) - when conditions permit. (2) Illuminated ENG FIRE button - Press and RDY light illuminates. (3) FIRE DISCH button(s) - Press. (4) Land as soon as possible.

61
Q

ENGINE FIRE (on ground)

A

(1) EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN. (2) Illuminated ENG FIRE button - Press and RDY light illuminates. (3) FIRE DISCH button(s) - Press.

62
Q

APU FIRE (on ground)

A

(1) APU - OFF. (2) Illuminated APU FIRE button - Press and RDY light illuminates. (3) FIRE DISCH button(s) - Press

63
Q

APU FIRE (in flight)

A

(1) Illuminated APU FIRE button - Press and RDY light illuminates. (2) FIRE DISCH button(s) - Press. (3) Land as soon as possible

64
Q

DECK FIRE

A

Land as soon as possible

65
Q

FUSELAGE FIRE ON GROUND

A 
EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN
APU - OFF (if applicable)
66
Q

If electrical power is lost, what is automatically turned on?
(it results in a loss in TQ available)

A

ENG ANTI-ICE

67
Q

ELECTRICAL FIRE IN FLIGHT

A

(1) GEN1 and GEN2 - OFF (SYS page)

(2) LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

68
Q

SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION

A

(1) Airspeed - Slow to 20KTAS maximum
(2) Canopy door (affected crew station) - Open to intermediate position
(3) Land as soon as possible

69
Q

In the event of an in-flight electrical system malfunction, the power interrupt protection may cause ______. On ground ______ due to extended duration of BIT cycle.

A

MPD blanking for as long as 6 seconds

12 seconds

70
Q

Failure or reset of GEN2 can result in ________. What must be done after resetting GEN2?

A

BUCS FAIL caution and FMC disengage on one or more channels.
Re-engage FMC channels.

71
Q

A battery charged to 80% will normally supply the battery busses for approximately ______ at 25C. Time decreases if the temperature is increased or decreased from 25C.

A

12 minutes

72
Q

DUAL GEN FAILURE / COMPLETE LOSS OF ELECTRICAL POWER

A

(1) GEN1 and GEN2 - Reset Pilot GEN RST panel

If condition persists: (2) Land as soon as possible.

73
Q

SINGLE GEN / RTRU FAILURE

A

(1) Affected GEN1 or GEN2 - Reset Pilot GEN RST panel

If condition persists: (2) Land as soon as practicable

74
Q

DUAL TRU FAILURE

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

75
Q

With emergency hydraulic power in use _____________ must be kept to an absolute minimum.

A

flight control inputs and elevated G loading

76
Q

In static conditions the (emer) hydraulics will bleed down in approx. _____. If the controls are moved continuously at approx. 1hz rate, this may be as little as _______.

A

6 minutes

30 to 41 seconds

77
Q

Once the EMER HYD pushbutton is pressed ON, it ________. When does flight control loss occur?

A

must remain on

When emer hyd psi drops to approx. 1650 PSI.

78
Q

PRI HYD PSI LOW & UTIL HYD PSI LOW

A

(1) EMER HYD button - Press ON
(2) LAND WITHOUT DELAY
(3) EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN

79
Q

PRI HYD PSI LOW & UTIL HYD LEVEL LOW

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

80
Q

EMER LANDING IN WOODED AREA (power off)

A

AUTOROTATE - Apply full collective to decay rotor RPM as helicopter settles

81
Q

DITCHING (power on)

A

1) Approach to a hover, 2) Canopies - Jettison prior to entering water, 3) Pilot shoulder harness - Lock, 4) CPG - Exit helicopter, 5) Hover downwind a safe distance, 6) POWER levers - OFF, 7) Perform hovering autorotation - Apply full collective to decay RPM as helicopter settles, 8) Cyclic - Position in direction of roll, 9) Exit when main rotor has stopped

82
Q

DITCHING (power off)

A

1) AUTOROTATE - apply full collective to decay rotor RPM as helicopter settles, 2) Canopies - Jettison prior to entering water, 3) Cyclic - position in direction of roll, 4) Exit when main rotor has stopped

83
Q

INDICATIONS: varying degrees of feedback, binding, resistance, sloppiness or abnormal control responses

A

FAILURE OF COMPONENTS WITHIN FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

84
Q

BUCS FAIL

BUCS ON

A

(1) Land as soon as possible
(2) APU - ON
(3) EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN

85
Q

MAIN ROTOR COMPONENTS FAILURE

A 
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN
86
Q

Depending on airspeed, what component failure can cause un-commanded scheduling down of the stabilator?

A

EGI In-Flight Misalignment

87
Q

____ in-flight alignments of the EGI is prohibited.

A

DUAL

88
Q

EGI IN-FLIGHT MISALIGNMENT

A

(1) Position update - Perform. Monitor POSITION CONFIDENCE. If misalignment continues: (2) Airspeed - Adjust to 80 KTAS or less. (3) Stabilator - Monitor position. Manually control as required. (4) Land as soon as practicable

89
Q

STABILATOR AUTO MODE FAILURE

A

(1) RESET button - Press. If automatic mode is not restored: (2) use manual stabilator control

90
Q

STABILATOR AUTO/MANUAL MODE FAILURE

A

LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE

91
Q

Stabilator malfunction. [WARNING] Do not exceed _____ on the _____ page.

A

nominal indicated airspeed

FLT or SYS page

92
Q

INDICATION: un-commanded control inputs, unusual rotor disc movement or aircraft attitude/heading changes

A

STABILIZATION EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTION

93
Q

STABILIZATION EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTION

A

(1) FMC release button - Press

2) FMC - re-engage unaffected FMC axes (A/C UTIL page

94
Q

ALL ARMAMENT WING STORES

A

(1) Airspeed - 130 KTAS maximum

(2) Collective JETT button - Press

95
Q

SELECTED ARMAMENT WING STORES

A

(1) Airspeed - 130 KTAS maximum
(2) Selected STORES JETTISON buttons - Press to ARM
(3) JETT button - Press

96
Q

EXTERNAL FUEL WING STORES

A

(1) Airspeed - 100 KTAS Maximum
(2) Selected STORES JETTISON buttons - Press to ARM
(3) JETT button - Press

97
Q

CMWS EMER JETTISON

A

(1) CMDS JETTISON button - Press to ARM
(2) JETT button - Press ……….
(1) JETTISON switch cover - Open
(2) JETTISON switch - Up

98
Q

INDICATION: TADS cannot be selected as a sight or a NVS, laser ranging is inhibited, LINK function is not available.

A

TADS TEU FAILURE

99
Q

PNVS FAILURE

A

(1) NVS select switch (Pilot) - TADS

100
Q

IHADSS/HDU FAILURE or STALE

A

(1) NVS MODE switch - FIXED
(2) NVS select switch - TADS or PNVS
(3) VID page - PLT or CPG HMD (as necessary)

101
Q

During Single DP operation, both crewmembers share common _______.

A

symbology and imagery on their HMDs

102
Q

SINGLE DP FAILURE

A

(1) NVS SELECT switch - Reselect (PNVS or TADS)

<OR. (2) Crewmember (not on controls) - Assume control

103
Q

[WARNING] While in single DP operation, the format presented (_____________) could __________.

A

including weapons configuration information

belong to the opposite crewmember

104
Q

DUAL DP FAILURE

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

105
Q

DUAL SP FAILURE

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

106
Q

CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in the APU have detected a fire

A

APU FIRE

107
Q

CRITERIA: Overheat detectors in aft deck area have detected a fire. EP?

A

AFT DECK FIRE

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

108
Q

CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in ENG1 or 2 have detected a fire.

A

ENGINE 1 or 2 FIRE

109
Q

CRITERIA: Engines were running and ENG1 Ng < 63% (throttle not in OFF) or Np < 94% (throttle in FLY, TQ < 28%)

A

ENGINE 1 or 2 OUT

110
Q

CRITERIA: ENG Np > 114% and ENG Ng > 52%

A

ENGINE 1 or 2 OVERSPEED

111
Q

CRITERIA: Engine chop function has been activated

A

ENGINE CHOP

112
Q

CRITERIA: PRI and UTIL HYD PSI is < 1250 psi

A

HYDRAULIC FAIL

113
Q

CRITERIA: Nr > 105%

A

ROTOR RPM HIGH

114
Q

CRITERIA: Nr < 95%

A

ROTOR RPM LOW

115
Q

CRITERIA: PRI HYD psi < 1250 and UTIL HYD LEVEL is detected as low. EP?

A

TAIL ROTOR HYD FAILURE

Land as soon as possible

116
Q

CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in the APU have detected a fire

A

APU FIRE

117
Q

CRITERIA: Thermal flame detectors in aft deck area have detected a fire. EP?

A

AFT DECK FIRE

Land as soon as possible

118
Q

CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in engine 1 or 2 have detected a fire.

A

ENGINE 1 FIRE

119
Q

CRITERIA: Optical flame detectors in engine 1 or 2 have detected a fire.

A

ENGINE 1 FIRE

120
Q

[WARNING] Prior to movement of either _________, it is imperative that __________________ be identified.

A

POWER lever

the malfunctioning engine and the corresponding POWER lever

121
Q

Whether or not an aircraft on single engine can maintain flight is a function of __________.

A

Aircraft Weight Density Altitude Airspeed

122
Q

Whether or not an aircraft on single engine can maintain flight is a function of __________.

A

Aircraft Weight Density Altitude Airspeed

123
Q

During SE or DE failure, consideration may be given to making a _____________ or __________ IOT reduce power requirements and restore Nr to 101%

A

right banking turn

right pedal input

124
Q

During autorotation, attain the desired airspeed of _______. As airspeed increases above 70-80 KTAS, the _________. Below 70 KTAS, the rate of ______, but____.

A

77-107 KTAS
rate of descent and glide distance increase significantly
descent will also increase, but glide distance decreases

125
Q

What should be reset after each malfunction? Why?

A

MSTR WARN and MSTR CAUT buttons.

Subsequent malfunctions

126
Q

During an emergency, and when time permits, the crew must consider doing these actions: ___________.

A

1) transmit a MAYDAY call
2) select the XPNDR button on the emergency panel
3) lock shoulder harnesses

127
Q

[WARNING] Debris from the canopy jettison may be expelled ___ outward.

A

50 feet

128
Q

During autorotation, attain the desired airspeed of _______. As airspeed increases above 70-80 KTAS, the _________. Below 70 KTAS, the rate of ______, but____.

A

77-107 KTAS
rate of descent and glide distance increase significantly
descent will also increase, but glide distance decreases

129
Q

[CAUTION] When shutting down an ENG that has malfunctioned in flight, it is important to ________.

A

identify the malfunctioning engine to avoid shutting down the wrong engine

130
Q

What EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT is in the helicopter?

MEET CSP CU

A

Master Zeroize Switch ELT ENG & APU Fire Detection/Extinquishing System Two First Aid Kits Canopy Jettison Stores Jettison Portable Fire Ext CBR Blower Underwater Acoustic Beacon

131
Q

[WARNING] Debris from the canopy jettison may be expelled ___ outward. PLT and CPG helmet visors should be down prior to canopy jettison.

A

50 feet

132
Q

What EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT is in the helicopter?

MEET CSP CU

A

Master Zeroize Switch ELT ENG & APU Fire Detection/Extinquishing System Two First Aid Kits Canopy Jettison Stores Jettison Portable Fire Ext CBR Blower Underwater Acoustic Beacon

133
Q

CMDS jettison as actioned from the selected stores jettison panel will only occur if _________.

A

CMDS is Armed on the MPD

134
Q

[NOTE] When testing fire detection/extinguishing system, hold the switch in the TEST position for at least _______ IOT get full audio indication.

A

2 seconds

135
Q

[NOTE] FIRE pushbuttons remain illuminated until _______. For a crew station to reset the system, _________.

A

sensors no longer detect a fire

that crew station FIRE pushbutton must be deselected

136
Q

What does pressing an illuminated FIRE button do?

(6) AFBLWM

A

ARMs, shuts off FUEL, BLEED AIR, closes LOUVER doors, stops voice WARNING message, and extinguishes MSTR WARN light

137
Q

AFT DECK FIRE

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

138
Q

When will the audio warning HYDRAULIC FAILURE and the UFD warning HYDRAULIC FAIL occur?

A

PRI and UTIL HYD psi detected as

139
Q

When will the audio warning TAIL ROTOR HYDRAULIC FAILURE and the UFD warning TAIL ROTOR HYD be displayed?

What is the EP?

A

PRI psi

140
Q

[NOTE] During maneuvering flight a momentary reduction of NGB or XMSN (+ACC) may occur, causing a caution indication. As long as _______________.

A

The caution is cleared within 10 sec after returning to stable flight, no action is required.

141
Q

[NOTE] During approaches and other maneuvering flight conditions, a GEARBOX VIBRATION caution message may be indicated. As long as ___________________.

A

The caution is cleared within 10 sec after exiting that condition, no action is required

Limits and EPs (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions