Chapter 8.6 - Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between Mist and Fog?

A

Visibility in mist is above 1000 metres and below in Fog.

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2
Q

Fog and Stratus Cloud are similar and are both formed by the same processes. What then is the main difference between the two?

A

Fog appears on ground level and Stratus Cloud has a base above ground level.

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3
Q

Why does Fog form when the Temperature of the air close to the ground is cooled to or below its dew-point temperature?

A

Water vapour in the air condenses to form Fog.

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4
Q

Why is Fog more likely to form in valleys than higher up on slopes?

A

Because cooler air is present in valleys.

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5
Q

Why do Fogs tend to form more readily in coastal and industrial areas?

A

Coastal regions is likely to contain more moisture than land and industrial areas more condensation nuclei in the air. Both factors will increase the chance of Fog.

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6
Q

What type of Fog is likely to form on winter nights when there is no cloud cover and only light winds?

A

Radiation Fog.

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7
Q

How does Advection Fog form?

A

Warm, moist air blows over colder surfaces.

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8
Q

Name two ways in which most Fogs are dissipated?

A
  • Increase Wind.

- Warming.

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9
Q

When the atmosphere is unstable and there are strong winds (above 15 knots), where are Duststorms more likely to occur?

A

Dry inland areas.

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10
Q

What is the name given to a combination of Haze (atmospheric pollutants) and Fog?

A

Smog.

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11
Q

Why is it that Radiation Fog does not usually form when the windspeed is above 6 knots?

A

Windspeed will remove formation of Radiation Fog.

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12
Q

When is Haze most likely to significantly affect Visibility?

A

When it combines with Fog to form Smog.

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13
Q

What two factors determine to what extent Visibility will be reduced in Precipitation?

A
  • Size of Droplets.

- Concentration of Droplets.

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14
Q

Define Runway Visual Range and observed or meteorological Visibility?

A
  • RVR = Maximum distance in direction of takeoff/landing can be seen through eye level of a Pilot.
  • OMV = The greatest visibility of half or more of the horizon.
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15
Q

Apart from the risk of collision with the ground, what other (two) factors are related to reduced visibility in flight for VFR Pilots?

A
  • The ‘see and be seen’ basis for collision avoidance.

- Control of the Aircraft without visual reference.

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16
Q

What is the most critical factor, under a Pilot’s control, when an Aircraft encounters Turbulence?

A

Airspeed.

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17
Q

Describe an Aircraft’s reaction to Light Turbulence?

A

Slight erratic changes to altitude.

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18
Q

When is Mechanical Turbulence resulting from surface windspeed in excess of 20 knots likely to affect Aircraft performance?

A

Takeoff and Landing.

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19
Q

Are lenticular and rotor clouds or zones always associated with mountain wave activity?

A

No.

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20
Q

Which cold frontal zone is most likely to produce the worst Turbulence and why? One that is less than 3 miles wide or one that is more than 3 miles wide?

A

Less than 3 miles wide.

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21
Q

What is the name given to the air current produced by a series of cloudless parcels of air rising by convection from a single heat source?

A

Thermal.

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22
Q

During an approach to land, with attitude and power constant, what is the initial effect on the Airspeed of a sudden increase in headwind and what type of Turbulence would be the cause?

A

Overshoot Windshear.

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23
Q

During an approach to land, with attitude and power constant, what is the initial effect on the Airspeed of a sudden decrease in headwind and what type of Turbulence would be the cause?

A

Undershoot Windshear.

24
Q

What are the main dangers of continued flight in Severe Turbulence (2)?

A
  • Loss of Control at slow speeds.

- Structural Failure at high speeds.

25
Q

At what Temperature does Airframe Icing occur?

A

0°C to -20°C.

26
Q

Why is the rate of ice accumulation likely to be very high in Cumuliform Cloud?

A

Because the cloud contains a large amount of water.

27
Q

What type of clouds are associated with a rapid build-up of Clear Ice? What other phenomenon is also associated with a rapid build-up of this deposit (2)?

A
  • Cumuliform and Nimbostratus.

- Freezing Rain.

28
Q

What are the greatest in-flight dangers from Clear Ice?

A

Increase in weight (decrease in performance) due to build-up.

29
Q

In what Temperature range is Clear Ice most likely to form?

A

0°C to -10°C.

30
Q

What Cloud and Temperature combination is most likely to produce Rime Ice (2)?

A
  • Stratiform Cloud.

- 0°C to -20°C.

31
Q

What are the greatest in-flight dangers from Rime Ice?

A

Loss of Performance due to disruption of the aerodynamic shape.

32
Q

What is the most common form of Airframe Ice?

A

A mixture of Rime and Clear Ice (Mixed Ice).

33
Q

If an Aircraft has been left overnight in the open, what is the greatest danger from any frost that may have formed on the wings (2)?

A
  • Reduction in Lift.

- Increase in stalling speed.

34
Q

What is the main risk from hoar frost formed on an Aircraft after a descent from sub-zero temperatures into warm moist air?

A

Reduced Visibility from the Cockpit

35
Q

If icing conditions are encountered and your Aircraft is not fitted with either anti-icing or de-icing equipment, what should be your immediate action?

A

Descent to a warmer altitude.

36
Q

Which cloud type produces thunderstorms?

A

Cumulonimbus.

37
Q

What is the most common type of thunderstorm encountered in the southern regions of Australia?

A

Frontal Thunderstorms.

38
Q

Name five types of air-mass thunderstorms?

A
  • Heat.
  • Orographic.
  • Cold-Stream.
  • Convergence.
  • Nocturnal Equatorial.
39
Q

What are the stages in the life cycle of a single-cell thunderstorm?

A
  • Cumulus.
  • Mature.
  • Dissipating.
40
Q

In which stage in the life cycle of a thunderstorm cell is Turbulence at its worst?

A

The Mature Stage.

41
Q

At what stage in the development of a thunderstorm does lightning occur?

A

The Mature Stage.

42
Q

In the dissipating stage, which cloud type forms at the top of a thunderstorm cell?

A

Cirrus.

43
Q

Would an Aircraft entering an active thunderstorm cell always experience hazardous turbulence?

A

Yes.

44
Q

Why is it dangerous to fly in the clear air between two thunderstorms, even if the storms are several kilometres apart?

A

Due to severe turbulence which can occur outside the storm.

45
Q

A turbulent area also exists below the storm. How can clouds give an indication of the magnitude of the turbulence in this area?

A

The ‘roll’ motion.

46
Q

Can hailstones which fall outside the thunderstorm that produced them, do any significant damage to an Aircraft flying through them?

A

Yes.

47
Q

Why is there always a risk to moderate to severe icing above the freezing level in a thunderstorm?

A

Due to volume of supercooled water above freezing level.

48
Q

What are the main risks to an Aircraft from lightning (2)?

A
  • Puncturing the Skin.

- Damaging Communications/Electronic Equipment.

49
Q

If a thunderstorm is active within 5 miles of an aerodrome, why should Pilots consider delaying a takeoff or a landing?

A

Due to the presences of gusts.

50
Q

Sometimes a thunderstorm cell can be ‘buried’ in a large cloud mass and therefore not visible. In which type of cloud is this most likely?

A

Nimbostratus.

51
Q

What conditions, in terms of hail size and wind gusts, must exist for a ‘severe’ thunderstorm classification to be used by the Bureau of Meteorology (2)?

A
  • Hail = 20mm or above in diameter.

- Wind = 48 knots.

52
Q

Without weather radar, what is always the best (and safest) procedure in regard to flight in or near thunderstorms?

A

Completely avoid flying near thunderstorms.

53
Q

If you are committed to flying near a large thunderstorm, is it safe to fly under the storm?

A

Only if cloud base is high and visibility is permitted.

54
Q

Where do microbursts occur (3)?

A
  • Thunderstorms.
  • Rain Showers.
  • Virga.
55
Q

What is the first indication that an Aircraft has encountered a microburst?

A

A sudden increase in Airspeed.