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Anatomy and Physiology Lab > Chapter 8-14 Lab Questions > Flashcards

Chapter 8-14 Lab Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Identify the structural features associated with skeletal muscle…

A 
A. Epimysium
B. Perimysium
C. Endomysium
D. Muscle fascicle
E. Muscle fiber
F. Blood vessels and nerves
G. Myofibril
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2
Q

Identify the structural features associated with skeletal muscles…

A 
A. Epimysium
B. Perimysium
C. Endomysium
D. Nerve
E. Muscle fascicle
F. Muscle fibers
G. Blood vessels
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3
Q

Identify the levels of organization in a skeletal muscle…

A 
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Muscle fascicle
C. Muscle fiber
D. Myofibril 
E. Sarcomere
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4
Q

Identify structural features associated with a sarcomere…

A 
A. I band
B. A band
C. Z line
D. Titin
E. Zone of overlap
F. Sarcomere
G. M line
H. Thin filaments
I. Thick filaments
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5
Q

Identify structural features associated with a skeletal muscle fiber…

A 
A. Mitochondria
B. Sarcolemma
C. Myofibril
D. Thin filaments
E. Thick filaments
F. Triad
G. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
H. T tubules 
I. Sarcoplasm
J. Terminal cisterna
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6
Q

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine?
A. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase
B. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a re-uptake mechanism
C. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft
D. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis

A

A. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase

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7
Q

The neuromuscular junction is a well-studied example of a chemical synapse. Which of the following statements describes a critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction?
A. Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma. Its receptor is linked to a G protein.
B. Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.
C. When the action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the terminal.
D. Acetylcholine is released and moves across the synaptic cleft bound to a transport protein.

A

B. Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron

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8
Q

Action potentials travel the length of the axons of motor neurons to the axon terminals. These motor neurons __________.
A. Extend from the brain or spinal cord to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber
B. Arise in the epimysium of a skeletal muscle and extend to individual skeletal muscle fibers
C. Extend from the brain to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber
D. Extend from the spinal cord to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber

A

A. Extend from the brain or spinal cord to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber

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9
Q

Calcium entry into the axon terminal triggers which of the following events?
A. Acetylcholine is released into the cleft by active transporters in the plasma membrane of the axon terminal.
B. Synaptic vesicles fuse to the plasma membrane of the axon terminal and release acetylcholine.
C. Cation channels open and sodium ions enter the axon terminal while potassium ions exit the axon terminal.
D. Acetylcholine binds to its receptor.

A

B. Synaptic vesicles fuse to the plasma membrane of the axon terminal and release acetylcholine

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10
Q

Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the sarcolemma and triggers __________.
A. The opening of ligand-gated cation channels
B. The opening of ligand-gated anion channels
C. The opening of calcium-release channels
D. The opening of voltage-gated calcium channels

A

A. The opening of ligand-gated cation channels

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11
Q

Sodium and potassium ions do not diffuse in equal numbers through ligand-gated cation channels. Why?
A. The outside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the inside surface. Potassium ions diffuse outward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients.
B. The inside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the outside surface. Potassium ions diffuse inward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients.
C. The inside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the outside surface. Sodium ions diffuse inward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients.
D. The outside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the inside surface. Sodium ions diffuse outward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients.

A

C. The inside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the outside surface. Sodium ions diffuse inward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients.

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12
Q

Excitation-contraction coupling is a series of events that occur after the events of the neuromuscular junction have transpired. The term excitation refers to which step in the process?
A. Excitation refers to the propagation of action potentials along the axon of a motor neuron.
B. Excitation refers to the shape change that occurs in voltage-sensitive proteins in the sarcolemma.
C. Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma.
D. Excitation refers to the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

C. Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma

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13
Q

Excitation of the sarcolemma is coupled or linked to the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber. What specific event initiates the contraction?
A. Sodium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction
B. Voltage-sensitive proteins change shape
C. Action potentials propagate into the interior of the skeletal muscle fiber
D. Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction

A

D. Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction

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14
Q

A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. How are these components connected?
A. Voltage-gated sodium channels
B. Myosin cross-bridge binding sites
C. A series of proteins that control calcium release
D. Potassium leak channels

A

C. A series of proteins that control calcium release

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15
Q 
What is name given to the regularly spaced infoldings of the sarcolemma?
A. Terminal cisternae
B. Transverse or T tubules
C. Motor endplates
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
A

B. Transverse or T tubules

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16
Q 
Which of the following is most directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction of skeletal muscle fibers?
A. Calcium ions
B. Acetylcholine
C. Action potentials
D. Sodium ions
A

A. Calcium ions

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17
Q

What is the relationship between the number of motor neurons recruited and the number of skeletal muscle fibers innervated?
A. A skeletal muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
B. Motor neurons always innervate thousands of skeletal muscle fibers.
C. A motor neuron typically innervates only one skeletal muscle fiber.
D. Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron.

A

D. Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron

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18
Q 
The cross bridge cycle is a series of molecular events that occur after excitation of the sarcolemma. What is a cross bridge?
A. Troponin bound to tropomyosin
B. ATP bound to a myosin head
C. Calcium bound to troponin
D. A myosin head bound to actin
A

D. A myosin head bound to actin

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19
Q

What structure is the functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber?
A. The triad
B. The junctional folds of the sarcolemma
C. The sarcomere
D. The cross bridge

A

C. The sarcomere

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20
Q

Calcium ions couple excitation of a skeletal muscle fiber to contraction of the fiber. Where are calcium ions stored within the fiber?
A. Calcium ions are stored in the nuclei
B. Calcium ions are stored in the transverse tubules
C. Calcium ions are stored in the. sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Calcium ions are stored in the mitochondria

A

C. Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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21
Q

After a power stroke, the myosin head must detach from actin before another power stroke can occur. What causes cross bridge detachment?
A. ADP and inorganic phosphate are bound to the myosin head
B. Acetylcholine binds to receptors in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma
C. Calcium ions bind to troponin
D. ATP binds to the myosin head

A

D. ATP binds to the myosin head

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22
Q

How does the myosin head obtain the energy required for activation?
A.The energy comes from the direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate
B. The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP
C. The energy comes from oxidative phosphorylation
D. The energy comes from the hydrolysis of GTP

A

B. The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP

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23
Q

What specific event triggers the uncovering of the myosin binding site on actin?
A. Calcium ions bind to tropomyosin and change its shape
B. Calcium release channels open in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and calcium levels rise in the sarcoplasm
C. Sodium ions bind to troponin and change its shape
D. Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape

A

D. Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape

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24
Q

When does cross bridge cycling end?
A. Cross bridge cycling ends when calcium ions are passively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. Cross bridge cycling ends when calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum open.
C. Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin.
D. Cross bridge cycling ends when ATP binds to the myosin head.

A

C. Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin

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25
Q

Identify the muscle types based on fascicle organization…

A 
A. Parallel muscle
B. Parallel muscle with tendinous bands
C. Wrapping muscle
D. Convergent muscle
E. Unipennate muscle
F. Bipennate muscle
G. Multipennate muscle
H. Circular muscle
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26
Q

Identify the major skeletal muscles, anterior view…

A 
A. Frontal belly of occipitofrontalis
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Rectus abdominis
D. External oblique
E. Deltoid
F. Pectoralis major
G. Serratus anterior
H. Biceps brachii
I. Brachialis
J. Flexor carpi radialis
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27
Q

Identify the major skeletal muscles, anterior view…

A 
A. Tensor fasciae
B. Iliopsoas
C. Pectineus
D. Adductor longus
E. Sartorius
F. Rectus femoris
G. Vastus lateralis
H. Vastus medialis
I. Fibularis longus
J. Tibialis anterior
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28
Q

Identify the major skeletal muscles, posterior view…

A 
A. Occipital belly of occipitofrontalis
B. Trapezius
C. Infraspinatus
D. Teres major and minor
E. Rhomboid major
F. Triceps brachii
G. Latissimus dorsi
H. Brachioradialis
I. Extensor carpi radialis longus
J. Extensor digitorum
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29
Q

Identify the major skeletal muscles, posterior view…

A 
A. Gluteus medius
B. Tensor fasciae latae
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Adductor magnus
E. Semitendinosus
F. Semimembranosus
G. Gracilis
H. Biceps femoris
I. Gastrocnemius
J. Soleus
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30
Q

Identify the muscles of facial expression, lateral view…

A 
A. Frontal belly of occipitofrontalis
B. Orbicularis oculi
C. Levator labii superioris
D. Zygomaticus major
E. Orbicularis oris
F. Depressor anguli oris
G. Platysma (cut and reflected)
H. Temporalis
I. Masseter
J. Buccinator
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31
Q

Identify the muscles that move the forearm and hand, anterior view…

A 
A. Flexor retinaculum
B. Coracobrachialis
C. Biceps brachii
D. Triceps brachii
E. Brachialis
F. Brachioradialis
G. Flexor carpi radialis
H. Palmaris longus
I. Flexor carpi ulnaris
J. Flexor digitorum superficialis
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32
Q 
Which joint is considered the most flexible joint in the body?
A. The shoulder joint
B. The hip joint
C. The elbow joint
D. The wrist joint
A

A. The shoulder joint

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33
Q

Muscles of the shoulder can be divided into groups based on ________.
A. Location (superior and inferior)
B. Distribution and functional relationships
C. Location (anterior and posterior)
D. Size

A

B. Distribution and functional relationships

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34
Q

Which of the following groups of muscles are not muscles of the shoulder?
A. The rotator cuff muscles
B. Muscles that act on the pectoral girdle
C. The anterior flexor muscles
D. Muscles that stabilize and cross the glenohumeral joint

A

C. The anterior flexor muscles

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35
Q 
The rotator cuff is a term used to describe the group of muscles and tendons that stabilize and reinforce the...
A. Glenohumeral joint
B. Scapula
C. Pectoral girdle
D. Elbow joint
A

A. Glenohumeral joint

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36
Q 
All the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles combine at which location?
A. Radial tuberosity
B. Scapula
C. Coranoid process
D. Humeral head
A

D. Humeral head

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37
Q 
A reduction in the lateral angle of the glenohumeral joint in relation to the anatomical position would be called...
A. Adduction
B. Extension
C. Flexion
D. Abduction
A

A. Adduction

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38
Q 
Movement of the shoulder laterally away from the body is called...
A. Adduction
B. Abduction
C. Extension
D. Flexion
A

B. Abduction

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39
Q 
Movement of the elbow joint movement is limited to...
A. Pronation and supination
B. Flexion and extension
C. Supination and flexion
D. Extension and pronation
A

B. Flexion and extension

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40
Q 
Movement of the forearm includes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Supination and flexion
B. Flexion and extension
C. Extension and pronation
D. Pronation and supination
A

D. Pronation and supination

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41
Q

Why are the muscles that move the fingers and wrist located in the forearm?
A. This design allows the hand to maintain fine motor control and strength without the interference of bulky muscles.
B. This design allows the hand and fingers to have greater sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
C. This design allows the muscles to contract more rapidly.
D. This design allows for less torque strength by the tendons of the fingers.

A

A. This design allows the hand to maintain fine motor control and strength without the interference of bulky muscles

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42
Q 
The forearm muscles can be divided into anterior flexors and posterior extensors, as well as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Deep and superficial layers
B. Cephalic and caudal layers 
C. Proximal and distal layers
D. Femoral and abdominal layers
A

A. Deep and superficial layers

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43
Q 
The ball and socket joint in the hip is similar to the ball and socket joint of the shoulder but is designed more for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Precision; power
B. Speed; precision
C. Precision; speed
D. Power; precision
A

D. Power; precision

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44
Q 
Muscles that act on the knee joint form most of the mass of the...
A. Thigh
B. Knee
C. Calf
D. Hip
A

A. Thigh

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45
Q

Which of the following is not true of the deep fascia of the leg?
A. Aids in venous return
B. Separates anterior and posterior muscles
C. An insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles
D. Prevents excess swelling of the muscles

A

C. An insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles

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46
Q

Identify the divisions and receptors of the nervous system…

A 
A. Central nervous system (CNS)
B. Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
C. Special sensory receptors
D. Visceral sensory receptors
E. Somatic sensory receptors 
F. Somatic nervous system (SNS)
G. Autonomic nervous system (ANS)
H. Sympathetic division
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47
Q

Identify the structural components of a typical neuron…

A 
A. Nissl bodies
B. Nucleus
C. Dendrite
D. Presynaptic cell
E. Axon hillock
F. Neurofilament
G. Axolemma
H. Axon
I. Axon terminals
J. Telodendria
K. Postsynaptic cell
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48
Q 
What is this structure of the neural cell?
A. Dendrites
B. Synaptic terminals
C. Axon
D. Nucleus
A

B. Synaptic terminals

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49
Q 
What is this structure of the neural cell?
A. Axon
B. Nucleus
C. Telodendria
D. Dendrites
A

B. Nucleus

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50
Q

Identify the structural classifications of neurons…

A

A. Anaxonic neuron
B. Bipolar neuron
C. Unipolar neuron
D. Multipolar neuron

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51
Q

Identify the parts of a myelinated PNS neuron…

A 
A. Axon hillock
B. Myelinated internode
C. Initial segment (unmyelinated)
D. Nodes
E. Axon
F. Axolemma
G. Myelin covering internode 
H. Nucleus
I. Dendrite
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52
Q

Identify the structural components of a typical synapse…

A 
A. Telodendrion
B. Axon terminal 
C. Mitochondrion
D. Synaptic vesicles 
E. Presynaptic membrane
F. Synaptic cleft
G. Postsynaptic membrane
53
Q

Identify the various types of neuroglia in the central and peripheral nervous systems…

A 
A. Ependymal cells
B. Astrocytes
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Microglia 
E. Satellite cells
F. Schwann cells
54
Q 
Which cell is indicated by the arrow?
A. Neuron
B. Astrocyte
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Microglial
A

C. Oligodendrocyte

55
Q 
Which cell is indicated by the arrow?
A. Astrocyte
B. Oligodendrocyte
C. Microglial
D. Neuron
A

A. Astrocyte

56
Q 
Which cell is indicated by the arrow?
A. Neuron
B. Microglial
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Astrocyte
A

B. Microglial

57
Q 
The small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron is the...
A. Calcium channel
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Vesicle
D. Neurotransmitter
E. Synaptic terminal
A

B. Synaptic cleft

58
Q 
A molecule that carries information across a synaptic cleft is a...
A. Synapse
B. Receiving neuron
C. Synaptic cleft
D. Neurotransmitter
E. Sending neuron
A

D. Neurotransmitter

59
Q

When calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal,
A. The inside of the receiving neuron becomes more negative.
B. Neurotransmitter molecules are quickly removed from the synaptic cleft.
C. The inside of the receiving neuron becomes more positive.
D. They cause an action potential in the sending neuron.
E. They cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron.

A

E. They cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron

60
Q

When neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron,
A. Ion channels in the plasma membrane of the sending neuron open
B. The receiving neuron becomes more negative inside
C. Vesicles in the synaptic terminal fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron
D. The receiving neuron becomes more positive inside
E. Ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open

A

E. Ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open

61
Q

If a signal from a sending neuron makes the receiving neuron more negative inside,
A. The receiving neuron immediately generates an action potential.
B. The receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential.
C. The receiving neuron is more likely to generate an action potential.
D. The sending neuron becomes more positive inside.
E. The sending neuron becomes more negative inside.

A

B. The receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential

62
Q 
Rabies illustrates a negative consequence to otherwise healthy retrograde flow within axons. Which of the following components will NOT be involved in retrograde flow?
A. Kinesin
B. Neuronal cell body
C. Axoplasm
D. Axon hillock
A

A. Kinesin

63
Q 
Demyelination results from issues associated with myelin producing cells. Which of the following is an example of a myelin producing cell in the CNS?
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Astrocytes
C. Schwann cells
D. Ependymal cells
A

A. Oligodendrocytes

64
Q

Demyelination disorders such as multiple sclerosis are particularly dangerous because they __________.
A. Block sodium channels and thus interfere with action potential transmission
B. Facilitate retrograde action potential transmission
C. Reduce the size of the axon diameter
D. Decrease the speed of action potential transmission

A

D. Decrease the speed of action potential transmission

65
Q

Tumors that originate within the central nervous system (CNS) are due to __________.
A. Uncontrolled divisions of neuroglia
B. Uncontrolled division of neurons in adults
C. A lack of centrioles within neuronal cell bodies
D. All of the listed responses are correct.

A

A. Uncontrolled divisions of neuroglia

66
Q

Identify the gross anatomical structures of the spinal cord…

A 
A. Cervical spinal nerves
B. Thoracic spinal nerves
C. Lumbar spinal nerves
D. Sacral spinal nerves
E. Coccygeal nerve 
F. Cervical enlargement
G. Lumbar enlargement 
H. Conus medullaris
I. Cauda equina
J. Filum terminale
67
Q

Identify the spinal nerve roots and meninges…

A 
A. Ventral rootlets of spinal nerve
B. Ventral root
C. Dorsal root
D. Dorsal rootlets of spinal nerve
E. Dorsal root ganglion
F. Spinal nerve
G. Pia mater
H. Arachnoid mater
I. Dura mater
68
Q

Identify the parts of the spinal cord (transverse section, showing white matter)…

A 
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Lateral white column
C. Anterior white column
D. Posterior white column
E. Posterior median sulcus
F. Posterior gray commissure
G. Anterior gray commissure
H. Anterior white commissure
I. Anterior median fissure
J. Ventral root
69
Q 
Which structure is indicated by the arrow?
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Ventral root
C. Posterior gray horns
D. Somatic sensory nuclei
A

B. Ventral root

70
Q 
Which structure is indicated by the arrow?
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Ventral root
C. Somatic sensory nuclei
D. Somatic motor nuclei
A

C. Somatic sensory nuclei

71
Q 
Which structure is indicated by the arrow?
A. Posterior gray horns
B. Ventral root
C. Somatic sensory nuclei
D. Dorsal root ganglion
A

D. Dorsal root ganglion

72
Q 
Which structure is indicated by the arrow?
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Anterior gray horn
C. Ventral root
D. Posterior gray horns
A

D. Posterior gray horns

73
Q

Identify the structural components of a peripheral nerve…

A 
A. Blood vessels
B. Epineurium
C. Perineurium
D. Endoneurium
E. Myelinated axon
F. Schwann cell
G. Fascicle
74
Q

Identify the peripheral nerves and nerve plexuses: cervical and brachial plexuses…

A 
A. Cervical plexus
B. Brachial plexus
C. Transverse cervical nerve
D. Phrenic nerve
E. Axillary nerve
F. Musculocutaneous nerve 
G. Thoracic nerves
H. Radial nerve
I. Ulnar nerve
J. Median nerve
75
Q

Identify the peripheral nerves and nerve plexuses: lumbar and sacral plexuses…

A 
A. Lumbar plexus
B. Sacral plexus
C. Iliohypogastric nerve
D. Ilioinguinal nerve
E. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
F. Femoral nerve 
G. Gluteal nerves
H. Pudendal nerve
I. Sciatic nerve
J. Saphenous nerve
76
Q 
Which nerve is indicated by the arrow?
A. Femoral
B. Axillary
C. Sciatic
D. Radial
A

A. Femoral

77
Q 
Which nerve is indicated by the arrow?
A. Axillary
B. Radial
C. Sciatic
D. Saphenous
A

B. Radial

78
Q 
Which nerve is indicated by the arrow?
A. Axillary
B. Saphenous
C. Radial
D. Sciatic
A

D. Sciatic

79
Q

Identify the neuronal pools…

A 
A. Divergence
B. Convergence
C. Serial processing
D. Parallel processing
E. Reverberation
80
Q

Anesthetics administered into the epidural space are advantageous because…
A. The effects are long lasting, even with just a single injection
B. The patient experiences both sensory loss and paralysis temporarily
C. The effect is localized and only sensory
D. The effect can easily be carried throughout the spinal cord region by way of cerebrospinal fluid

A

C. The effect is localized and only sensory

81
Q 
Shingles that manifest themselves in close proximity to the umbilical region stem from an infection within spinal nerves emerging from which spinal segments?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Sacral
D. Lumbar
A

B. Thoracic

82
Q

Identify the structural components of the brain…

A 
A. Cerebrum
B. Diencephalon
C. Midbrain
D. Pons
E. Medulla oblongata
F. Gyri
G. Sulci
H. Fissure
I. Cerebellum
83
Q

What is the function of the brain structure indicated by the arrow?
A. Controls emotions and hormone production
B. Coordination of complex motor patterns
C. Processes visual data
D. Conscious thought

A

C. Processes visual data

84
Q

What is the function of the brain structure indicated by the arrow?
A. Conscious thought
B. Processes visual data
C. Relays sensory information to the thalamus and cerebellum
D. Coordination of complex motor patterns

A

A. Conscious thought

85
Q

What is the function of the brain structure indicated by the arrow?
A. Processing visual data
B. Conscious thought
C. Coordination of complex motor patterns
D. Relays sensory information to the thalamus and connects the cerebellum to the cerebrum

A

D. Relays sensory information to the thalamus and connects the cerebellum to the cerebrum

86
Q

What is the function of the brain structure indicated by the arrow?
A. Processes visual data
B. Coordination of complex motor patterns
C. Conscious thought
D. Relays sensory information to the thalamus and cerebellum

A

B. Coordination of complex motor patterns

87
Q

Identify the ventricles of the brain…

A 
A. Interventricular foramen
B. Cerebral aqueduct
C. Lateral ventricles
D. Third ventricle
E. Fourth ventricle
88
Q

Identify the cranial meninges and associated structures…

A 
A. Dura mater
B. Subarachnoid space
C. Pia mater
D. Cerebral cortex
E. Cranium
F. Periosteal cranial dura
G. Dural sinus
H. Meningeal cranial dura
I. Subdural space
J. Arachnoid mater
89
Q

Identify the landmarks and features on one of the cerebral hemispheres…

A 
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Temporal lobe
D. Lateral sulcus
E. Frontal lobe
F. Precentral gyrus
G. Central sulcus
H. Postcentral gyrus
I. Parietal lobe
J. Occipital lobe
K. Cerebellum
90
Q

Identify the origins of the cranial nerves (I-VI)…

A 
A. Olfactory tract
B. Optic chiasm
C. Infundibulum
D. Optic tract
E. Olfactory bulb: olfactory nerve (I)
F. Optic nerve (II)
G. Oculomotor nerve (III)
H. Trochlear nerve (IV)
I. Trigeminal nerve (V)
J. Abducens nerve (VI)
91
Q

Identify the origins of the cranial nerve (VII-XII)…

A 
A. Pons
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebellum
D. Spinal cord
E. Facial nerve (VII)
F. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
G. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
H. Vagus nerve (X)
I. Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
J. Accessory nerve (XI)
92
Q

The accumulation of blood during an epidural or subdural hemorrhage creates debilitating pressure on the brain and, without help, death is imminent. Where exactly is blood accumulating in a subdural hemorrhage?
A. In the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
B. In the space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater
C. In the space between the dura mater and the skull
D. In the ventricles of the brain

A

A. In the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

93
Q

The collection of blood vessels supplying the protective connective tissue layers surrounding the brain may hemorrhage during severe head trauma. This is the case in epidural and subdural hemorrhages. Which of the following names sounds most appropriate for this collection of blood vessels?
A. Meningeal blood vessels
B. Capillaries of the choroid plexus
C. Arachnoid trabeculae
D. None of the listed responses is correct

A

A. Meningeal blood vessels

94
Q 
In aphasia, the ability to speak or read is affected. A deficit in which of the following cortical areas would NOT lead to aphasia?
A. Motor speech area
B. Broca's area
C. Wernicke's area
D. Prefrontal cortex
A

D. Prefrontal cortex

95
Q 
Writing nueron instead of neuron may indicate a condition known as dyslexia, in which letters are often switched within a word. Which of the following cortical functional areas is most likely affected?
A. Olfactory area
B. General interpretive area
C. Gustatory area
D. Limbic system
A

B. General interpretive area

96
Q

There seems to be no biomarkers to identify for chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE). Following autopsy, what brain anatomical aberrations will one look for to conclude that the individual has suffered CTE?
A. Widespread hemorrhaging
B. Enlarged cerebrum
C. Abnormal astrocytes and neurons
D. Cerebral atrophy and enlarged ventricles

A

D. Cerebral atrophy and enlarged ventricles

97
Q

What is the difference between concussion and contusion? How are they diagnosed?
A. They are essentially the same.
B. Contusion is when the injury causes localized bruising of the brain tissue. Concussion is the type of injury that affects brain function. CT scan and MRI are the methods of choice to determine the difference(s) between the two.
C. They are both easily diagnosed by gross visual inspections.
D. Concussion causes edema around the eye sockets and within the cranial cavity.

A

B. Contusion is when the injury causes localized bruising of the brain tissue. Concussion is the type of injury that affects brain function. CT scan and MRI are the methods of choice to determine the difference(s) between the two.

98
Q 
Which of the following tactile receptors is found in the dermal papillae?
A. Tactile corpuscle
B. Ruffini corpuscle
C. Tactile disc
D. Free nerve endings
A

A. Tactile corpuscle

99
Q

Identify the types of tactile receptors in the skin…

A 
A. Free nerve endings
B. Root hair plexus
C. Merkel cells and tactile discs
D. Tactile corpuscle
E. Lamellated corpuscle 
F. Ruffini corpuscle
100
Q 
Assessing spinal nerve damage may involve the use of a vibration fork that is tapped along segments of the spinal nerve pathway. Which type of sensory receptor detects vibrations?
A. Proprioceptors
B. Thermoreceptors
C. Baroreceptors
D. Tactile receptor
A

D. Tactile receptor

101
Q

During anesthesia, a complete disruption in sensory perceptions is desired. Which of the following events is NOT associated with the sensory pathway?
A. Depolarization of a receptor
B. Propagation of a signal
C. Action potential generation in a motor neuron
D. All of the listed events are associated with the sensory pathway

A

C. Action potential generation in a motor neuron

102
Q 
The areas of Michael's brain that were injured during his birth affected his control over his voluntary movements. Which part of the nervous system distributes motor commands to skeletal muscles?
A. Parasympathetic nervous system
B. Somatic nervous system
C. Sympathetic nervous system
D. Autonomic nervous system
A

B. Somatic nervous system

103
Q 
Which principal descending motor pathway provides conscious control over voluntary muscle movements?
A. Posterior column pathway
B. Spinocerebellar pathway
C. Spinothalamic pathway
D. Corticospinal pathway
A

D. Corticospinal pathway

104
Q

Which principal descending motor pathway primarily controls muscle tone and balance?
A. Reticulospinal tract of the medial pathway
B. Aanterior spinothalamic tracts
C. Vestibulospinal tract of the medial pathway
D. Cuneate fasciculus of the posterior column pathway

A

C. Vestibulospinal tract of the medial pathway

105
Q 
Which parts of the somatic nervous system are responsible for coordinating and providing feedback on muscle contractions?
A. Medial and lateral pathways
B. Spinothalamic pathway
C. Basal nuclei and cerebellum
D. Posterior column pathway
A

C. Basal nuclei and cerebellum

106
Q 
Tactile receptors located in the reticular dermis that are tonic and show little if any adaptation are called...
A. Bulbous corpuscles
B. Tactile discs
C. Lamellar corpuscles
D. Root hair plexuses
E. Tactile (Meissner) corpuscles
A

A. Bulbous corpuscles

107
Q 
A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a...
A. Tactile (Merkel) disc
B. Bulbous corpuscle
C. Lamellar corpuscle
D. Root hair plexus
E. Tactile (Meissner) corpuscle
A

E. Tactile (Meissner) corpuscle

108
Q 
A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a...
A. Bulbous corpuscle
B. Tactile (Merkel) disc
C. Tactile (Meissner) corpuscle
D. Lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle
E. Root hair plexus
A

D. Lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle

109
Q 
Bladder fullness is to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as blood pH is to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Nociceptors; thermoreceptors
B. Baroreceptors; thermoreceptors
C. Baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
D. Chemoreceptors; nociceptors
E. Baroreceptors; nociceptors
A

C. Baroreceptors; chemoreceptors

110
Q 
Pain is to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as cold is to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
B. Nociceptors; thermoreceptors
C. Baroreceptors; thermoreceptors
D. Chemoreceptors; nociceptors
E. Baroreceptors; nociceptors
A

B. Nociceptors; thermoreceptors

111
Q 
What type of a receptor would provide information on lung expansion to respiratory centers in the brainstem?
A. Nociceptor
B. Proprioceptor
C. Baroreceptor
D. Ruffini corpuscle
A

C. Baroreceptor

112
Q

Identify the components of the autonomic nervous system…

A 
A. Smooth muscle
B. Glands
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Adipocytes
E. Visceral motor nuclei in hypothalamus 
F. Ganglionic neurons
G. Autonomic ganglia
H. Preganglionic neuron
I. Autonomic nuclei in brain stem 
J. Autonomic nuclei in spinal cord
113
Q 
What neuron runs from the CNS to the autonomic ganglion?
A. Somatic motor neuron
B. Preganglionic neuron
C. Postganglionic neuron
D. Lower motor neuron
A

B. Preganglionic neuron

114
Q

What part of the autonomic nervous system is represented in the image?
A. Sympathetic division
B. Both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
C. Parasympathetic division
D. None of the ANS is shown in this image

A

A. Sympathetic division

115
Q

Identify the components of the somatic nervous system…

A 
A. Upper motor neurons in primary motor cortex
B. Somatic motor nuclei of brain stem
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Lower motor neurons
E. Brain
F. Spinal cord
G. Somatic motor nuclei of spinal cord
116
Q

Identify the structures associated with ganglia in sympathetic pathways (collateral ganglia)

A 
A. Splanchnic nerve (preganglionic fibers)
B. Postganglionic fibers
C. Collateral ganglion
D. Lateral horn
E. White ramus communicans
117
Q

Identify the structures associated with the ganglia in sympathetic pathways (sympathetic chain ganglia)…

A

A. Sympathetic nerve (postganglionic fibers)
B. Autonomic ganglion of left sympathetic chain
C. Spinal nerve
D. Preganglionic neuron
E. Autonomic ganglion of right sympathetic chain
F. White ramus communicans
G. Ganglionic neuron
H. Gray ramus communicans

118
Q

Identify the structures associated with ganglia in sympathetic pathways: the adrenal medullae…

A

A. Preganglionic fibers
B. Endocrine cells (specialized ganglionic neurons)
C. Adrenal medullae

119
Q 
Which of the following effectors is innervated by neurons that synapse in the collateral ganglia?
A. Intestine
B. Salivary gland
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Heart
A

A. Intestine

120
Q

What is the effect of neurotransmitters released at the area marked by the arrow?
A. They would enhance the effects of the parasympathetic division of the ANS
B. They would diminish the effects of the parasympathetic division of the ANS
C. They would have no effect on the fight-or-flight response
D. They are released into the blood and produce long-lasting and widespread effects in the body

A

D. They are released into the blood and produce long-lasting and widespread effects in the body

121
Q 
Which of the following is NOT supplied by cervical sympathetic chain ganglia?
A. Salivary glands
B. Iris
C. Heart
D. Spleen
A

D. Spleen

122
Q 
Which of the following target organs will have its parasympathetic regulation impacted by damage to the sacral region of the spinal cord?
A. Heart
B. Stomach
C. Salivary glands
D. Urinary bladder
A

D. Urinary bladder

123
Q 
Where are the parasympathetic ganglionic synapses for the heart located?
A. In the celiac ganglion
B. Within the heart itself
C. In the ciliary ganglion
D. In the otic ganglion
A

B. Within the heart itself

124
Q

Identify the anatomical differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions…

A 
A. Sympathetic ganglion
B. Preganglionic neuron
C. Preganglionic fiber
D. Ganglionic neurons
E. Postganglionic fiber
F. Target
G. Parasympathetic ganglion
125
Q

Insomnia is considered a sleep disorder. Sleep technicians use a variety of techniques to determine the underlying cause(s) of this condition in an insomniac. Which of the following is NOT one of the causes of insomnia?
A. Amnesia
B. Anxious personality type
C. Stressful life event
D. Substance abuse and poor preparation for sleep

A

A. Amnesia

126
Q

One possible way to categorize nervous system disorders is to check levels of neurotransmitters. What degenerative disorder is partly identified by the progressive loss of dopamine?
A. Spina bifida
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Huntington’s disease
D. The answer cannot be determined from the given choices

A

B. Parkinson’s disease

127
Q

Increased vagal tone slows down the heart rate and subsequent reduction of blood flow to the brain. Which neurotransmitter is responsible for lowering the heart rate?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine
D. None of the listed neurotransmitters influences the heart rate

A

A. Acetylcholine

128
Q 
What is the medical term for fainting?    
A. Syncope
B. Passing out
C. Dementia
D. Ischemia
A

A. Syncope

Anatomy and Physiology Lab (5 decks)

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