Chapter 1-7 Powerpoint Questions Flashcards by Serena Saechia

Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

hemo-

Blood

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

-itis

Inflammation of

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

derm-

Skin

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

-cyte

Cell

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

osteo-

Bone

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

glyco-

Sugar

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

-phil

Love

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

cephal-

Head

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

sub-

Below

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Match the root word, prefix, or suffix to its meaning…

myo-

Muscle

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What is the difference between intracellular fluid and intercellular fluid?
A. Intracellular fluid is located within cells, whereas intercellular fluid is located between cells
B. Intracellular fluid is located within actively dividing cells, whereas intercellular fluid is located within cells which are not currently undergoing cellular division
C. Intracellular fluid is located between the cells whereas intercellular fluid is located within cells
D. There is no difference since the prefix intra- is synonymous with the prefix inter-

A. Intracellular fluid is located within cells, whereas intercellular fluid is located between cells

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A group of cells working together forms the level of organization called the...
A. Organism level
B. Tissue level
C. Molecular level
D. Organ level

B. Tissue level

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A group of organs working together perform a specific function forms the level of organization called the...
A. Organ system level
B. Organism level
C. Organ level
D. Molecular level

A. Organ system level

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Match the organs located in the left-hand column to the body system to which they belong…
- Penis, epididymis, vagina, and ovaries

Reproductive system

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Match the organs located in the left-hand column to the body system to which they belong…
- Skin and the hair

Integumentary system

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Match the organs located in the left-hand column to the body system to which they belong…
- Skeletal muscles and associated tendons

Muscular system

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Match the organs located in the left-hand column to the body system to which they belong…
- Bones, cartilage, and ligaments

Skeletal system

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Match the organs located in the left-hand column to the body system to which they belong…
- Brain, spinal cord, and their associated nerves

Nervous system

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Describe the body pose of someone who is in the anatomical position…
A. Standing erect, hands at sides, palms pointed forward, toes pointing forward
B. Standing erect, hands outstretched, palms pointed upward, toes pointing forward
C. Standing erect, hands at sides, palms pointed backward, toes pointing forward
D. Standing erect, hands outstretched, palms pointed downward, toes pointing forward

A. Standing erect, hands at sides, palms pointed forward, toes pointing forward

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Match the anatomical landmark to the corresponding letter located in the photo…

A. Cephalic
B. Brachial
C. Antecubital
D. Cervical
E. Thoracic
F. Abdominal

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Match the anatomical landmark to the corresponding letter located in the photo…

A. Acromial
B. Dorsal
C. Olecranal
D. Lumbar
E. Cephalic
F. Cervical

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Match the anatomical landmark to the corresponding letter located in the photo…

A. Lumbar
B. Gluteal
C. Popliteal
D. Sural
E. Plantar

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Using your knowledge of anatomical landmarks, where is the likely location of the popliteal lymph nodes?
A. Under the arm
B. Behind the knee
C. Back of the neck
D. Groin area

B. Behind the knee

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Match the anatomical directional term to the corresponding letter in the photo…

Medial
Distal
Proximal
Lateral

A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Proximal
D. Distal

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``` The breast bone (sternum) is _________ to the ribs. A. Ventral B. Dorsal C. Lateral D. Medial ```

D. Medial

``` The umbilicus (navel) is _________ to the chin. A. Lateral B. Superficial C. Inferior D. Dorsal ```

C. Inferior

Match the abdominopelvic quadrant to the corresponding letter in the photo... - Hypogastric - Right inguinal - Left hypochondriac - Epigastric

D. Right inguinal E. Hypogastric F. Epigastric G. Left hypochondriac

Match the sectional plane to the corresponding letter in the photo... - Sagittal - Transverse - Frontal/coronal

A. Sagittal B. Frontal/coronal C. Transverse

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Microvilli

Increases cell surface area to facilitate absorption of extracellular materials

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Nucleus

Storage and processing of genetic information

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Plasma membrane

Controls and entry and exit of materials into and out of the cell

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Golgi apparatus

Storage, alteration, and packaging of secretory products

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Lysosomes

Contains enzymes that breakdown damaged organelles and pathogens

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Centrosomes and centrioles

Essential for chromosome movement during cell division

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Ribosomes

Protein synthesis

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Rough ER

Modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Mitochondria

Produces the majority of ATP in the cell

Identify the cellular function of each cell organelle... | - Smooth ER

Synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates

``` The central dogma of molecular biology states that DNA is _________ into mRNA, and mRNA is ________ into protein. The first step of mRNA synthesis from DNA utilizes the enzyme. A. Translated/transcribed/RNA polymerase B. Translated/transcribed/DNA polymerase C. Transcribed/translated/DNA polymerase D. Transcribed/translated/RNA polymerase ```

D. Transcribed/translated/RNA polymerase

``` Identify the complementary nucleotide sequence that would be generated during DNA replication of the sequence GTTACAG A. CAATGTC B. TCCGTGT C. GTTACAG D. CAAUGUC ```

A. CAATGTC

``` What is the nucleotide sequence of an mRNA strand that has been transcribed from the DNA sequence GGTAGC? A. CCAUCG B. TTGCTA C. GGTAGC D. CCUACG ```

A. CCAUCG

``` Which DNA strand is utilized for the synthesis of an mRNA molecule? A. Template strand B. Intermediate strand C. Codon strand D. Coding strand ```

A. Template strand

``` List the complementary RNA nucleotides that would be added from position 1-4 A. U, C, G, A B. T, C, G, A C. U, C, G, U D. A, C, G, U ```

A. U, C, G, A

``` What molecule possesses an anticodon? A. rRNA B. mRNA C. sRNA D. tRNA ```

D. tRNA

``` What anticodon would complement the codon sequence CTA? A. GAT B. GAU C. AGT D. TAU ```

B. GAU

``` Which base in RNA is replaced by uracil? A. T B. C C. A D. G ```

A. T

``` What is the name of the enzyme that creates the mRNA copy from DNA? A. Reverse transcriptase B. RNA polymerase C. Helicase D. DNA polymerase ```

B. RNA polymerase

``` What is the name of the sugar in the mRNA nucleotides? A. Maltose B. Ribose C. Glucose D. Deoxyribose ```

B. Ribose

``` What organelle assists tRNA in translating the mRNA in the cytoplasm? A. Golgi apparatus B. Mitochondria C. Nucleus D. Ribosome ```

D. Ribosome

``` Transcription is the first step in protein synthesis and it occurs in the... A. Golgi apparatus B. Ribosomes C. Nucleus D. Cytoplasm ```

C. Nucleus

``` Translation is the second step in protein synthesis and it occurs in the... A. Nucleus B. Golgi apparatus C. Cytoplasm D. Smooth ER ```

C. Cytoplasm

``` If a DNA coding sequence contains 12 nucleotides, how many mRNA codons will there be? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 6 ```

B. 4

``` Each codon of mRNA (hence each triplet in DNA) codes for one... A. Amino acid B. Polypeptide C. Nucleic acid D. Nucleotide ```

A. Amino acid

``` Each mRNA strand codes for one... A. Polypeptide B. Nucleic acid C. Nucleotide D. Amino acid ```

A. Polypeptide

``` A specific amino acid carried by a tRNA is determined by its... A. Glycocalyx B. Anticodon C. Codon D. Ribosomes ```

B. Anticodon

Match the class of epithelia to the corresponding letter in the drop down menu

``` E. Simple squamous F. Simple cuboidal G. Simple columnar H. Stratified squamous I. Stratified cuboidal J. Stratified columnar ```

``` Various types of epithelial tissues are classified by the _________ of individual cells and the number of ______ that form the tissue. A. Organelle distribution; cell layers B. Density; collagen fibers C. Layers; collagen fibers D. Shape; cell layers ```

D. Shape; cell layers

``` Simple squamous epithelial tissue is permeable, therefore it functions in... A. Organ support B. Protection C. Mucus movement D. Absorption and secretion ```

D. Absorption and secretion

``` What tissue type comprises the alveoli of the lung? A. Simple cuboidal epithelium B. Elastic cartilage C. Elastic tissue D. Simple squamous epithelium ```

D. Simple squamous epithelium

``` Transitional epithelia is located in the ________. A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidneys D. Urinary bladder ```

D. Urinary bladder

``` Which type of epithelia would have the least protective function? A. Transitional B. Simple squamous C. Stratified cuboidal D. Pseudostratified columnar ```

B. Simple squamous

``` What is the function of cilia located in the trachea that is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium? A. Cell motility B. Absorption of nutrients C. Food propulsion D. Movement of mucus ```

D. Movement of mucus

Match the connective tissue proper matrix component to the corresponding letter in the drop down menu...

``` A. Reticular fibers B. Fixed macrophage C. Mast cell D. Elastic fibers E. Collagen fibers F. Fibroblast G. Mesenchymal cell H. Lymphocyte I. Ground substance J. Adipocytes L. Free macrophage M. Melanocyte ```

Connective tissue proper is divided into loose and dense. What structure determines if it is classified as loose or dense connective tissue proper? A. The number of fibers in its ground substance B. The number of mast cells in its ground substance C. The number of neutrophils in its ground substance D. The number of fibroblasts in its ground substance

A. The number of fibers in its ground substance

``` The _______ of CT proper consists of proteins fibers and ground substance. A. Sub-compartment B. Matrix C. Lacunae D. Compartment ```

B. Matrix

``` Which of the following is NOT a formed element? A. WBCs B. Plasma C. RBCs D. Platelets ```

B. Plasma

Where is elastic cartilage located in the body? A. Auricle of the ear B. Between vertebrae of the spinal column C. Between skeletal muscle D. Surrounding the eye socket

A. Auricle of the ear

``` Which of the following is NOT a white blood cell? A. Neutrophil B. Thrombocyte C. Monocyte D. Eosinophil ```

B. Thrombocyte

``` The most abundant form of cartilage in the body is... A. Fibrocartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Elastic cartilage D. Reticular cartilage ```

B. Hyaline cartilage

Match the loose/dense connective tissue type to the corresponding letter...

``` A. Areolar tissue B. Adipose tissue C. Reticular tissue D. Dense regular connective tissue E. Dense irregular connective tissue F. Elastic tissue ```

``` What molecule is stored in the tissue type labeled "B"? A. Triglycerides B. Starch C. Glycogen D. Enzymes ```

A. Triglycerides

Match the tissue type to the corresponding letter...

A. Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Bone tissue

``` Which of the following tissue type is associated with covering bone surfaces at synovial joints? A, Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Bone tissue ```

A. Hyaline cartilage

``` Identify the muscle tissue labeled "B"... A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Reticular D. Skeletal ```

B. Cardiac

``` Where would you find the muscle tissue labeled "B"... A. Spinal cord B. Heart C. Surrounding blood vessels D. Biceps (arm muscle) ```

B. Heart

``` What muscle type has striations, and is under involuntary control? A. Cardiac and smooth B. Cardiac C. Skeletal D. Smooth ```

B. Cardiac

``` What muscle type has striations, and is under voluntary control? A. Smooth B. Skeletal C. Reticular D. Cardiac ```

B. Skeletal

``` Which type of tissue has axons and dendrites? A. Fibrocartilage B. Neuroglia C. Stratified cuboidal epithelium D. Neuron ```

D. Neuron

``` The study of tissues using a microscope is called ___________. Thin sections of tissue are fixed, sliced and then stained to enhance contrast. A. Microbiology B. Tissology C. Cytology D. Histology ```

D. Histology

``` Gerlach used a stain called carmine to stain body tissues, but had a very difficulty time staining a certain tissue type. He was finally able to stain the tissue section when he mistakenly left the sample in the stain overnight. What type of tissue type was Gerlach finally able to visualize due to his "error"? A. Dense regular connective tissue B. Reticular tissue C. Dense irregular connective tissue D. Neural ```

D. Neural

``` The type and structure of specific tissue defines its... A. Subatomic particles B. Function C. Length D. Molecules ```

B. Function

Match the cutaneous structure in the left hand column to its corresponding letter...

``` A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Papillary layer D. Reticular layer E. Subcutaneous layer ```

Match the cutaneous structure in the left hand column to its corresponding letter...

``` A. Dermal papilla B. Epidermal ridge C. Stratum corneum D. Stratum lucidum E. Stratum granulosum F. Stratum spinosum G. Stratum basale H. Basement membrane I. Dermis ```

The stratum lucidum is only found in thick skin. What is another difference when comparing thick skin to regular (thin) skin? A. Thick skin has basal cells in all skin layers, except for the stratum lucidum B. Thick skin has a thicker stratum spinosum C. Thick skin has a thicker stratum corneum D. Thick skin has more melanocytes

C. Thick skin has a thicker stratum corneum

``` Which layer of the cutaneous membrane lies directly inferior to the epidermis? A. Hypodermis B. Reticular layer of the dermis C. Papillary layer of the dermis D. Elastic layer of the dermis ```

C. Papillary layer of the dermis

``` Which layer of the epidermis is the thickest layer? A. Stratum basale B. Stratum granulosum C. Stratum corneum D. Stratum spinosum ```

C. Stratum corneum

``` What layer of the epidermis contains melanocytes, Merkel cells, and stem cells? A. Stratum granulosum B. Stratum spinosum C. Stratum basale D. Stratum corneum ```

C. Stratum basale

What is the function of Langerhans cells (dendritic cells) which are located in the stratum spinosum? A. Protect the body from microbes and help in the immune response against superficial skin cancer B. Produce sweat excreted from apocrine glands C. Produce a tough protein called keratin that helps to waterproof the skin D. Protect the skin from UV rays by producing skin pigmentation

A. Protect the body from microbes and help in the immune response against superficial skin cancer

Which of the following is the correct order of epidermal layers of thick skin from deep to superficial? A. Stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum basale, stratum corneum B. Stratum lucidum, stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum C. Stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale D. Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum

D. Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum

Match the structure in the left hand column to its corresponding letter...

``` B. Dermis C. Basement membrane D. Melanocyte E. Melanin pigment F. Keratinocyte G. Melanosome ```

``` Eating too many carrots can result in an orangish skin tint. What is the name of the pigment that is responsible for the orangish coloration? A. Betaine B. Carotene C. Carmine D. Melanin ```

B. Carotene

``` Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting skin color? A. Keratinocytes B. Melanin C. Dermal blood supply D. Carotene ```

A. Keratinocytes

Why does exposure to sunlight darken skin? A. Melanocytes will rapidly divide in response to UV rays B. Melanocytes will produce more pigment in response to UV rays C. UV light exposure destroys guard cells making the skin appear darker D. UV light exposure converts pro-melanin to melanin

B. Melanocytes will produce more pigment in response to UV rays

``` What genetic disorder depicted in this image results in a lack of skin pigmentation which increases the chance of developing skin cancer? A. Albinism B. Renaud's syndrome C. Keloid D. Addison's disease ```

A. Albinism

``` Diseases that involve not getting enough oxygen-rich blood to the blood vessels, such as certain pulmonary and heart diseases can cause the skin to take on a bluish color. What is the name of the abnormal condition of having bluish skin coloration? A. Jaundice B. Vitiligo C. Cyanosis D. Porphyria ```

C. Cyanosis

What disease is associated with this skin condition? A. Addison's disease B. Cirrhosis of the liver C. A genetic disorder affecting melanocytes D. Renaud's syndrome

D. Renaud's syndrome

``` Which of the following skin conditions could this patient likely be suffering from? A. Vitiligo B. Hypocapnia C. Albinism D. Jaundice ```

D. Jaundice

``` A person with ________ will have a bronze-like appearance of their skin and nails and have hyperpigmentation of their gums. A. Addison's disease B. Tay-Sachs C. Cushing's syndrome D, Renaud's syndrome ```

A. Addison's disease

``` What autoimmune disorder causes the destruction of melanocytes resulting in patches of skin void of pigment? A. Tay-Sachs B. Vitiligo C. Albinism D. Rheumatoid arthritis ```

B. Vitiligo

``` What organ may be involved if a person presents with jaundice? A. Gall bladder B. Spleen C. Liver D. Bone ```

C. Liver

``` The most dangerous form of skin cancer is called... A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Melanoma C. Actinic keratosis D. Squamous cell carcinoma ```

B. Melanoma

``` When you cut yourself and bleed/feel the sensation of pain, which cutaneous membranes have been damaged? A. The epidermis and hypodermis B. Dermis and epidermis C. The dermis and hypodermis D. The epidermis only ```

B. Dermis and epidermis

``` Which cutaneous membrane must be reached for a tattoo to become permanent? A. Hypodermis B. Epidermal ridge C. Dermis D. Epidermis ```

C. Dermis

Compare the number of melanocytes between fair-skinned individuals and dark-skinned individuals... A. Fair-skinned people have more melanocytes than dark-skinned people B. Dark-skinned people have more melanocytes than fair-skinned people C. All fair-skinned people have a form of albinism, so they lack melanocytes D. Fair and dark-skinned people have approximately the same number of melanocytes

D. Fair and dark-skinned people have approximately the same number of melanocytes

``` When classifying bones by shape, carpal bones are classified as ________ bones, and the ________ is classified as a sesamoid bone. A. Irregular; flat B. Short; flat C. Irregular; patella D. Short; patella ```

D. Short; patella

``` When classifying bones by shape, the humerus is classified as a ________ bone, and ________ are classified as irregular bones. A. Flat; short B. Long; short C. Long; vertebrae D. Flat; vertebrae ```

C. Long; vertebrae

``` When classifying bones by shape, small, flat, oddly-shaped bones located between flat bones of the skull are called ______ bones. A. Sutural B. Short C. Sub-flat D. Sesamoid ```

A. Sutural

Match the bone shape in the left hand column to its corresponding letter...

``` A. Sutural bone B. Irregular bone C. Short bone D. Flat bone E. Long bone F. Sesamoid bone ```

Match the bone structures in the left-hand column to their corresponding letter...

``` A. Spongy bone B. Compact bone C. Medullary cavity D. Epiphysis E. Metaphysis F. Diaphysis ```

``` Mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix are called ________, and multinucleated cells that dissolve the bone matrix are called _________. A. Osteocytes; osteoclasts B. Osteoblasts; osteogenic cells C. Osteons; osteocytes D. Osteoblasts; osteoclasts ```

A. Osteocytes; osteoclasts

``` Immature bone cells that secrete osteoid are called ________, and bone stem cells are called ________. A. Osteoblasts; osteogenic cells B. Osteocytes; osteoclasts C. Osteoblasts; osteoclasts D. Osteons; Osteocytes ```

A. Osteoblasts; osteogenic cells

Match the bone cell types in the left-hand column to their corresponding letter...

A. Osteocyte B. Osteoblast C. Osteogenic cell D. Osteoclast

Match the compact bone structures in the left-hand column to their corresponding letter...

``` A. Canaliculi B. Concentric lamellae C. Osteon D. Lacunae E. Central canal ```

Match the bone structures in the left-hand column to their corresponding letter...

``` A. Circumferential lamellae B. Osteons C. Perforating fibers D. Central canal E. Perforating canal F. Periosteum G. Interstitial lamellae H. Concentric lamella I. Trabeculae ```

``` The bone structure labeled "I" is called ________ and is found in _______ bone. A. Trabeculae/compact B. Lamellae/spongy C. Lamellae/compact D. Trabeculae/spongy ```

D. Trabeculae/spongy

``` A ________ fracture occurs only when one side of the shaft is broken. A. Comminuted B. Transverse C. Greenstick D. Colles ```

C. Greenstick

``` _______ fractures shatter the affected bone area into a multitude of bony fragments. A. Comminuted B. Transverse C. Spiral D. Displaced ```

A. Comminuted

``` _________ fractures occur in the vertebrae subjected to extreme pressure and is often associated with osteoporosis. A. Pott's B. Colles C. Compression D. Comminuted ```

C. Compression

``` A ________ fracture occurs at the distal portion of the radius, and is typically a result from reaching out to cushion a fall. A. Colles B. Transverse C. Compression D. Pott's ```

A. Colles

``` A ________ fracture occurs at the ankle, and affects the medial malleolus of the distal tibia and the lateral malleolus of the distal fibula. A. Colles B. Pott's C. Compression D. Epiphyseal ```

B. Pott's

``` Certain ________ fractures that occur between the epiphysis and epiphyseal cartilage can permanently stop growth at that site. A. Diaphyseal B. Metaphyseal C. Epiphyseal D. Chondrocytic ```

C. Epiphyseal

Match the type of bone fractures in the left-hand column to their corresponding letter...

``` A. Epiphyseal fracture B. Comminuted fracture C. Greenstick fracture D. Colles fracture E. Pott's fracture ```

Match the type of bone fractures in the left-hand column to their corresponding letter...

A. Transverse fracture B. Displaced fracture C. Compression fracture D. Spiral fracture

What function do phagocytes perform during the bone healing process? A. Build new matrix B. Produce histamine to increase inflammation C. Cleans the fracture of debris and any germs that are present D. Release factors that help in clot formation

C. Cleans the fracture of debris and any germs that are present

``` A soft callus is primarily comprised of _________, while a hard callus is mainly comprised of ________. A. Fibrin; bone B. Cartilage; bone C. Bone; cartilage D. Fibrin; cartilage ```

B. Cartilage; bone

Which of the following choices have the steps of a bone fracture repair in the correct order? A. Soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling, hematoma formation B. Hematoma formation, soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling C. Soft callous formation, hematoma formation, bone remodeling, hard callus formation D. Hematoma formation, soft callous formation, bone remodeling, hard callus formation

B. Hematoma formation, soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling

``` What type of cartilage forms the soft callus during bone fracture repair? A. Elastic cartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Dense cartilage ```

C. Fibrocartilage

What occurs during bone remodeling? A. Removal of existing bone by osteocytes and the deposition of new bone by osteogenic cells B. Removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts C. Removal of existing bone by osteoblasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoclasts D. Removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteogenic cells

B. Removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts

``` Identify the adult human skull structure labeled "C"... A. Occipital suture B. Lambdoid suture C. Squamous suture D. Frontal suture ```

B. Lambdoid suture

``` Identify the structure of the adult human skull labeled "A"... A. Temporal bone B. Ethmoid C. Lacrimal bone D. Sphenoid ```

D. Sphenoid

``` Identify the bone of the adult human skull labeled "I"... A. Vomer B. Nasal bone C. Ethmoid D. Palatine bone ```

A. Vomer

``` Identify the bone of the adult human skull labeled "J"... A. Foramen lacerum B. Mental foramen C. Supra-orbital foramen D. Infra-orbital foramen ```

B. Mental foramen

``` Identify the vertebral column region/curve labeled "I"... A. Distal lumbar region B. Coccygeal region C. Sacral region D. Pubic region ```

B. Coccygeal region

``` Identify the vertebra structure labeled "B"... A. Inferior articular process B. Spinous process C. Transverse process D. Superior articular process ```

C. Transverse process

``` Identify the thoracic cage structure labeled "A"... A. Costal cartilage B. Xiphoid process C. Jugular notch D. Clavicular articulation ```

C. Jugular notch

``` In scientific terms, the three auditory ossicles are called the _______, _______, and _______. A. Pisiform; navicular; cuneiform B. Hamate; capitate; trapezoid C. Malleus; incus; stapes D. Scaphoid; lunate; triquetrum ```

C. Malleus; incus; stapes

``` The only bone that doesn't articulate with any other bone is the _______ bone. A. Navicular B. Pisiform C. Hyoid D. Calcaneous ```

C. Hyoid

Which of the following rib descriptions is FALSE? A. Rib pairs 8-12 are called "false ribs" B. Rib pairs 8-10 are called vertebrochondral ribs C. Rib pairs 11-12 are called "floating ribs" D. Rib pairs 1-8 are called vertebrosternal ribs

D. Rib pairs 1-8 are called vertebrosternal ribs

``` Identify the right scapula labeled "F"... A. Acromion B. Lateral spine C. Glenoid fossa D. Subscapular fossa ```

A. Acromion

``` Identify the radius/ulna structure labeled "J"... A. Radial tuberosity B. Head of the radius C. Head of the ulna D. Radial styloid process ```

C. Head of the ulna

``` Identify the adult pelvis structure labeled "H"... A. Iliac crest B. Ischium C. Pubis D. Obturator foramen ```

C. Pubis

``` Identify the right tibia and fibula structure labeled "I"... A. Lateral tibial condyle B. Tibial tuberosity C. Condylar process D. Medial malleolus ```

D. Medial malleolus

``` The ________ of the ulna forms the point of your elbow. A. Medial epicondyle B. Coronoid process C. Olecranon D. Radial notch ```

C. Olecranon

``` In scientific terms, the thumb is the _______, and the big "great" toe is the _______. A. Navicular; capitate B. Hamate; scaphoid C. Pisiform; cuneiform D. Pollex; hallux ```

D. Pollex; hallux

``` Which 3 bones are fused together to form the pelvic bone? A. Trapezoid, hamate, lunate B. Navicular, cuboid, cuneiform C. Ischium, ilium, pubis D. Malleus, incus, stapes ```

C. Ischium, ilium, pubis

``` The acetabulum articulates with the... A. Head of the humerus B. Sacral region of the vertebral column C. None of the listed answers are correct D. Head of the femur ```

D. Head of the femur

``` The calcaneus bone is the site of attachment of the calcaneal tendon. The calcaneal tendon is also known as the... A. Achilles tendon B. Interosseous membrane C. Tendon tarsalus D. Malleolar tendon ```

A. Achilles tendon

Match the abnormal spinal curvatures in the left-hand column to their corresponding letter...

A. Scoliosis B. Kyphosis C. Lordosis

``` An abnormal lateral ("side-to-side") curvature of the spin is called ________. When this curvature occurs for an unknown reason, it is referred to as __________. A. Scoliosis; cryptic B. Kyphosis; idiopathic C. Kyphosis; cryptic D. Scoliosis; idiopathic ```

D. Scoliosis; idiopathic

``` When a person has an abnormal spine curvature called _________, their head and shoulders are positioned forward, but if their stomach muscles are slacked, have hyperextended knees, and flat feet, they most likely have an abnormal spine curvature called __________. A. Kyphosis/lordosis B. Scoliosis/kyphosis C. Lordosis/scoliosis D. Lordosis/kyphosis ```

A. Kyphosis/lordosis

Match the joint type in the left-hand column to its corresponding letter...

``` A. Suture B. Gomphosis C. Synchondrosis D. Synostosis E. Syndesmosis F. Symphysis ```

``` The wrist exhibits biaxial movement, which means that it moves in ____ planes. A. All B. Two C. Four D. Three ```

B. Two

``` What functional category is a fibrous gomphosis? A. Amphiarthrosis B. Syndesmosis C. Synarthrosis D. Diarthrosis ```

C. Synarthrosis

``` A cartilaginous, immovable joint that joins two adjacent bones is called a ________. A. Syndesmosis B. Synostosis C. Synchondrosis D. Symphysis ```

C. Synchondrosis

``` Epiphyseal lines of mature long bones are examples of immoveable bony _______. A. Synostoses B. Sutures C. Gomphoses D. Synchondroses ```

A. Synostoses

``` What structural category is the slightly moveable pubic symphysis? A. Bony B. Elastic C. Cartilaginous D. Fibrous ```

C. Cartilaginous

Match the letter in the left-hand column to its corresponding synovial joint structure...

``` A. Medullary cavity B. Articular cartilage C. Spongy bone D. Periosteum E. Ligament F. Synovial membrane G. Joint cavity H. Compact bone ```

Match the angular movement in the left-hand column to its corresponding letter...

``` A. Flexion B. Hyperextension C. Abduction D. Extension E. Adduction F. Circumduction ```

Match the letter in the left-hand column to its corresponding rotational movement...

``` A. Right rotation B. Lateral (external) rotation C. Left rotation D. Supination E. Pronation F. Medial (internal) rotation ```

Match the letter in the left-hand column to its corresponding special movement...

``` A. Eversion B. Inversion C. Dorsiflexion D. Plantar flexion E. Opposition F. Retraction G. Protraction H. Depression I. Elevation J. Lateral flexion ```

Match the letter in the left-hand column to its corresponding intervertebral joint structure...

``` A. Ligamenta flava B. Posterior longitudinal ligament C. Interspinous ligament D. Supraspinous ligament E. Anterior longitudinal ligament ```

Match the letter in the left-hand column to its corresponding right knee structure...

``` A. Quadriceps tendon B. Patellar retinaculae C. Fibular collateral ligament D. Patella E. Tibial collateral ligament F. Patellar ligament ```

Match the letter in the left-hand column to its corresponding shoulder joint structure...

``` A. Acromioclavicular ligament B. Coraco-acromial ligament C. Coracoclavicular ligament D. Subdeltoid bursa E. Synovial membrane F. Articular cartilage G. Joint cavity H. Glenoid labrum I. Articular capsule ```

``` Osteoarthritis is also called ________ disease. A. Arthritic dysbiosis B. Arthritic dysplasia C. Degenerative joint D. Gouty arthritic ```

C. Degenerative joint

``` Which of the following wouldn't be a possible cause for osteoarthritis? A. Repetitive joint damage B. Being overweight C. Family history D. Autoimmune disease ```

D. Autoimmune disease

``` Which type of arthritis could be treated by all of the following medications: steroids, standard DMARDS, and biologic DMARDs. A. Gouty arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Dysplastic arthritis D. Osteoarthritis ```

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

``` For severe rheumatoid arthritis that hasn't been helped by medication, a doctor may suggest joint replacement surgery. The medical term for joint replacement is... A. Arthroscopy B. Arthrodesis C. Angioplasty D. Arthroplasty ```

D. Arthroplasty