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Anatomy and Physiology Lab > Chapter 1-7 Lab Questions > Flashcards

Chapter 1-7 Lab Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Label the following levels of organization…

  • Organ level
  • Chemical level
  • Tissue level
  • Cellular level
  • Organism level
  • Organ system level
A 
A. Chemical level
B. Cellular level
C. Tissue level
D. Organ level
E. Organ system level
F. Organism level
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2
Q

Identify the following organ systems…

  • Pituitary gland, thyroid gland, pancreas, suprarenal glands, gonads, endocrine tissues in other systems
  • Heart, blood, blood vessels
  • Skeletal muscles and associated tendons
  • Bones, cartilage, ligaments, marrow
  • Skin, hair, sweat glands, nails
  • Brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, sense organs
A

A. Skin, hair, sweat glands, nails
B. Bones, cartilage, ligaments, marrow
C. Skeletal muscles and associated tendons
D. Brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, sense organs
E. Pituitary gland, thyroid gland, pancreas, suprarenal glands, gonads, endocrine tissues in other systems
F. Heart, blood, blood vessels

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3
Q

Identify the following organ systems…

  • Nasal cavity, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, alveoli
  • Teeth, tongue, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, gall bladder, pancreas
  • Spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, tonsils
  • Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
  • Ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, labia, clitoris, mammary glands
  • Testes, epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicles, prostate gland, penis, scrotum
A

A. Spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, tonsils
B. Nasal cavity, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, alveoli
C. Teeth, tongue, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, gall bladder, pancreas
D. Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
E. Testes, epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicles, prostate gland, penis, scrotum
F. Ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, labia, clitoris, mammary glands

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4
Q 
Identify the correct level of organization...
A. Organ level
B. Organ system level
C. Cellular level
D. Tissue level
A

A. Organ level

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5
Q

Identify the image that represents the skeletal system…

A

B.

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6
Q 
Physicians draw on numerous sources of information on patient health. The function of lungs, for instance, can be checked through careful listening with a stethoscope. Such practice is called auscultation and falls under which of the following particular physiological specialties?
A. Histology
B. Organ physiology
C. Systemic physiology
D. Cell physiology
A

B. Organ physiology

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7
Q

Effective auscultation of the lungs relies on knowledge of which of the following anatomical concepts?
A. Proximal and distal locations
B. Anatomical landmarks
C. Sectional planes
D. Right and left lower abdominopelvic quadrants

A

B. Anatomical landmarks

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8
Q 
Another term for "anterior" is...
A. Cranial
B. Dorsal
C. Caudal
D. Ventral
A

D. Ventral

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9
Q 
Identify this sectional plane...
A. Transverse
B. Sagittal
C. Coronal
D. Frontal
A

B. Sagittal

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10
Q

Identify the abdominopelvic regions…

A 
A. Right hypochondriac region
B. Umbilical region
C. Right lumbar region
D. Right inguinal region
E. Hypogastric (pubic) region
F. Epigastric region
G. Left hypochondriac region
H. Left lumbar region
I. Left inguinal region
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11
Q

Identify the anterior anatomical landmarks on the superior half of the body…

A 
A. Cephalic (head)
B. Brachial (arm)
C. Antecubital (front of elbow)
D. Carpal (wrist)
E. Cervical (neck)
F. Thoracic (chest)
G. Abdominal (abdomen) 
H. Manual (hand)
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12
Q

Identify the anterior anatomical landmarks on the interior half of the body…

A 
A. Patellar (kneecap)
B. Crural (leg)
C. Tarsal (ankle)
D. Digits (toes)
E. Pelvic (pelvis)
F. Inguinal (groin)
G. Pubic (pubis)
H. Femoral (thigh)
I. Pedal (foot)
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13
Q

Identify the posterior anatomical landmarks…

A 
A. Acromial (shoulder)
B. Dorsal (back)
C. Olecranal (back of elbow)
D. Lumbar (loin)
E. Gluteal (buttock)
F. Popliteal (back of knee)
G. Sural (calf) 
H. Cephalic (head)
I. Cervical (neck)
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14
Q

Identify the sectional planes of anatomical study…

A

A. Sagittal plane
B. Frontal (coronal) plane
C. Transverse (horizontal) plane

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15
Q

Identify the terms of anatomical direction…

A 
A. Superior
B. Proximal (arm)
C. Lateral
D. Medial
E. Proximal (leg)
F. Distal (leg)
G. Distal (arm)
H. Inferior
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16
Q

Identify the terms of anatomical direction…

A

A. Cranial or cephalic
B. Posterior or dorsal
C. Anterior or ventral
D. Caudal

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17
Q 
The trunk is subdivided into the abdominopelvic and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Pericardial cavity
B. Peritoneal cavity
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Pelvic cavity
A

C. Thoracic cavity

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18
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ attaches to the surface of the heart.
A. Visceral pleura
B. Visceral pericardium
C. Parietal pericardium
D. Visceral peritoneum
A

B. Visceral pericardium

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19
Q 
Identify this cavity...
A. Pericardial
B. Cranial
C. Peritoneal
D. Pleural
A

A. Pericardial

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20
Q

Identify the components of a model cell…

A 
A. Microvilli
B. Cytosol
C. Centrosome (centrioles)
D. Nucleus
E. Cytoskeleton
F. Plasma membrane
G. Free ribosomes
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21
Q

Identify the components of a model cell…

A 
A. Secretory vesicles
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Proteasomes
D. Mitochondrion
E. Ribosomes
F. Endoplasmic reticulum
G. Peroxisome
H. Lysosome
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22
Q 
One function of the cytoskeleton is to provide...
A. Energy production
B. Sensitivity
C. Strength and integrity to the cell
D. The division of the cell
A

C. Strength and integrity to the cell

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23
Q

This area of the endoplasmic reticulum indicated by the red arrows is involved in ________.
A. Intracellular storage, like calcium in muscle cells
B. Synthesis of steroid hormones
C. Synthesizing, modifying, and packaging proteins
D. The synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates

A

C. Synthesizing, modifying, and packaging proteins

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24
Q 
Which organelle is involved in the destruction of bacteria, old organelles, and the liberation of enzymes?
A. Peroxisomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
D. Centrioles
A

B. Lysosomes

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25
Q

What constitutes a free radical?
A. Free radicals are considered as inert molecules
B. The free radicals formed in the body are made up of mostly carbon atoms
C. Free radicals are highly reactive atoms with an unpaired electron
D. A molecule that acts as a buffer

A

C. Free radicals are highly reactive atoms with an unpaired electron

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26
Q 
Which structure is indicated by the arrow?
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
C. Cilia
D. Nucleus
A

D. Nucleus

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27
Q

Identify the parts of a cell nucleus…

A 
A. Nucleoplasm
B. Chromatin
C. Nucleolus
D. Nuclear envelope
E. Nuclear pore
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28
Q 
DNA...
A. Contains uracil
B. Is transcribed into mRNA
C. Is processed to remove introns
D. Is non-complementary
A

B. Is transcribed into mRNA

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29
Q

While some mutations in the coding sequence of DNA may prove to be positive, most mutations negatively impact the lives of individuals. However, some mutations have no effect at all. How is this possible?
A. There is redundancy in the genetic code to where more than one triplet codes for the same amino acid.
B. Ribosomes require only two of the three nucleotides in a codon to stay constant.
C. Mutations are never passed on genetically.
D. Nucleotides in the short tandem repeats are immune to mutations.

A

A. There is redundancy in the genetic code to where more than one triplet codes for the same amino acid

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30
Q

Sickle cell disease distorts the shape of red blood cells. This distortion renders the red blood cells incapable of carrying out their main function, which is transporting oxygen. What causes this distortion?
A. An insertion in the nucleotide sequence
B. A reversal of the entire nucleotide sequence
C. A deletion in the nucleotide sequence
D. A point mutation in the nucleotide sequence

A

D. A point mutation in the nucleotide sequence

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31
Q

The effectiveness of certain anesthetics depends in part on their lipid solubility. Why is this?
A. The hydrophobic core of the phospholipid bilayer enables lipid-soluble substances to readily pass through the plasma membrane.
B. The hydrophilic nature of lipid-soluble drugs speeds up their passage through the plasma membrane.
C. Polar substances, such as lipid-soluble drugs, have high solubility.
D. Lipid-soluble drugs trigger the opening of certain channels, which they can use to pass through the plasma membrane.

A

A. The hydrophobic core of the phospholipid bilayer enables lipid-soluble substances to readily pass through the plasma membrane

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32
Q

Choose the correct statement about telomerases.
A. Telomerases are enzymes that are active throughout one’s lifetime.
B. Telomerases are functionally identical to DNA polymerases.
C. Telomerases consist of specific groupings of nitrogenous bases that are repeated.
D. Telomerases are enzymes that form telomeres.

A

D. Telomerases are enzymes that form telomeres

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33
Q

The cessation of telomerase activity as we age limits the number of times a cell can replicate. Current research on telomerases is particularly useful in the fight against cancer. Why is this so?
A. Cancer cells have telomerases that suppress the occurrence of cellular mutations.
B. Cancer cells employ a mechanism that activates telomerases, which leads to uncontrolled cellular division.
C. Cancer cells have telomerases that trigger the loss of stem cell populations.
D. Telomerase activation may help reduce the amount of mechanical damage incurred by DNA in cancer cells.

A

B. Cancer cells employ a mechanism that activates telomerases, which leads to uncontrolled cellular division

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34
Q

There is a lot of talk about stem cells in the media. What is unique about these cells?
A. Stem cells can provide a cure for all diseases.
B. Stem cells can grow under any conditions.
C. Stem cells are not fully differentiated.
D. Stem cells are not affected by nutrient availability.

A

C. Stem cells are not fully differentiated

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35
Q

What is the link between Parkinson’s disease and stem cell research?
A. Parkinson’s disease occurs because of lack of stem cells.
B. Studies with rats have shown how stem cells encourage the progressive loss of dopamine-producing cells associated with Parkinson’s disease.
C. Researchers have managed to generate induced pluripotent stem cells, which may differentiate into dopamine-producing neurons.
D. Patients with Parkinson’s disease produce a particularly promising type of neuronal stem cell that may be used to treat other neurodegenerative disorders.

A

C. Researchers have managed to generate induced pluripotent stem cells, which may differentiate into dopamine-producing neurons

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36
Q

The wall of the alveolus (air sac) in the lung is composed of which type of epithelium?
A. Transitional epithelium
B. Simple squamous epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium

A

B. Simple squamous epithelium

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37
Q

The proximal tubule of the nephron (kidney tubule) in the kidney is composed of which type of epithelium?
A. Simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Stratified squamous epithelium
C. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

A. Simple cuboidal epithelium

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38
Q

The epithelium of the esophagus is composed of which type of epithelial tissue?
A. Simple columnar epithelium
B. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
C. Stratified squamous epithelium

A

C. Stratified squamous epithelium

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39
Q

Which part of the neuron (a specialized nerve cell) receives signals from other cells and is also the main metabolic region of the neuron?
A. Soma
B. Dendrites
C. Axon

A

A. Soma

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40
Q

Which of the three muscle cell types has multiple nuclei?
A. Smooth
B. Cardiac
C. Skeletal

A

C. Skeletal

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41
Q

Which muscle cell type has visible striations but is not under voluntary control?
A. Skeletal
B. Smooth
C. Cardiac

A

C. Cardiac

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42
Q 
Which surface attaches to the underlying epithelial cells or deeper tissues?
A. Basal
B. Apical
C. Lateral
D. Glandular
A

A. basal

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43
Q 
What structure is indicated by the arrow?
A. Tight junction
B. Spot desmosome
C. Hemidesmosome
D. Gap junctions
A

B. Spot desmosome

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44
Q 
Which junction is required for cell-to-cell communication?
A. Hemidesmosome
B. Spot desmosome
C. Tight junction
D. Gap junction
A

D. Gap junction

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45
Q

Identify the structures in epithelial cells…

A 
A. Cilia
B. Microvilli
C. Apical surface
D. Lateral surfaces
E. Golgi apparatus
F. Nucleus
G. Mitochondria
H. Basement membrane
I. Basal surface
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46
Q 
Which epithelium, shown at the end of the arrow, is responsible for protection, secretion, and absorption?
A. Transitional
B. Stratified columnar
C. Stratified cuboidal
D. Simple cuboidal
A

C. Stratified cuboidal

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47
Q

Identify the type of epithelia…

A 
A. Simple
B. Squamous
C. Cuboidal
D. Columnar
E. Simple squamous epithelium
F. Simple cuboidal epithelium
G. Simple columnar epithelium
H. Stratified
I. Stratified squamous epithelium
J. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
K. Stratified columnar epithelium
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48
Q

Exfoliative cytology involves the removal of epithelial cells for examination. Which of the following is NOT a clinical application of exfoliative cytology?
A. Amniocentesis performed partway through a pregnancy
B. A Pap test performed to examine cells for cervical cancer.
C. Examination of cardiac muscle cells after a heart attack
D. Evaluating lesions in the oral cavity and pharynx

A

C. Examination of cardiac muscle cells after a heart attack

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49
Q

In exfoliative cytology, epithelial cells are removed and examined without any lasting damage to the tissue from which these cells are removed. Why is there usually NO lasting damage?
A. The contractile property of epithelial tissue minimizes scarring.
B. Epithelial tissue is capable of regeneration.
C.Epithelial tissues are avascular.
D. The stored energy in epithelial tissue facilitates effective healing.

A

B. Epithelial tissue is capable of regeneration

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50
Q 
In "simple columnar epithelium," which word describes cell shape and which word describes the number of cell layers?
A. Epithelium; columnar
B. Columnar; simple
C. Simple; epithelium
D. Columnar; epithelium
E. Simple; columnar
A

B. Columnar; simple

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51
Q

Identify the cells and fibers of connective tissue proper using diagrammatic and histological views…

A 
A. Reticular fibers
B. Melanocyte
C. Free macrophage
D. Blood in vessel
E. Adipocytes
F. Ground substance
G. Fixed macrophage
H. Mast cell
I. Elastic fibers
J. Collagen fibers
K. Fibroblast
L. Mesenchymal cell
M. Lymphocyte
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52
Q 
Which cell, at the end of the arrow, is present in many connective tissues and can differentiate into different types of cells?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Adipocytes
C. Mesenchymal
D. Melanocytes
A

C. Mesenchymal

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53
Q 
Identify the connective tissue fiber at the end of the arrow that resists pulling and stretching forces in one direction.
A. Collagen
B. Elastic
C. Reticular
D. Erythrocyte
A

A. Collagen

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54
Q

Identify the types of connective tissue proper…

A

A. Areolar tissue
B. Adipose tissue
C. Dense regular connective tissue
D. Dense irregular connective tissue

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55
Q

Identify the types of supporting connective tissues…

A

A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Bone (osseous tissue)

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56
Q

A marked loss in strength and elasticity of connective tissue characterizes Marfan’s syndrome. Which connective tissue component imparts strength and elasticity?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Ground substance
C. Adipocytes
D. Proteinaceous connective tissue fibers

A

D. Proteinaceous connective tissue fibers

57
Q

Which type of loose connective tissue provides padding, cushions shock, reduces heat loss, and stores energy? Where are some places in the body this type of tissue is commonly found?
A. Adipose tissue; deep to the skin at sides, buttocks, and breasts
B. Reticular tissue; around eyes and kidneys
C. Areolar tissue; liver and kidney
D. Areolar tissue; deep to the dermis, between muscles and around joints
E. Reticular tissue; spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow

A

A. Adipose tissue; deep to the skin at sides, buttocks, and breats

58
Q 
Which structure typically receives information from other neurons?
A. Dendrite
B. Neuroglia
C. Axon
D. Microfibrils
A

A. Dendrite

59
Q

Identify the following epidermal layers…

A 
A. Dermal papilla
B. Epidermal ridge
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratum lucidum
E. Stratum granulosum
F. Stratum spinosum
G. Stratum basale
H. Basement membrane
I. Dermis
60
Q

Identify the basic structures of the epidermis-dermis junction…

A 
A. Epidermis
B. Basement membrane 
C. Epidermal ridge
D. Dermal papilla
E. Dermis
61
Q 
What structure is responsible for increasing surface area to provide for the strength of attachment between the epidermis and dermis?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Epidermal ridge
C. Stratum lucidum
D. Tactile discs
A

B. Epidermal ridge

62
Q 
The dermis is composed of the papillary layer and the...
A. Epidermis
B. Cutaneous plexus
C. Hypodermis
D. Reticular layer
A

D. Reticular layer

63
Q

Identify the melanocyte in the stratum basale of the epidermis…

A 
A. Stratum basale
B. Dermis
C. Melanosome
D. Keratinocyte
E. Melanin pigment 
F. Melanocyte
G. Basement membrane
64
Q 
Melanocytes...
A. Are located in the stratum corneum
B. Manufacture melanin from the amino acid alanine
C. Store melanin in melanosomes
D. Are not found in albino individuals
A

C. Store melanin in melanosomes

65
Q

Identify the components of the integumentary system…

A 
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. Papillary layer
D. Reticular layer
E.Hypodermis
F. Fat
G. Cutaneous plexus
66
Q 
In which layer of the skin are melanocytes found?
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum lucidum
D. Stratum granulosum
E. Straum spinosum
A

A. Stratum basale

67
Q 
Which of the following layers is targeted by liposuction?
A. The stratum cornea of the epidermis
B. The reticular layer of the dermis
C. The papillary layer of the dermis 
D. The hypodermis
A

D. The hypodermis

68
Q

Healthy skin cells require a constant supply of blood. In decubitus ulcers, or bed sores, this blood supply is hindered because superficial blood vessels are compressed. Which layer(s) of the skin hold(s) such compressed blood vessels?
A. The stratum spinosum of the epidermis
B. The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis
C. The stratum basale of the epidermis
D. All of the listed answers are correct.

A

B. The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis

69
Q 
Skin cancers are the most common form of cancers and they range from benign to malignant. Which of the following types of skin cancers is considered the most common but also the LEAST dangerous?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Actinic keratosis
A

B. Basal cell carcinoma

70
Q 
ABCDE is an easy mnemonic device that is used while inspecting suspicious moles for indicators of skin cancer. Which of the following letters is NOT correctly matched with its definition?
A. B = border
B. C = color
C. A = asymmetry
D. D = density
A

D. D = density

71
Q

Skin color may have a diagnostic function. Imagine one of your friends has an obvious orange tint to her skin. What would be a logical conclusion of your observation?
A. She may have a blood-clotting disorder
B. She may suffer from damage to her liver
C. She may have a real taste for consuming carrots
D. She may have overactive melanocytes

A

C. She may have a real taste for consuming carrots

72
Q

Classify the bones by shape…

A 
A. Sutural bones
B. Irregular bones
C. Short bones
D. Flat bones
E. Long bones
F. Sesamoid bones
73
Q 
What is the classification of this bone according to its shape?
A. Sutural
B. Short
C. Irregular
D. Long
A

A. Sutural

74
Q 
Name the bone structure indicated by the arrow.
A. Epiphysis
B. Metaphysis
C. Medullary cavity
D. Compact bone
A

C. Medullary cavity

75
Q

Identify the structures of the long bone…

A 
A. Spongy bone
B. Compact bone
C. Medullary cavity
D. Proximal epiphysis
E. Proximal metaphysis
F. Diaphysis (shaft) 
G. Distal metaphysis
H. Distal epiphysis
76
Q

Identify the types of bone cells…

A

A. Osteogenic cells
B. Osteoblast
C. Osteocyte
D. Osteoclast

77
Q

Label the appropriate locations in the figure…

A

A. Osteon
B. Lacunae
C. Central canal
D. Lamellae

78
Q

Identify the structures found in compact bone…

A 
A. Periosteum
B. Concentric lamellae
C. Interstitial lamellae
D. Trabeculae of spongy bone 
E. Perforating canal
F. Central canal
G. Circumferential lamellae
H. Osteons
I. Perforating fibers
79
Q

Identify the types of fractures…

A 
A. Transverse fracture
B. Displaced fracture
C. Compression fracture
D. Spiral fracture
E. Epiphyseal fracture
F. Comminuted fracture
G. Greenstick fracture
H. Colles fracture
I. Pott's fracture
80
Q

How is giantism similar to acromegaly?
A. Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth.
B. Both disorders stem from aberrations in the mesenchymal membranes of the embryonic skeleton.
C. Both disorders result in continued growth of cartilage within the diaphysis.
D. Both disorders result from a decrease in growth hormone availability.

A

A. Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth

81
Q 
Marfan's syndrome is a disorder associated with excessive growth in length of limbs and digits, giving the afflicted individual a tall and lanky appearance. What is the clinical term for bone growth in length?
A. Heterotopic ossification
B. Appositional growth
C. Interstitial growth
D. Intramembranous ossification
A

C. Interstitial growth

82
Q

Alex and his mother both suffer from osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), which means the imperfect formation of bone. Which bone cells are responsible for the formation of new bone matrix?
A. Osteocytes are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.
B. Osteoblasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.
C. Osteogenic cells are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.
D. Osteoclasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.

A

B. Osteoblasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix

83
Q

Bone is a type of connective tissue, with specialized cells embedded in a matrix. What does the matrix of bone consist of?
A. Approximately one-third of the weight of bone is composed primarily of magnesium salts that form hard, brittle crystals. The other major components of the bony matrix are calcium and elastic fibers, which provide hardness and tensile strength to bone.
B. Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of sodium salts that form hard, brittle crystals. The other major components of the bony matrix are collagen fibers, which provide tensile strength to bone.
C. Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of calcium salts that form hard, brittle crystals of hydroxyapatite. The other major component of the bony matrix is the collagen fibers that provide tensile strength to bone.
D. Approximately one-half of the weight of bone is composed primarily of brittle crystals of potassium salts that form hydroxyapatite. The other major components of the bony matrix are calcium and reticular fibers, which provide hardness and elastic strength to bone.

A

C. Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of calcium salts that form hard, brittle crystals of hydroxyapatite. The other major component of the bony matrix is the collagen fibers that provide tensile strength to bone

84
Q 
There currently is no cure for OI, and treatments are often aimed at preventing or controlling symptoms. One common treatment is rodding surgery, where a metal rod is inserted into a long bone to strengthen and prevent deformity. Using what you know about the structure of a typical long bone, what part of the long bone is the most likely place for this rod to be inserted?
A. The compact bone of the diaphysis
B. The medullary cavity of the diaphysis
C. The distal epiphysis
D. The proximal epiphysis
A

B. The medullary cavity of the diaphysis

85
Q

Alex had incurred previous fractures that were already in the process of healing when he went to the emergency room for his current injury. What is the correct sequence of events in the repair of a fracture?
A. Callus formation, formation of primary ossification center, mesenchymal clustering, transformation of spongy to compact bone
B. Mesenchymal clustering, osteoblast differentiation, ossification, penetration of blood vessels, formation and remodeling of spongy bone
C. Hyaline model, penetration by blood vessels, formation of primary ossification center, formation of secondary ossification center, formation of spongy and compact bone
D. Hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, and compact bone formation

A

D. Hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, and compact bone formation

86
Q

Identify the bones of the axial skeleton…

A 
A. Cranium
B. Face
C. Auditory ossicles
D. Hyoid
E. Sternum
F. Ribs
G. Vertebrae
H. Sacrum
I. Coccyx
87
Q

Identify the bones of the adult skull, anterior view…

A 
A. Parietal bone
B. Nasal bone
C. Ethmoid
D. Temporal bone
E. Palatine bone
F. Lacrimal bone
G. Zygomatic bone
H. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
I. Vomer
88
Q

Identify the bones of the adult skull, anterior view…

A 
A. Sagittal suture
B. Coronal suture
C. Frontal bone
D. Supraorbital foramen
E. Sphenoid
F. Optic canal
G. Maxilla
H. Infraorbital foramen
I. Mandible
J. Mental foramen
89
Q

Identify the bones of the adult skull, lateral view…

A 
A. Coronal suture
B. Squamous suture
C. Lambdoid suture
D. Occipital bone
E. External acoustic meatus
F. Parietal bone
G. Frontal bone
H. Temporal bone
I. Zygomatic arch
J. Mandible
90
Q

Identify the bones of the adult skull, lateral view…

A 
A. Sphenoid
B. Supraorbital foramen
C. Nasal bone
D. Lacrimal bone
E. Ethmoid
F. Infraorbital foramen
G. Maxilla
H. Mental foramen
I. Zygomatic bone
91
Q

Identify the curves and regions of the vertebral column…

A 
A. Cervical curve
B. Thoracic curve
C. Lumbar curve
D. Sacral curve
E. Cervical region
F. Thoracic region
G. Lumbar region
H. Sacral region
I. Coccygeal region
92
Q

Identify the structures on a vertebra…

A 
A. Superior articular process
B. Transverse process
C. Spinous process
D. Inferior articular facet
E. Inferior articular process
F. Vertebral foramen
G. Vertebral body
H. Pedicle
93
Q

Identify the parts of the thoracic cage…

A 
A. Jugular notch
B. Clavicular articulation
C. Manubrium
D. Body
E. Xiphoid process
F. Costal cartilages
G. Vertebrochondral ribs
H. Floating ribs
I. True ribs
J. False ribs
94
Q 
Which suture separates the right and left parietal bones?
A. Coronal
B. Squamous
C. Lambdoid
D. Sagittal
A

D. Sagittal

95
Q 
Which spinal curve develops as the infant learns to support the head?
A. Sacral
B. Lumbar
C. Cervical
D. Thoracic
A

C. Cervical

96
Q 
Name the vertebral process indicated by the arrow...
A. Spinous
B. Inferior articular process
C. Transverse process
D. Superior articular process
A

A. Spinous

97
Q 
Sinusitis, an inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, is brought on by a viral, bacterial, or fungal infection. The most commonly affected paranasal sinuses are the most inferior ones, which are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Ethmoid air cells
B. Maxillary sinuses
C. Sphenoidal sinuses
D. Frontal sinuses
A

B. Maxillary sinuses

98
Q 
While skateboarding, a young person suffered a fracture of the nose that resulted in a deviated septum. Which of the following bones or bone markings is most likely attended to during corrective surgery following this accident?
A. Greater wings of the sphenoid
B. Lacrimal bone
C. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
D. Palatine process of the maxilla
A

C. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid

99
Q 
When fontanelles close prematurely, the skull shape becomes distorted. This condition is known as craniostenosis. If the anterior fontanelle closes prematurely, which of the following sutures is most likely involved?
A. Sphenoidal sutures
B. Lambdoid suture
C. Coronal suture
D. Squamous suture
A

C. Coronal suture

100
Q

During a particularly stressful point in her life, a student suddenly developed a disorder called temporomandibular joint syndrome. As a result, she frequently experiences pain and grinds her teeth during sleep. Which two bone markings are directly involved in this disorder?
A. Mastoid process and mandibular notch
B. Coronoid process and external acoustic meatus
C. Mandibular fossa and condylar process
D. Mandibular foramen and styloid process

A

C. Mandibular fossa and condylar process

101
Q 
Compression fractures associated with osteoporosis of vertebral bodies can distort the normal thoracic curvature of the vertebral column in a posterior direction. Such a distortion is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Kyphosis
B. Scoliosis
C. Lordosis
D. Spinal stenosis
A

A. Kyphosis

102
Q 
In some individuals, body fat accumulates almost exclusively in the belly region. Because of the enlarged belly, the individual has a swayback appearance. The clinical term for this distortion of the vertebral curvature is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Ossitis
A

B. Lordosis

103
Q

Identify the bones of the appendicular skeleton…

A 
A. Pectoral girdles
B. Upper limbs
C. Clavicle
D. Scapula
E. Humerus
F. Radius
G. Ulna
H. Carpal bones
I. Metacarpals
J. Phalanges
104
Q

Identify the bones of the appendicular skeleton…

A 
A. Pelvic girdle
B. Lower limbs
C. Hip bone
D. Femur
E. Patella
F. Tibia
G. Fibula
H. Tarsal bones
I. Metatarsals
J. Phalanges
105
Q

Identify the parts of the scapula…

A 
A. Coracoid process
B. Supraspinous fossa
C. Superior border 
D. Acromion
E. Glenoid cavity
F. Medial border
G. Neck
H. Spine
I. Infraspinous fossa
J. Lateral border
106
Q

Identify the parts of the humerus…

A 
A. Greater tubercle
B. Lesser tubercle
C. Shaft
D. Head
E. Anatomical neck
F. Surgical neck
G. Olecranon fossa
H. Coronoid fossa
I. Medial epicondyle
J. Trochlea
107
Q

Identify the parts of the radius and ulna…

A 
A. Olecranon
B. Radial tuberosity
C. Radius
D. Interosseous membrane
E. Ulnar notch of radius
F. Radial styloid process
G. Trochlear notch 
H. Coronoid process
I. Radial notch
J. Ulna
K. Head of ulna
108
Q

Identify the parts of the pelvis of the adult male…

A 
A. Sacroiliac joint
B. Acetabulum
C. Pubic tubercle
D. Obturator foramen
E. Sacrum
F. Iliac crest
G. Ilium
H. Pubis
I. Pubic symphysis
J. Ischium
109
Q

Identify the parts of the tibia and fibula…

A 
A. Lateral tibial condyle
B. Medial tibial condyle
C. Tibial tuberosity
D. Interosseous membrane
E. Tibia
F. Medial malleolus (tibia)
G. Intercondylar eminence 
H. Head of fibula
I. Fibula
J. Lateral malleolus (fibula)
110
Q 
Identify the bone at the end of the arrow...
A. Femur
B. Tibia
C. Fibula
D. Ulna
A

C. Fibula

111
Q 
Which bone is the heel of the human foot?
A. Talus
B. Navicular
C. Calcaneus
D. Cuboid
A

C. Calcaneus

112
Q 
A more convex longitudinal arch partly characterizes a foot deformity called congenital talipes equinovarus. Which two bones are tied together by ligaments and tendons to maintain this arch?
A. Calcaneus and metatarsals
B. Calcaneus and proximal phalanx
C. Talus and distal phalanx
D. Talus and proximal phalanx
A

A. Calcaneus and metatarsals

113
Q

Which of the following is a NOT a likely explanation for the increased occurrence of hip fractures in the elderly?
A. Bone density decreases with age.
B. Osteoporosis reduces the ability of bone to be effectively remodeled.
C. There is a reduced ability to balance that often accompanies old age.
D. The proximal epiphysis of the femur has a preponderance of spongy bone, which is weaker than compact bone.

A

D. The proximal epiphysis of the femur has a preponderance of spongy bone, which is weaker than compact bone

114
Q

Shin splints occur as a result of pulled tendons and muscles of the lower leg. What is the best way to avoid shin splints?
A. Apply heat after exercise.
B. Gradually build up the workout schedule and do more cross training in order to avoid doing too much too fast.
C. No pain no gain: Increase the intensity of the workout.
D. Ice the lower leg prior to training.

A

B. Gradually build up the workout schedule and do more cross training in order to avoid doing too much too fast

115
Q 
Stress fractures due to running primarily affect the metatarsals. Which of the following bones does NOT articulate with the metatarsals?
A. Navicular
B. Medial cuneiform
C. Cuboid
D. Proximal phalanx
A

A. Navicular

116
Q

Identify the various types of synarthroses and amphiarthroses…

A 
A. Suture
B. Gomphosis
C. Synchondrosis
D. Synostosis
E. Syndesmosis
F. Symphysis
117
Q

Identify the structures within a synovial joint…

A 
A. Medullary cavity
B. Articular cartilages
C. Metaphysis
D. Spongy bone
E. Periosteum 
F. Fibrous joint capsule
G. Synovial membrane
H. Joint cavity (containing synovial fluid)
I. Compact bone
118
Q

Identify the angular movements of the joints…

A 
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Hyperextension
D. Abduction
E. Adduction
F. Circumduction
119
Q

Identify the rotational movements of the joints…

A 
A. Right rotation of head
B. Left rotation of head
C. Lateral (external) rotation
D. Medial (internal) rotation
E. Supination
F. Pronation
120
Q

Identify the special movements of the joints…

A 
A. Eversion
B. Inversion
C. Dorsiflexion
D. Plantar flexion
E. Opposition
F. Retraction
G. Protraction
H. Depression
I. Elevation
J. Lateral flexion
121
Q 
This movement, indicated by the arrow, is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Lateral flexion
B. Inversion
C. Protraction
D. Dorsiflexion
A

B. Inversion

122
Q 
This movement, indicated by the arrow, is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Lateral flexion
B. Protraction
C. Depression
D. Retraction
A

B. Protraction

123
Q 
This movement is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Lateral flexion
B. Flexion
C. Protraction
D. Hyperextension
A

A. Lateral flexion

124
Q 
This movement indicated by the arrow is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Protraction
B. Dorsiflexion
C. Inversion
D. Lateral flexion
A

B. Dorsiflexion

125
Q

Identify the following synovial joints…

A 
A. Plane (gliding) joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Condylar (ellipsoid) joint
E. Saddle joint
F. Ball-and-socket joint
126
Q

Identify the structures in the right knee joint…

A 
A. Quadriceps tendon
B. Patellar retinaculae
C. Fibular collateral ligament
D. Patella
E. Tibial collateral ligament
F. Patellar ligament
127
Q

Identify the structures and ligaments of the shoulder joint…

A 
A. Subdeltoid bursa
B. Synovial membrane
C. Acromioclavicular ligament
D. Coracoacromial ligament 
E. Coracoclavicular ligaments
F. Articular cartilages
G. Joint cavity
H. Glenoid labrum
I. Articular capsule
128
Q 
Which structure of the intervertebral articulation gives the disc its resiliency and ability to absorb shock?
A. Vertebral end plates
B. Ligamentum flavum
C. Nucleus pulposus
D. Anulus fibrosus
A

C. Nucleus pulposus

129
Q 
Which structure of the intervertebral disc attaches to the bodies of adjacent vertebra?
A. Anulus fibrosus
B. Ligamentum flavum
C. Nucleus pulposus 
D. Vertebral end plates
A

A. Anulus fibrosus

130
Q 
Within an intervertebral disc, which structure provides the tough outer layer of fibrocartilage and which structure provides the soft inner core for resiliency and shock absorption? 
A. Anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus
B. Nucleus fibrosus; anulus pulposus
C. Nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus
D. Anular ligament; spinous ligament
E. Anulus pulposus; nucleus fibrosus
A

A. Anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus

131
Q 
The fluid within bursae functions to cushion structures in or around a joint. In bursitis, excessive fluid accumulates and joint movements become painful. What is the name of this fluid within healthy bursae?
A. Pus
B. Synovial fluid
C. Sebum
D. Plasma
A

B. Synovial fluid

132
Q 
Dislocations are more common in highly movable joints. Which of the following types of joints would be LEAST likely to dislocate?
A. A fibrous syndesmosis
B. A bony synostosis 
C. A triaxial diarthrosis
D. A cartilaginous symphysis
A

B. A bony synostosis

133
Q

How is a bulging disc different from a herniated disc?
A. In a bulging disk, the hyaline cartilage of the anulus fibrosus is still intact.
B. In a bulging disk, the anulus fibrosus protrudes into the vertebral canal.
C. In a bulging disk, the anulus fibrosus protrudes into the nucleus pulposus.
D. In a bulging disk, the anulus fibrosus has become torn.

A

B. In a bulging disk, the anulus fibrosus protrudes into the vertebral canal

134
Q 
During a weightlifting event, a participant suffered a painful injury involving a connective tissue pad on the lateral border of his left knee. Which structure is most likely the one that got damaged?
A. The lateral collateral ligament 
B. The lateral meniscus
C. The medial meniscus
D. The fibular collateral ligament
A

B. The lateral meniscus

135
Q

A torn lateral collateral ligament destabilizes the connection between which of the following bones?
A. The femur and the heads of the tibia and fibula
B. The femur and the fibula
C. The patella and the tibia
D. The femur and the tibia

A

B. The femur and the fibula

136
Q

Jessica’s mother takes her to see her pediatrician, who refers her to a rheumatologist, a doctor who specializes in rheumatic diseases. This doctor withdraws some synovial fluid using a small needle from Jessica’s warm, swollen, tender knee that has limited motion. What types of joint are freely movable like the knee?
A. Diarthroses are freely movable joints.
B. Synarthroses are freely movable joints.
C. Synchrondroses are freely movable joints.
D. Amphiarthroses are freely movable joints.

A

A. Diarthroses are freely moveable joints

137
Q

Jessica’s knee is a synovial joint. What type of synovial joint is the knee, and what movements is this joint capable of?
A. Saddle joint capable of biaxial movement
B. Hinge joint capable of monaxial movement
C. Ball-and socket-joint capable of triaxial movement
D. Pivot joint capable of rotation

A

B. Hinge joint capable of monaxial movement

138
Q 
Jessica is suffering from juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, the most common type of childhood arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the synovial membrane. What treatment would you recommend for Jessica?
A. Immune suppressants
B. Corticosteroid injections
C. Limiting activity
D. Gentle exercise and NSAIDs
A

D. Gentle exercise and NSAIDs

139
Q 
Rheumatoid arthritis is just one of several types of arthritis. What do all types of arthritis have in common?
A. Destruction of cartilage
B. Crystals of uric acid
C. A genetic predisposition
D. Viral or bacterial infection
A

A. Destruction of cartilage

Anatomy and Physiology Lab (5 decks)

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