Chapter 7- antibacterial and antiviral agents Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In reconstituting an antibiotic in powder form, the nurse:
A

changes the needle used to reconstitute the medication before administering the drug to the client.

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2
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer oral penicillin and plans to give it to the client:

A

1–2 hours before meals or 2–3 hours after meals .Oral penicillin should be administered on an empty stomach because food may interfere with the absorption of oral penicillin.

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3
Q

To reduce the possibility of local tissue reactions to intramuscular injection of penicillin, the nurse:

A

replaces the needle that was used to withdraw medication from the vial.

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4
Q

Because of the likelihood of cross-sensitivity reaction, cephalosporins should be administered with extreme caution to clients with a history of allergic reaction to:

A

penicillins. Because cephalosporins were developed as offshoots of penicillins, there may be cross-sensitivities between penicillins and cephalosporins.

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5
Q

The likelihood of nephrotoxicity may be increased for clients taking cephalosporin antibiotics and:

A

loop diuretics
If a client is taking furosemide with either cephalosporins or aminoglycosides, the risk of nephrotoxicity is increased.

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6
Q

The client who has just received a prescription for oral tetracycline should be advised to avoid:

A

calcium-containing antacids

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7
Q

Tetracycline should not be given to:

A

children under 8 years
Because of the effects on teeth and bone development, tetracycline should not be taken by children under the age of eight.

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8
Q

A client is prescribed an aminoglycoside, and the nurse understands that the usual route by which most aminoglycosides are administered is:

A

parenteral

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9
Q

Clients taking aminoglycosides should have the functioning of the ____ tested before and during treatment.

A

eighth cranial nerve

This is to monitor for ototoxicity.

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10
Q

Clients at risk of developing nephrotoxicity while taking aminoglycosides are:

A

those with dehydration are at increased risk for nephrotoxicity if taking aminoglycosides, because the dehydration decreases renal perfusion.

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11
Q

Second-generation fluoroquinolones are frequently used to treat:

A

genitourinary infections

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12
Q

Carbapenems are contraindicated in clients with history of anaphylaxis with:

A

cephalosporins. are contraindicated in clients with a history of anaphylaxis with the use of cephalosporins.

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13
Q

The client asks why she will be taking two medications to treat her tuberculosis. The best response by the nurse is:

A

“Clients tend to develop bacterial resistance when only one medication is used.”

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14
Q

A client with TB is prescribed isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyridoxine. The nurse understands that pyridoxine is used in this combination to:

A

prevent INH-induced peripheral neuropathy.

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15
Q

Some persons metabolize isoniazid (INH) more rapidly than others. It is important for the nurse to remember that:

A

slow acetylators are more likely to experience drug toxicity.

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16
Q

Two days later, the client calls the nurse to report a sore throat, fever, and jaundice. The nurse should advise the client to

A

stop the sulfonamide and see the health care provider as soon as possible, as these may be manifestations of a blood dyscrasia.

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17
Q

Clients taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for the treatment of a urinary tract infection should be told:

A

that their urine may turn orange-red.

18
Q

Prior to administering vidarabine (Vira-A) to a client, the nurse should:

A

inquire if the client is pregnant.

19
Q

When preparing the client’s pentamidine (Nebupent) powder, the nurse:

A

Correct: The powder should be reconstituted with 6 mL of bacteriostatic sterile water.

20
Q

A client with HIV is prescribed pentamidine IM daily for 14 days. The client weighs 121 pounds. What dose should be prescribed for this client?

A

220 mg, The recommended dose of pentamidine IM is 4 mg/kg. Divide 121 pounds by 2.2 = 55 kg; then multiply 55 kg by 4 mg = 220 mg.

21
Q

All of the following are true about zidovudine (Retrovir) EXCEPT:

A

clients cannot transmit HIV while taking zidovudine

22
Q

Antimicrobial agents that inhibit growth of bacteria, allowing the host’s immunological defenses to complete the job of destroying the organism, are called:

A

bacteriostatic, inhibit the growth of bacteria, but do not actively kill the bacteria that are present.

23
Q

What is a major disadvantage of using broad-spectrum antimicrobial agents to treat infections?

A

They destroy normal flora, enabling superinfections to develop.

24
Q

A client was admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. The client’s health care provider prescribes Zinacef (a second-generation cephalosporin) 2 grams IV q8h. While preparing to administer the first dose of Zinacef, the nurse notices that the client has a penicillin allergy. The best action by the nurse is to:

A

hold the Zinacef and notify the health care provider of the client’s allergy to penicillin.

25
Q

The nurse is teaching a client about the risk of antibiotic-resistant microorganism. Which response by the client indicates that more teaching is needed?

A

“If this medication doesn’t work within 5 days, I will quit taking it and make an appointment with my doctor.”

26
Q

For a client receiving tetracycline, the nurse needs to instruct the client to:

A

take medication with meals.

27
Q

A client with cystic fibrosis is being treated with IV ceftazidime and gentamicin. The nurse should:

A

monitor for nephrotoxicity

28
Q

When teaching a client taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro), the nurse should instruct the client to avoid:

A

antacids 4 hours before and 2 hours after oral dosing.

29
Q

A nurse working in a health care provider’s office sees a number of cases of the most common tick-transmitted disease, which is:

A

Lyme disease.

30
Q

When planning assignments for a pediatric unit, the charge nurse should NOT assign a pregnant nurse to a child receiving

A

ribavirin. Because of teratogenic effects of this drug, no pregnant individual should enter the room of a client during inhalation administration of ribavirin

31
Q

Prior to administering vidarabine to a client, the nurse should:

A

attach a filter to the vidarabine infusion.

32
Q

When administering IV vancomycin, the nurse should:

A

infuse this drug over a minimum of 1 hour. To decrease the risk of nephrotoxicity, infuse this drug over a minimum of 1 hour.

33
Q

Infusing vancomycin through a central venous access would prevent:

A

pain and phlebitis associated with peripheral infusion .Central venous access is preferred because of the high incidence of pain and phlebitis in peripheral veins from vancomycin infusions.

34
Q

A client with AIDS is prescribed didanosine and zidovudine. The nurse should include which of the following in teaching for this client?

A

Take these medications around-the-clock.to maintain a blood level of the drugs.

35
Q

The client has a new prescription for the antiretroviral agent, Emtriva. Which of these statements would be appropriate for the nurse to give in the client teaching?

A

“Emtriva may be taken without regard to food intake.”

36
Q

Which of the following is true of CA-MRSA?

A

The primary transmission method is contaminated hands.

37
Q

Which of the following statements would be appropriate in teaching a client about Tygacil?

A

“It can cause permanent tooth discoloration.”

38
Q

The nurse observes for which of the following manifestations of an allergic reaction in a client receiving penicillin? Select all that apply.

A

pruritis
urticaria
dyspnea

39
Q

When teaching a client who is prescribed a tetracycline, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following?

A
dairy products
zinc
iron
sodium bicarbonate
drugs containing calcium
40
Q

Clients taking sulfonamides for UTI should receive which of the following instructions from the nurse? Select all that apply.

A

Consume 3,000–4,000 of fluid per day.
Consume plenty of cranberry and orange juice.
Follow ways to avoid recurrent UTIs.